Canine Flashcards

1
Q

Ancylostoma caninum aka the ____ is treated with ____. This parasite migrates from ___ to ___ and end up in the ____ where they cause ___. This is also the cause of ____ in humans.

A

Hookworm; treat with Ivermectin, fenbendazole, pyrantel, or butamisole. Can penetrate through the skin of young pups and migrate to the lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed and mature in the small intestine. There, the worms suck blood and cause bleeding ulcers; up to 0.1 ml of blood per worm can be lost per day. Aberrant migration under the skin of infected people results in cutaneous larva migrans.

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2
Q

Aortic stenosis treatment

A

Medical management with beta blockers (ex. atenolol) used to reduce myocardial oxygen demand, thus reducing the frequency of ventricular arrhythmias.The owner should also be warned to the dog will need prophylactic antibiotics for any situation in which the dog may develop a bacteremia since it is at high risk of developing infective endocarditis.

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3
Q

Avascular necrosis (Legg-Calves-Perthes Disease) refers to _____. The cause is ____.

A

Results in a collapse or fragmentation of the femoral epiphysis because of a disruption in blood flow. The cause of blood flow interruption is unknown. The condition occurs in young small-breed dogs prior to closure of the capital femoral physis. The condition can be seen bilaterally in 10-17% of patients. Dogs are usually 6-7 months of age when they first start showing clinical signs but the age may range from 3-13 months. Treatment with a femoral head and neck ostectomy (FHO) generally yields excellent results. Alternatively, if owners demand perfect biomechanics, a total hip replacement may be considered, but most veterinarians tend to recommend an FHO.

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4
Q

Blastomycosis is common in what geographical location? What kind of budding does it do?

A

Broad-bases buddy organism. Dog likely has a history of travel to the Ohio River alley.

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5
Q

Blood profile with hypervitaminosis D

A

High Ca and High P

Excessive intake of vitamin D is associated with an increase in 25-hyroxyvitamin D3 levels. At high levels, 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 competes with 1,25-dihyroxyvitamin D3 for its receptors on the intestines and bone causing increased absorption of Ca and P from te intestinal tract and resorption of bone causing increased levels of circulating Ca and P. A common source of confusion in that this is in contrast to PTH which causes high Ca but generally causes unchanged or normal phosphorus because it also enhances renal phosphorus excretion.

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6
Q

Campylobacteriosis

A

mucous-laden diarrhea. Gram-negative “gull shaped” rods, single or in pairs or chains.

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7
Q

Dogs from __ to ____ months are most susceptible to Canine Distemper. This is a _____ virus of the family _____. Before this age they are protected by _____. This virus is highly contagious and spreads via ____. Clinical signs include _____. Diagnosis is by _____. The virus is shed for several weeks after infection, however it only lasts ___ at room temperature. It can be disinfected with ____. Vaccination is the cornerstone of distemper prevention. _____ are preferred in the shelter whereas _____ are fine to use in ____ populations.

A

Dogs from 3-6 months are most susceptible to Canine Distemper. This is a single stranded RNA virus of the family Paramyxoviridae. Before this age they are protected by maternally derived antibodies. This virus is highly contagious and spreads via aerosolized respiratory secretions. Clinical signs include diarrhea, respiratory signs and seizures. Diagnosis is by immunofluorescent assay on respiratory epithelium. The virus is shed for several weeks after infection, however it only survives a few hours in the environment at room temperature. It can be disinfected with most commonly used disinfectants. Vaccination is the cornerstone of distemper prevention. The modified live virus is preferred in shelters due to unknown vaccination status of the mother, however the recombinant vaccine can be used in known-vaccinated populations.

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8
Q

canine familial dermatomyositis

A

Collies

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9
Q

Canine Tracheobronchitis

A

Caused by canine parainfluenza virus

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10
Q

Central Diabetes Insipidus

A

Patient has a problem with the function of the hypothalamus (ADH production) and/or neurohypophysis/posterior pituitary (ADH release) so the patient can not respond to the changes in the serum osmolality or blood volume and pressure. The urine specific gravity of a CDI patient is usually 1.001-1.007. The kidneys have no problem responding to ADH in CDI patients. There is a lack of the hormone, not an over-abundance.

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11
Q

Chronic Superficial Keratitis (CSK)

A

(Pannus or Uberreiter’s disease) immune-mediated inflammatory disease of the cornea, particularly seen in GSDs due to UV light exposure. It is believed that the UV light alters corneal proteins leading to an immune reaction. It is treated with topic steroids and cyclosporine, and animals ofter require lifelong therapy.

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12
Q

Coccidiocomycosis

A

Spherules - pic in screen shots

Clinical history: chronic cough and development of lameness with lesions over lameness. Chest radiographs - diffuse bronchointerstitial pattern which is nodular in some regions. Hilar lymphadenopathy. Treat with prolonged fungal treatment. Fluconazole is the treatment of choice. Ketoconazole and itraconazole are good choices.

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13
Q

Coonhound paralysis (idopathic polyradiculoneuritis)

A

may be seen after a raccoon bite, systemic illness, or vaccination; the cause is often unknown. Cranial nerve involvement is usually limited tot he facial and pharyngeal/laryngeal region. Additionally, diffuse hyperesthesia may be present with Coonhound paralysis.

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14
Q

Corneal dermoid

A

congenital tumour in Dog and Cat

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15
Q

Cricopharyngeal dysphagia

A

congenital disorder characterized by incoordination of swallow reflex.

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16
Q

Demodex canis

A

Commensal mite, secondary to an underlying disease or immunosuppression. There are several treatment options. Amitraz (Mitaban) is the only FDA approved one but difficult to get a hold of and use (is a dip and must be administered in a hospital). Ivermectin and milbemycin are also used to treat this condition “off-label” To stop treatment: requires two negative skin scrapes one month apart

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17
Q

Acanthocheilonema (Dipetalonema) reconditum

A

is not pathogenic and is therefore not treated.microfilaria parasite found in the peripheral blood of dogs. Blood parasite that looks similar to the microfilariae of Dirofilaria immitis, the agent of Heartworm disease. The two parasites must be differentiated because Dipetalonema reconditum

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18
Q

Dirofilaria immitis

A

canine heartworm

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19
Q

Dystocia

A

most common cause is uterine inertia, followed by malpresentation, fetal oversize, narrow canal, and malformation

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20
Q

Eclampsia

A

Should be suspected in a nursing dog with neurologic signs, pain or stiffness. It is due to reduction in serum-ionized calcium secondary to the demand of producing large amounts of milk. Treatment is with calcium supplementation.

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21
Q

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

A

group of connective tissue disorders that are characterised by fragile, stretchy and loose skin, caused by a genetic defect in the production of collagen

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22
Q

Emphysematous cystitis

A

Caused by the presence of gas-forming bacteria. Even if a patient is asymptomatic, emphysematous cystitis typically has an underlying cause that should be determined and treated. The most common rule outs include Cushing’s disease (ACTH stimulation test), diabetes mellitus (urinalysis to look for glucosuria), chronic urinary tract infections (urine culture) and bladder stones. Once the underlying disease process is treated, the cystitis will typically resolve with antibiotic therapy.

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23
Q

Extraocular polymyositis

A

golden retriever

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24
Q

Familial Shar Pei Fever (FSF)

A

high fever and unilateral or bilateral tarsal swelling. The swelling affects tissues around the joint, rather than with the tarsus itself. FSF also predisposed to amyloidosis, resulting in proteinuria.

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25
Q

Fanconi syndrome

A

are renal disorder of dogs in which the proximal renal tubules of the kidney do not properly reabsorb electrolytes and nutrients back into the body, but instead “spill” them in the urine - particularly Basenjis dogs. Leads to hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, and metabolic acidosis.

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26
Q

Gastric Dilation and Volvulus

A

Typically occurs with repositioning of the pylorus to the left dorsal abdomen. Right lateral best positions for revealing a gas filled left dorsally-displaced pylorus with a gas-filled ventral fundus separated by a soft tissue band (compartmented stomach).

The stomach is likely to rotate in a counter-clockwise direction if looking att eh patient from cranial to caudal, clockwise from surgeon’s perspective (caudal to cranial)

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27
Q

Hansen’s Type 1 disc disease

A

In chondrodystrophic breeds such as the dachshund and the bassett hound, the nucleus pulposus undergoes chondroid degeneration. These breeds are genetically predisposed to such pathology and changes such as mineralisation are normally apparent in more than one disc by the time the dog is one year old. The abnormal disc may bulge, chronically impinging on the ventral cord and producing slow onset of clinical signs

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28
Q

Hansen’s Type 2 disc disease

A

more common in older, large breed dogs such as the German Shepard Dog. IVDD type II involves fibroid degeneration of the nucleus pulposus and protrusion of the annulus fibrosis. Over time the fibroid tissue in the disc is replaced by collagenous tissue. At the same time, hypertrophy of the surrounding annulus occurs, causing progressive compression of the spinal cord. Mineralisation of the discs is rare.

Clinical signs are normally insidious but the dog may present acutely. It is common for the dog to only show signs of dynamic compression of the spinal cord, for example when jumping. As the onset of disease is normally gradual and progressive, so clinical signs are normally less severe on presentation

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29
Q

Heartworm preventative

A

ivermectin or milbemycin once monthly

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30
Q

Heinz body anemia

A

regenerative anemia

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31
Q

Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis (HGE)

A

severe form of gastrointestinal disease that is very common among small dogs. Aggressive fluid therapy is extremely important for these patients to prevent shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and renal failure. And abnormally high PCV can be a good indicator of this disease if there is a history of bloody diarrhea. Anti-nausea and gastroprotective medications may help the patient to feel better, but aggressive fluid therapy is the most important treatment for these patients.

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32
Q

Histiocytomas

A

In young dogs, localized masses along the head, ears, and limbs - a benign collection of histiocytes with a few other inflammatory cells present. They occur in young dogs and often resolve after a few months. A few histiocytomas can ulcerate, and multiple histiocytomas can be found on one animals. Those that do not regress on their own can be surgically excised. FNA will often give a conclusive diagnosis.

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33
Q

Hyperadrenocorticism

A

“Cushing’s disease” more commonly occurs in older, large breed dogs. Thinning and increased fragility of the skin, Calcinosis cutis, weight gain due to slower metabolism, usually have normal appetite, PU/PD

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34
Q

Hypertrophic osteodystrophy

A

affects the metaphysis

condition seen in young, growing large breed dogs. Affects the metaphyses of all long bones and appears as an abnormal radiolucent line within the metaphysis. The disease is usually self-limiting but can cause limb deformities or systemic illness. The etiology is unknown but may be correlated with Ca/P levels and balance, vitamin C deficiency, and certain diseases including distemper

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35
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism Labwork shows….

A

hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, (Na:K <27)azotemia, anemia, acidosis, hypoglycemia, and low resting cortisol level or low ACTH stimulation test result.

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36
Q

Hypoproteinemia chemistry panel

A

low calcium but does not typically result in clinical signs of hypocalcemia in dogs. The calcium measured on a chemistry panel is the protein bound calcium, which will appear low if the animal is hypoproteinemic. The ionized calcium is the active form and is not affected by an animal having a low blood protein level; therefore the total calcium on a chemistry panel is low due to hypoproteinemia, you should not see clinical signs of hypocalcemia as long as the ionized calcium is normal.

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37
Q

Hypothyroid

A

fat, lazy, heat seeking missiles for skin disease

weight gain, alopecia, pyoderma, lethargy, seborrhea. prognosis good, continued therapy required. Low serum T4 and high serum cTSH (but not PU/PD)

Treatment: Sodium levothyroxine (Soloxine) which is a synthetic T4

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38
Q

Immune-mediated polyarthritis

A

erosive (rare; <1%) and non-erosive forms

Akitas and Shar-pei predisposed

associated with a variety of system disease or precipitating factors.

Diagnosed by synovial fluid analysis

Treatment: of idiopathic IMPA centers on immunosuppressive therapy, often staring with prednisone and sometimes including an additional immunosuppressive drug such as azathioprine or cyclophosphamide.

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39
Q

Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)

A

spherocytes, autoagglutination, and positive Coombs test are all specific to IMHA, will also see regenerative anemia

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40
Q

Iron Deficiency

A

microcytic, hypochromic, non-regenerative anemia. (reticulocyte counts under 60,000/ul are typically considered non-regenerative in most labs) The most common cause is from chronic blood loss in gastrointestinal tract disease such as an ulcer or cancerous lesion.

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41
Q

KCal requirements

A

(70 x BW^0.75) or (30 x BW +70)

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42
Q

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) arises due to inadequate production of the ___ portion of the tear film. This part of the tear film is normally produced by the ____ gland and gland of the ____. The cause of KCS is typically ____ but it may also arise from long term ____ or _____ toxicity.

A

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) arises due to inadequate production of the aqueous portion of the tear film. This part of the tear film is normally produced by the lacrimal gland and gland of the third eyelid. The cause of KCS is typically immune-mediated but may also arise from long term atropine and sulfonamide toxicity

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43
Q

Large choroidal vessels in collie

A

congenital ocular anomaly

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44
Q

Leishmaniasis

A

caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Leishmania and transmitted through the bites of female phlebotomine sand flies

promastigotes invade host macrophages and replicate as intracellular amastigotes

Treatment: Allopurinol - can remain carriers after treatment

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45
Q

Level of blood glucose to spill over into urine

A

>180

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46
Q

Malassezia infection of the claws

A

Produce a red-brown discoloration. Clinical signs: biting at the nails (sing of pruritis), multiple claws are infected, and the dog has other symptoms of allergy (pruritis in the summer months), which could be this patient’s underlying disease.

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47
Q

Medial patellar luxation repair

A

Wedge resection (deeper trochlear groove for the patella to slide in), lateral imbrication, transposition of the tibial tuberosity (both will help pull the patella a little more laterally, as they are usually predisposed to luxating medially)

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48
Q

Medical management of pyometra

A

Options include prostaglandins to induce regression of corpora lutea, which relaxes the cervix and stimulates myometrial contractions, promoting expulsion of the uterine contents. Additional options include dopamine agonists (such as cabergoline and bromocriptine), which act to inhibit prolactin production from the pituitary gland. Patients should be monitored frequently during and after medical management of pyometra and should improve within 2-4 days. Successfully treated bitches should be bred during their next cycle after treatment.

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49
Q

Microsporum canis

A

one of three most common dermatophytes affection dogs and cat. Cat source of primary infection.

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50
Q

Microsporum gypseum

A

one of three most common dermatophytes affection dogs and cat. Soil source of primary infection. Common is dogs that dig - prevention of digging part of treatment plan.

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51
Q

Most common epulis or gingival mass

A

Focal fibrous hyperplasia

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52
Q

Mucin

A

Substance responsible for the wrinkled appearance of Shar Peis

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53
Q

Mucocele

A

Usual presentation is a mass on the neck that may be painful and may produce saliva on aspiration.

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54
Q

Multiple myeloma

A

Diagnosis requires a least two of the following criteria:

  1. Monoclonal gammopathy
  2. radiographic evidence of osteolytic lesions
  3. >5% neoplastic cells or >10-20% plasma cells in the bone marrow
  4. Immunoglobulin light chain proteinuria (Bence-Jones proteinuria)
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55
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

Clinical signs: megaesophagus and weakness

Treatment: Pyridostigmine

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56
Q

Nasal aspergillosis

A

definitive diagnosis provided by histopathology

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57
Q

Neorichettsia helminthoeca

A

“salmon poisoning” etiologic agent which is vectored by the intestinal fluke, Nanophyetus salmincola. Dog gets the disease by eating the salmonid fish infected with the cercaria of the fluke, which harbors rickettsia. Clinical signs along with finding fluke eggs int he feces of the dog is usually enough to make the diagnosis.

Treatment: tratracycline antibiotics

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58
Q

Pancreatitis

A

Dogs on high-fat diet at risk, both in frequency and severity.

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59
Q

Pemphigous vulgaris

A

auto-immune disease causing vesicles, ulceration, and crusting. It can affect the whole body, but it especially affects the mucocutaneous junctions and oral mucosa. The onset of the disease can be sudden (acute) or gradual over many weeks (chronic). The disorder is caused by an IgG autoantibody that binds to intracellular adhesion molecules (desmoglein) causing a loss of cohesion between keratinocytes resulting in acantholysis, vesicle formation, and eventual ulceration. The treatment is immunosuppressive therapy with corticosteroids and frequently additional immunomodulatory or immunosuppressive drugs such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, or others. Unfortunately, long-term therapy is generally required and these treatments cause serious side-effects long-term. Prognosis is poor and euthanasia is often performed.

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60
Q

Perianal adenoma

A

testosterone dependent

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61
Q

Perianal fistula

A

Primarily immune-mediated. Treat with immunosuppressive therapy, perhaps with cyclosporine, is the initial treatment choice. Surgical used to be treatment of choice, but carries a guarded prognosis due to the risk of fecal incontinence. German Shepherds are predisposed to development of perianal fistulas.

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62
Q

Pneumonyassoides caninum

A

Nasal mite than can result in facial pruritus. Dogs are mainly affected. Diagnosis is by mite identification grossly with rhinoscopy or in nasal flushes.

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63
Q

Portosystemic shunts

A

Toy breeds, particularly Yorkshire Terriers, are predisposed to congenital, single, extrahepatic portosystemic shunts. Large breed dogs with congenital liver shunts tend to develop intrahepatic shunts. Acquired shunts in older animals are almost always extrahepatic.

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64
Q

Primary Glaucoma progression

A

if one eye is affected, the other will also develop glaucoma in 6-12 months

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65
Q

Prostitis

A

Enrofloxacin

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66
Q

Pyoderma culture

A

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius. Pyoderma is common in dogs because the canine stratum corneum is a less efficient barrier to bacteria than in other species. Dogs lack an ostial plug in their follicles, a characteristic which allows bacteria to invade and colonize more readily. Mixed bacterial infections are possible, but Staph. pseudintermedius is the most common primary bacterial invader.

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67
Q

Pyometra culture

A

e. coli most common bacteria cultured

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68
Q

Radial hemimelia

A

Hemimelia is a developmental anomaly that is caused by the absence or shortening of a section of bone in the associated limb. Radial hemimelia has been reported in the dog.

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69
Q

Ruptured cranial cruciate ligament treatment

A

leveling of the tibial plateau, cranial transportation of the fibular head, and weight reduction

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70
Q

Sarcocystis cruzi

A

Ruminant is intermediate host and dog definitive host. Life-cycle involves carnivore eating an infected cow which has cysts in the muscle. Then the cyst eventually forms sporocysts which are shed in feces and subsequently eaten by more cows. The sporocysts then hatch and penetrate artery walls and hang out in the endothelium to develop into sporozoites and eventually become merozoites at which time they invade and encyst as sarcocysts.

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71
Q

Sarcoptes scabiei

A

Sarcoptic mange is a highly contagious skin disease found in dogs, caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. These mites will burrow through the skin causing intense itching and irritation. The scratching that results from mange is what causes the majority of the animal’s hair to fall out

zoonotic

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72
Q

Simonsiella

A

normal inhabitant of the nasopharynx

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73
Q

Spirocerca lupi

A

esophageal worm, found in the esophageal, aortic, and gastric walls of dogs that have eaten infected dung beetles, chickens, reptiles, or rodents. Chronic infection may cause neoplastic transformation of the surrounding tissues into sarcomas or rupture and life-threatening hemorrhage of the aorta. Treatment is ivermectin or doramectin.

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74
Q

Stages of Parturition

A

Stage 1: Typically 6-12 hours and can persist for up to 36 hours. In this stage, it is expected fro the dog to exhibit panting, trembling, nesting behavior, and restlessness. Occasionally dogs will also vomit. At this point, there is subclinical uterine contraction and dilation of the cervix.

Stage 2: will also last 6-12 hours (and persist up to 36 hours) as is characterized by abdominal straining which coincides with uterine contraction. Puppy delivery occurs during stage 2 at an interval of 30-60 min (up to 4 hours).

Stage 3 involves expulsion of fetal membranes as well as involution of the uterus. Fetal membranes are usually passed 5-15 minutes after birth of a pup before another puppy can be delivered from the same horn.

Thick greenish discharge (lochia) is seen in all stages of labor and may persist for up to three weeks. Complete uterine involution and endometrial recovery in approximately 3 months.

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75
Q

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

A

Primary bacteria cultured in canine pyoderma

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76
Q

Subaortic stenosis

A

treat with beta-blockers such as atenolol to reduce myocardial oxygen demand, less the frequency of ventricular arrhythmias, and provide cardiac muscle protection. Owners should be warned that the dog should receive prophylactic antibiotics for any situation in which the dog may develop a bacteremia since subaortic stenosis is known to carry a high risk of developing infective endocarditis (i.e. prior to surgical or dental procedures)

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77
Q

Sudden Acquired Retinal Degeneration Syndrome (SARDS)

A

Dogs with hyperadrenocorticism have an increased incidence of SARDS. SARDS is frequently seen in middle-aged obese spayed females and often have signs of PU/PD and polyphagia as well as increased liver enzymes and cholesterol. The reason for the association of Cushing’s disease and SARDS is poorly understood

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78
Q

Symmetrical lupoid onychodystrophy

A

results in severe splitting and deformation of the nails.

79
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematosis

A

Type III hypersensitivity reaction

complex autoimmune disease occurs in dogs, is rare in cats, and has been reported in large animals. It has two consistent immunologic features: immune complex disease and a tendency to produce multiple autoantibodies

Antibodies to nucleic acids are the diagnostic hallmark of SLE

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia or thrombocytopenia, or both, are the most common presentations of SLE in animals

usually can be treated with glucocorticoids

80
Q

Taenia infection treatment

A

Proziquantel

81
Q

Toxacara canis

A

Canine roundworm that is passed along to puppies transplacentally. The roundworm migrates from the small intestines through the liver and lungs, which is what causes the animal to cough. Beyond 6 months of age, the larvae distribute to the somatic tissue, where their development is arrested.

82
Q

Toxascaris leomina

A

canine roundworm

83
Q

Transmissible venereal tumor

A

TVT is a sexually transmitted tumor found throughout the world, particularly in areas with high populations of stray dogs. The tumor cells are transferred from one dog to the next by physical contact, which typically consists of sniffing, licking, and copulation. The tumor is often curable with vincristine chemotherapy

84
Q

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

A

one of three most common dermatophytes affection dogs and cat. Rodents source of primary infection. Hunting dogs and roaming cats most often affected.

85
Q

Trichuris vulpis

A

canine whipworm - treat with Fenbendazole

86
Q

Uncinaria stenocephala

A

hookworm - intestinal parasite that suck blood and can cause anemia, enteritis, coughing during larval migrans, and dermatitis. Transmitted in utero, during nursing, or via 3rd stage larva penetrating the skin. Can be cause of failure to thrive in puppies.

87
Q

Uveitis causes

A

infection (bacterial, viral, fungal, riskettsial), immune-mediated (lens-induced uveitis), neoplasia, hypertension, and trauma. Over 50% of the time, the cause is not found and the uveitis is termed idiopathic.

88
Q

Ventricular premature complexes treatment

A

mexiletine - oral class I antiarrhythmic well tolerated in dogs

89
Q

canine oral papillomatosis tx/prognosis

A

usually spontaneously resolves

90
Q

The causative agent of canine parvovirus is?

A

CPV-2 (now 2a and 2b). It is a non-enveloped DNA virus that can survive more than a year in the environment.

91
Q

How do you disinfect after suspected or confirmed parvovirus?

A

It is resistant to many disinfectants. Use bleach, formalin or glutaraldehyde.

92
Q

In a dog presenting with progressive tetraparesis and a cranial mediastinal mass on thoracic rads, you suspect _____ and diagnose with the ______ test. The mass is a _____.

A

Secondary myanesthenia gravis; tensilon (edrophonium) response test; thymoma.

93
Q

The two species of microfilariae that can be seen in peripheral blood on dogs are:

A

dirofilaria immitis, acanthocheilonema (dipetalonema) reconditum

94
Q

An older dog with regurgitation, exercise intolerance, weight loss, stress leukogram and slightly decreased albumin should have a _____ (diagnostic) to look for _____.

A

Chest radiograph to look for thymoma; clinical signs are consistent with secondary myasthenia gravis

95
Q

Thelazia are transmitted by _____. The adults live in the ____ and ___.

A

Thelazia are transmitted by the face fly. The adults live in the tear duct and conjunctival sac.

96
Q

This 6 month old Weimeraner presents for this lesion. He is pyrexic and reluctant to walk. You should ask the owners if the dog ____ recently to support a diagnosis of ____. This condition should resolve with ___.

A

Ask about recent vaccination to support diagnosis of hypertrophic osteodystrophy. This condition should resolve with a course of prednisone. Weimeraners are predisposed.

97
Q

Perineal hernias occur most commonly in _____

A

older intact males

98
Q

Hypertrophic osteodystrophy (HOD) is a ______ disease of _______, whereas Hypertrophic osteopathy (HO) is a ____ disease associated with _____.

A

Hypertrophic osteodystrophy (HOD) is a developmental disease of young large breed dogs, whereas Hypertrophic osteopathy (HO) is a paraneoplastic disease associated with a thoracic tumor.

99
Q

What is this called and how would you treat it?

A

Craniomandibular osteopathy; treat supportively with NSAIDs

100
Q

What is the rate of post-op medial mensical tear after a TPLO?

A

2-7%

101
Q

The ____ muscle attaches to the coronoid process of the mandible, the ____ attaches laterally on the mandible and the ____ attaches medially on the manidble

A

The temporalis muscle attaches to the coronoid process of the mandible, the masseter attaches laterally on the mandible and the pterygoid attaches medially on the manidble

102
Q

The most common hernias after a trauma such as HBC or jumping out of a moving car are:

A

flank and peripubic region hernias

103
Q

3 goals of the surgeon with articular fractures are:

A

Rigid fixation of fracture fragments, anatomic realignment, early return to function

104
Q

Name one topical and one systemic drug that are associated with peripheral vestibular disease

A

Chlorhexidine, aminoglycosides

105
Q

This disease affects horses and dogs and manifests as ataxia and paresis of all four limbs with UMN signs on all four limbs

A

cervical spondylopathy

106
Q

Soft tissue sarcomas are ____ tumors with a _____ growth pattern and metastatic rate of less than ____ % for low and intermediate grade tumors, and up to a ____% metastatic rate for high grade tumors. Soft tissue sarcomas include:

A

Soft tissue sarcomas are mesenchymal tumors with a locally invasive growth pattern and metastatic rate of less than 20 % for low and intermediate grade tumors, and up to a 50% metastatic rate for high grade tumors. Soft tissue sarcomas include: Peripheral nerve sheath tumors, fibrosarcomas, liposarcomas, malignant fibrous histiocytomas, myxosarcomas, rhabdomyosarcomas, leiomyosarcomas and hemangiopericytomas

107
Q

Degenerative myelopathy is a ____, ___ spinal cord disease that occurs most commonly in ____ breed at ____ age. It is a diffuse myelopathy that can look like a ____ and is also often confused with _____.

A

Degenerative myelopathy is a progressive, degenerative spinal cord disease that occurs most commonly in German shepherds between 5-9 years of age. It is a diffuse myelopathy that can look like a transverse myelopathy and is also often confused with hip dysplasia.

108
Q

peripheral vestibular disease is due to a lesion in the ____ or ____ whereas central vestibular disease is due to a lesion in the ____ or ____. Paradoxical vestibular disease refers to lesions in the _____ or ____.

A

peripheral vestibular disease is due to a lesion in the inner ear or vestibular portion of CN VIII whereas central vestibular disease is due to a lesion in the brainstem or cerebellum. Paradoxical vestibular disease refers to lesions in the caudal cerebellar peduncle or certain regions of the cerebellum like the floculonodular lobe .

109
Q

The cushing’s reflex is when increased ICP leads to ____ and _____

A

hypertension and bradycardia

110
Q

What percentage of dogs with IVDD with improve with medical management alone? What does medical management consist of?

A

50% will improve with pain management (NSAIDs, prednisone, methyl-prednisolone sodium succinate) and strict rest

111
Q

A dog from 3-13 months old with a painful, non-weight bearing hindlimb and radiographs showing shortening of the femoral neck and osteochondrosis with chronicity have:

A

avascular necrosis of the femoral head; due to a disruption in blood flow to the femoral epiphysis

112
Q

What breeds are predisposed to copper storage disease?

A

Bedlington terriers, Dobermans, skye terries

113
Q

List common causes of PLE (protein losing enteropathy) in dogs:

A

Inflammatory bowel disease
Histoplasmosis (a fungal infection)
Diseases associated with intestinal bleeding (parvovirus, intestinal parasites, cancers such as lymphoma)
Breed associated PLE (as in soft-coated wheaten terrier, shar pei, Maltese, and basenji)
Crypt disease (where the intestinal crypts dilate and plug with mucus)
Intestinal lymphangiectasia

114
Q

Lymphangiectasia in dogs (pathophysiology, diagnostics, Tx)

A

Lymphangiectasia refers to the dilation of lymphatic vessels. In the intestinal tract, lymphangiectasia specifically refers to the dilation and rupture of lacteals within small intestinal villi. This can be primary (caused by a congenital, presumed to be genetic defect), or secondary (acquired disruption of lymphatic flow, ie with IBD, R-CHF, obstruction of the thoracic duct, or idiopathic). In most dogs, the disease is idiopathic, and is often associated with a protein- losing enteropathy (PLE). Due to the high pressure within the lymph vessels, the tender lacteals burst and instead of absorbing fats, the lymph inside them, including cells, fats, and precious proteins are lost into the intestinal tract. This eventually leads to nutritional loss. PLE due to lympangiectasia is a diagnosis of exclusion. Lab work shows lymphopenia, hypoalbuminemia, hypocholesterolemia. Rule out liver dysfunction, PLN and Addison’s. Tx should include management of the underlying problem (ie IBD, food allergy) and nutritional management. Dogs with lymphagiectasia need extremely low fat content in their diet (<15% dry matter). Protein should be 20-25%.

115
Q

Aside from toxicities, what are other vitamin K deficient syndromes?

A

Decreased intake or absorption: Cholestasis (Biliary obstruction, hepatic lipidosis), fat malabsorption (EPI, infiltration bowel disease) and chronic oral antibiotic administration.

116
Q

What are the mainstays of treatment for ITP patients?

A

Immunosuppressive doses of corticosteroids! Cyclophosphamide can be given to help induce remission. Azathioprine can help maintain remission and can be given long-term, usually with fewer side effects than with corticosteroids.

117
Q

What are the classic laboratory findings for an Addisonian?

A

Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, azotemia, anemia, acidosis, hypoglycemia, low resting cortisol level or low ACTH stim test.

118
Q

The three layers of the adrenal cortex are the zona ______, zona ______ and zona ______. Cells in these layers produce ____, ____, and _____ respectively.

A

Zona glomerulosa - aldosterone, zona fasiculata - cortisol, zona reticularis - adrenal androgens

119
Q

Diet for hepatic encephalopathy

A

Protein reduction in the diet. Lactulose if given because it decreases colonic pH, trapping ammonia, and decreases transit time through the gut, leading to decreased ammonia uptake because ammonia contributes to hepatic encephalopathy. Oral neomycin is used to dampen urease-producing microflora of the gut and consequently, decreases ammonia production in the gut. It has also been shown that vegetable and dairy proteins are better tolerated than meat proteins.

120
Q

_____ differentiates Pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism from adrenal dependent hyperadrenocorticism. Cortisol suppression 3-6 after the test indicates ____, and the absence of supression indicates ____.

A

High-dose dexamethasome suppression test; suppression = PDH, no suppression = 50/50 chance of PDH or ADH

121
Q

Dogs treated for heartworm should have activity restricted for ____ weeks post treatment to decrease the likelihoood of ____ and allow ____

A

Dogs treated for heartworm should have activity restricted for 4-6 weeks post treatment to decrease the likelihood of thromboembolic events and allow the lungs to recover from worm death

122
Q

The threshold for glucosuria is ____ mg/dL of glucose in the blood in dogs and ____ md/dl for cats.

A

180mg/dL in dogs; 200-280 in cats

123
Q

Any young dog that is failing to thrive and/or has pale mucous membrane should be tested for:

A

internal parasites (ie hookworms)

124
Q

What diseases do Ixodes spp cause?

A

Ixodes scapularis (blacklegged/deer) -> anaplasma, lyme
Ixodes pacificus (western blacklegged) -> anaplasma

125
Q

The scientific name for the deer tick is _____

A

Ixodes scapularis, the blacklegged tick

126
Q

What is the most common type of benign gingival enlargement in dogs? What is the most common malignant oral tumor?

A

Benign: Focal Fibrous Hyperplasia. Malignant: Oral melanoma

127
Q

Epilus

A

Tumor or mass like enlargement of the gingiva or alveolar mucosa

128
Q

What are the emergency treatments for glaucoma, and what are the contraindications that might make you pass to the next available treatment?

A
  1. Latanoprost (prostaglandin); 1 drop then recheck in 30min, alternate with dorzolamide and timolol (see below). Contraindications: anterior lens luxation, concurrent uveitis, ineffective in cats/horses
  2. Mannitol, IV, 1-2g/kg over 30 minutes dogs, .5-.8g/kg cats. Contraindications to hyperosmolar therapy; CHF, AKI, anuria, urinary obstruction, dehydration/hypovolemia .
  3. Dorzolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor), contraindicated with severe renal disease
  4. timolol (beta blocker) - weak as a sole agent, usually used with dorzolamide. Contraindicated with heart disease, diabetes, asthmatic cats, pre-anesthesia
129
Q

The treatment for KCS is aimed at ______, therefore you give _____

A

aimed at reducing immune destruction of the lacrimal glands; give topical cyclosporine (Optimmune) and a topical steroids (ie Neo Poly Dex); caution with steroids for acute cases due to increased risk for corneal ulceration

130
Q

Left ventricular concentric hypertrophy

A

Normally associated with systemic hypertension, hyperthyroidism, or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve can occur with any of these conditions). Thus, blood pressure measurement, examination of the fundus (for evidence of hemorrhage or retinal detachment in response to systemic hypertension), and thyroid testing can be justified. A urinalysis is also indicated to rule out isosthenuria and/or proteinuria consistent with renal disease and resultant hypertension.

131
Q

Aortic stenosis

A

Can be caused by subvavular, valvular, or supravavlvular lesion. Most commonly subvalvular in the dog. Golden retrievers, Newfoundlands, Boxers, GSD, English bulldog, Shar-peis, and bull terriers are all predisposed breeds. Clinical signs include exercise intolerance, syncope, and sudden death. There is no cure and dogs diagnosed with this disease should not be bred.

132
Q

The systolic pressure of the RV is ____ compared to the PA, the same is true for the LV and Ao. The pressure gradient should be _____. Usually the velocity across the semilunar valves is ____.

A

The systolic pressure of the RV (25-30mmHg) is just slightly higher than the PA (25-30mmHg). The systolic pressure of the LV (~120mmHg) is just slightly higher than the Aorta (~120mmHg). The pressure gradient should be less than 20mmHg (velocity less than ~2m/s, remember bernoulli; P = 4v^2). Usually velocity across the semilunar valves is ~1m/s.

133
Q

Emergency treatment for CHF can be abbreviated in the 4 letter pnuemonic ____ and are:

A

STOP: Sedation, pimoebendan, oxygen, furosemide

134
Q

Standard chronic therapy of CHF in a dog includes what four things?

A
  1. furosemide (loop diuretic)
  2. Pimobendan (inotrope, vasodilator)
  3. Spironolactone (blocks RAAS. weak, potassium sparing diuretic)
  4. Ace inhibitor: enalapril/benazapril
135
Q

Radiographic signs of CHF include (1 in abdomen, 2 in lungs, 4 on lateral of cardiac sillhouette, 4 on DV of cardiac sillhouette)

A

Abdomen:
1. hepatomegaly (R-CHF)
**Lungs: **
1. interstitial to alveolar pattern especially in the perihilar region
2. enlargement of pulmonary veins +/- arteries (should be same size as 9th and 10th ribs)
Heart on lateral:
1. Tall heart displacing the trachea dorsally indicating enalrged LV
2. increased sternal contact indicating enlarged RV
3. Widened cardiac silhouette (>2.5-3.5 intercostal spaces in a dog)
4. backpack sign: Focal bulge at the caudodorsal aspect of the cardiac silhouette indicating left atrial enlargement
Heart on DV:
1. focal bulge at 2-3 o’clock indicating left auricle enlargement
2. Double opacity / bowlegged cowboy sign / splaying of caudal bronchi indicating left atrial enlargment
3. Reverse D shape indicating enlarged RV
4. widened cardiac sillhouette (>2/3rds of the width of the lung space)

136
Q

Taurine deficiency in english cocker spaniels is associated with what outcome?

A

DCM

137
Q

What is the most common complication of an intestinal R&A and when does it occur?

A

Dehiscence 3-5 days post-op, leading to septic peritonitis. This is due to the timing of degredation of fibrin at the site prior to deposition of sufficient collagen.

138
Q

What is the potentially fatal complication of surgically repairing a diaphragmatic hernia?

A

Re-expansion pulmonary edema (RPE). Occurs in cats more often than dogs.

139
Q

______ aka the hookworm of hte dog can cause visceral and cutaneous larval migrans in a human. It is diagnosed with a ____

A

ancylostoma caninum; fecal float

140
Q

The ddx for Acanthocheilonema reconditum is _____

A

Microfilariae in periferal blood, other DDX heartworm

141
Q

Demodex

A

De. canis and cati live in hair follicles and require a skin scrape to be found. Canis only affects dogs and cati is not contagious. D. gatoi is contagious and does not burrow so can be found on acetate tape since it lives in the stratum corneum.

142
Q

Dermacenter

A

Tick associated with tick paralysis in the US.

143
Q

dipylidium caninum is the common _____ of cats and dogs, spread by _____

A

common tapeworm of cats and dogs spread by fleas, need to treat for both worms and fleas

144
Q

Dirofilaria immitis is the

A

heartworm

145
Q

Giardia canis can be diagnosed by what methods for what stages?

A

Can find on direct fecal smear, cysts can be found on fecal flotation, organism can be detected by FA and ELISA, cannot find cysts on fecal sedimentation.

146
Q

Pneumonyassoides caninum is the _____ causing _____ in dogs. Diagnosed by _______

A

Nasal mite that can result in facial pruritis. Dogs are mainly affected. Diagnosis is by mite identification grossly with rhinoscopy or in nasal flushes.

147
Q

Sarcoptes is diagnosed via ____ because it burrows into the _____

A

Very difficult to find, superficial skin scrape would be needed since this mite burrows into the stratum corneum.

148
Q

Trichodectes is the ______

A

canine chewing louse, is a chewing louse found on domesticated dogs and wild canids throughout the world

149
Q

______ aka the hookworm of hte dog can cause visceral and cutaneous larval migrans in a human. It is diagnosed with a ____

A

ancylostoma caninum; fecal float

150
Q

Capillaria ova look similiar to ____ eggs. Most cases are asymptomatic but sometimes can cause ____.

A

cause cough. look similar to Trichuris eggs but are smaller and have asymmetric terminal plugs. Most cases of Capillaria are asymptomatic but chronic cough can be seen.

151
Q

Otodectes are the ___ mite of cats, dogs, rabbits and ferrets. You can treat with _____ in dogs.

A

ear mite; can treat with otic solutions of Milbemycin or Ivermectin, Selamectin or Moxidectin for prevention, Thiabendazole for mites and yeast if used for >10 days.

152
Q

Newly diagnosed diabetics should always have a _____ to look for ____

A

Urinalysis; cystitis

153
Q

Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism results when the diet contains ____, leading to ____ P and ____ Ca in the serum.

A

Excessive dietary phosphorus leading to increased serum P and decreased serum Ca

154
Q

papple shape and no rumen motility is caused by:

A

vagal indigestion

155
Q

Yorkies, maltese, pugs and mini poodles tend to get _____ shunts

A

congenital, single, extrahepatic

156
Q

Dog with endocarditis are most commonly affected on the ___ and ___ valves

A

mitral and aortic

157
Q

A sample of a tumor containing a cohesive cluster of polygonal cells is likely ____ in origin

A

epithelial (carcinoma)

158
Q

Acanthosis nigracans occurs in ____ and causes hyperpigmentation in the ___

A

dachshunds; hyperpigmentation of the axillary and groin regions

159
Q

xylitol causes a rapid release of ____ leading to ____. It can also cause acute ____

A

rapid release of insulin leading to hypoglycemia, also causes acute hepatic necrosis and failure

160
Q

extraocular polymyositis is treated with

A

prednisone and azathioprine

161
Q

Which stage of estrous is this? Describe.

A

This is anestrus because there is low cellularity and the epithelial cells are mostly parabasal

162
Q

Which types of vaginal epithelial cells are non-cornified? What does their nucleus look like?

A

parabasal and intermediate cells have a stippled nucleus

163
Q

The acronym “PISA” lists vaginal epithelial cells from ___ to ____

A

non-cornified to cornified; parabasal, intermediate, superficial and anuclear

164
Q

Which are the cornified vaginal cells? What does the nucleus look like?

A

Superficial cells and anuclear cells are cornified, the nucleus is NOT stippled and is either pyknotic or absent

165
Q

which hormone causes vaginal cytology to change?

A

estrogen

166
Q

The vaginal cytology is non-cornified during ____ and ___ when there is no ____. This means the vaginal epithelium is ___

A

anestrus and diestrus; no estrogen; thin vaginal epithelium

167
Q

The vaginal cytology is cornified during ____ and ___ when there is ____. This means the vaginal epithelium is ___

A

proestrus and estrus, when there is estrogen, thick epithelium

168
Q

During proestrus cornified vaginal epithelial cells increase by about ___% per day

A

10%

169
Q

How do you tell the difference between proestrus and diestrus?

A

Both can have 50% cornified and 50% non cornified cells. However, in proestrus there will be low progesterone and in diestrus there will be high progesterone

170
Q

If this dog has high progesterone (>5ng/ml) and this vaginal cytology, it is in ____

A

diestrus

171
Q

If this dog has low progesterone (<5ng/ml) and this vaginal cytology, it is in _____

A

proestrus

172
Q

progressive night blindness in a mini or toy poodle is suggestive of:

A

progressive retinal atrophy

173
Q

____ shunting can cause polycythemia. Examples are:

A

right to left shunting; ie ASD with tricuspid stenosis, PDA with plumonary hypertension and tetrology of fallot

174
Q

Which parasite is most likely to infect and cause dermaitis in a child walking barefoot through a field?

A

Ancylostoma spp (hookworm)

175
Q

A chronic left to right VSD will cause

A

left sided cardiomegaly and overcirculation of the pulmonary vessels

176
Q

Which chemo drug causes horrible irreversible tissue sloughing if perivascularized?

A

doxorubicin

177
Q

If you can’t spay a dog with pyometra you can try

A

prostaglandin f2 alpha

178
Q

How do you treat a perianal fistula?

A

Cyclosporine

179
Q

Which nerve provides sympathetic innervation to the bladder? Where does it originate? What bladder receptors does it supply?

A

Hypogastric nerve originates from L1-L4 -> caudal mesenteric ganglia; supplies beta receptors of the bladder wall (relax) and alpha receptors of the internal urethral sphincter (contract)

180
Q

Which phase of micturition does the sympathetic nervous system control?

A

Storage phase

181
Q

Which phase of micturition does the parasympathetic nervous system control?

A

Voiding

182
Q

Which nerve supplies parasympathetic innervation to the bladder?

A

Pelvic nerve from S1 - S3 supplies muscarinic Ach receptors of the destrussor muscle

183
Q

What nerve supplies somatic innervation to the bladder? Where are the receptors it supplies?

A

The pudendal nerve supplies nicotinic receptors of the external urethral sphincter

184
Q

How can you differentiate peripheral vs central vestibular dysfunction?

A

Central vestibular disease causes CP deficits, weakness and sometimes cranial nerve deficits along with depression

185
Q

Name induction agents that do NOT cause splenic enlargement

A

xylazine, diazepam, ketamine, propofol and opioids

186
Q

Name induction agents that DO cause splenic enlargment

A

acepromazine, thiopental

187
Q

Lymphangiectasia describes _____ leakage into the _____. As a result ___, ____ and ____ are lost. Sometimes ____ is low as well, probably due to low _____.

A

lymphangiectasia is a classic PLE and describes lymph loss into the intestinal lumen. As a result, protein, lymphocytes and cholesterol are lost. Sometimes calcium is low too because it follows albumin.

188
Q

A dog less than 3 years old presents for alopecic, raised nodules that often ulcerate and regress on their own. What is it?

A

Cutaneous histiocytoma

189
Q

Why should dogs with subaortic stenosis get atenolol?

A

reduction in myocardial oxygen demand, lessen frequency of ventricular arrythmias, provide cardiac muscle protection

190
Q

____ which is produced as a response to the wearing of teeth from aggressive chewing stain easily

A

tertiary dentin

191
Q

The fetal skeleton ossifies at ____ days in the dog. Mineralization occurs at ____ days. This means on radiographs, the scapula, humerus and femur can be made out at ___ days, the ribs can be seen at ____ days and teeth/toes can be seen at ___ days

A

ossification at 42-45 days, mineralization at 42-46 days. radiographic visibility: scapula/humerus/femur at 46-51 days, ribs at 52-59 days. teeth and toes at 58-63 days

192
Q

What is puppy strangles? How do you diagnose it?

A

Puppy strangles is immune mediated juvenille cellulitis. It presents as acutely swollen face with lethargy and occasional pustules. Rule out demodex, bacteria and fungal infections first (deep skin scrape, skin cytology and trichogram). It can be treated with immunosuppressive dose of glucocorticoids if other causes are ruled out.

193
Q

How do you check for a monoclonal gammopathy

A

serum electrophoresis

194
Q

What are the differentials for hypercalcemia?

A

GOSH DARN IT
Granulomatous or growing puppy
Osteolytic (osteomyelitis, neoplasia)
Spurious (lipemic or post prandial)
Hyperparathyroidism (primary hyperparathyroidism)
Drugs (thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide, or calcium containing phosphate binders)
Addison’s disease
Renal failure
Nutritional (hypervitaminosis D, poisonous plants, hypervitaminosis A or excess Ca)
Idiopathic (cats)
Tumors (humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy with lymphoma or agasaca, bone osteolysis from multiple myeloma)