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NAVLE By Species > Diagnostics > Flashcards

Diagnostics Flashcards

1
Q

What percentage of Avian blood volume can you take?

A

Safe to take 1% or BW

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2
Q

Base deficit formula

A

0.3 or 0.4 x BW x Deficit

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3
Q

Blood lactate reflects….

A

Reflects anaerobic metabolism. Pyruvate is the end product of glycolysis and is also converted to lactate under anaerobic conditions.

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4
Q

CHEM of a cat with upper GI obstruction

A

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

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5
Q

Chediak-Higaski Syndrome is a type of

A

type of thrombocytopathy

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6
Q

Chylothorax is diagnosed by measuring —-

A

triglyceride content higher in effusion than that of serum. Presence of chylomicrons, cholesterol content greater than or equal to serum, and a positive ether clearance test are also supportive of chylothorax

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7
Q

Circulating life span of cat red blood cell

A

68-70 Days

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8
Q

Circulating life span of cow red blood cell

A

160 days

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9
Q

Circulating life span of dog platelet cell

A

5-7 days

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10
Q

Circulating life span of dog red blood cell

A

110 Days

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11
Q

Circulating life span of dog white blood cell

A

5-9 hours

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12
Q

Circulating life span of horse red blood cell

A

145

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13
Q

Circulating life span of human red blood cell

A

120 Days

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14
Q

Circulating life span of pig red blood cell

A

86

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15
Q

Circulating life span of sheep red blood cell

A

150

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16
Q

Cyclic hematopeiesis

A

type of thrombocytopathy

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17
Q

Delta-granule

A

type of thrombocytopathy

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18
Q

End point of Warfarin Therapy

A

Prothrombin time of 1.5-2x normal

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19
Q

Heinz body anemia is characterized by the presence of ____ on morphology

A

Schistocytes - shear injury - ex. ruptured splenic mass

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20
Q

Hemophilia A is caused by ____ and diagnosed by _____

A

Caused by a deficiency in Factor VIII and diagnosed by prolonged ACT and APTT. The disease commonly affects dogs and cats and mostly only males, since it is an X-linked recessive trait. Females with the gene for the disease are usually unaffected carriers unless they were the offspring of an affected male and a carrier female. Treatment of choice to stop a bleeding event is fresh plasma or frozen plasma.

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21
Q

high HCO3

A

metabolic alkalosis

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22
Q

high PaCO2

A

respiratory acidosis or hypoventialtion

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23
Q

high-dose dexamethasone suppression test

A

used when the patient has been confirmed with Cushing’s disease by means of the low dose test, but the low dose test has not clearly differentiated the type of Cushing’s disease that is present.
A reduction in cortisol levels at 4 and/or 8 hours after either dose of dexamethasone, then we have diagnosed pituitary origin Cushing’s disease. If the levels don’t budge from the high values of the pre-injection sample, then the diagnosis is adrenal origin.

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24
Q

Hyperadrenocorticism CHEM findings

A

low BUN secondary to increased diuresis that occurs with elevated cortisol levels. ALT increase due to swelling hepatocytes. ALP increases due to a steroid induced isoenzyme. Mild cholestasis due to swelling of hepatocytes also contributes to minor part of the increase in ALP. Cholesterol is elevated in up to 90% of hyperadrenocorticism cases.

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25
Q

Llama have ____ erythrocytes

A

oval, anuclear erythrocytes

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26
Q

low HCO3 with a with a low pH

A

metabolic acidosis

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27
Q

low PaCO2 with a high pH

A

respiratory alkalosis or hyperventilation

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28
Q

low-dose dexamethasone suppression test is used to _____

A

used to screen for the presence of hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s disease) - 90% of dogs with Cushing’s with have cortisol levels aboveo 1.4ug/dl at 8 hours. In some cases the LDDS test can help differentiate PDH and ADH. In ADH there will be no decrease in plasma cortisol (exogenous cortisol won’t stop a cortisol-secreting tumor). In PDH, 60% of dogs have a decrease in plasma cortisol to <50% of basal cortisol at the 4 hour mark (exogenous cortisol has some effect on remaining normal pituitary tissue).

29
Q

P2Y12 Receptor Mutations

A

type of thrombocytopathy

30
Q

Scott Syndrome

A

type of thrombocytopathy

31
Q

septic peritoneal effusion

A

concentration difference >20 mg/dL between blood and peritoneal fluid glucose concentration (peritoneal fluid being less than blood)

32
Q

Storage Pool Disease

A

type of thrombocytopathy

33
Q

Stress leukogram

A

Mild neutrophilia along with lymphopenia and monocytosis.

34
Q

Test for selenium deficiency

A

Glutathione peroxidase: activity of this enzyme is very low in selenium-deficient animals resulting in free radical damage.

35
Q

Type 1 Glanzmann’s Thrombasthenia

A

type of thrombocytopathy

36
Q

Von Willebrands

A

Genetic in Doberman Pinchers

pre-treat with desmopressin for operations

37
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism CHEM findings

A

Classic laboratory finding includes hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, azotemia, anemia, acidosis, hypoglycemia, and of course a low resting cortisol level or low ACTH stimulation test result.

38
Q

Circulating life span of avian red blood cell

A

28-45 days

39
Q

Extrahepatic biliary obstruction

A

A decrease in bile will result in less absorption of Vitamin K which results in decrease availability of coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X. To detect the abnormality, a prothrombin times (PT) may be recommended as factor VII has the shortest half-life and PT will thus be prolonged.

40
Q

Template Bleeding Time (TBT)

A

test that determines the functional ability of platelets to plug a minute wound

41
Q

Buccal mucosal bleeding test

A

test that determines the functional ability of platelets to plug a minute wound

42
Q

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) assesses ____

A

the instrinsic and common pathways (2ndary hemostasis)

43
Q

Prothrombin Time (PT)

A

the extrinsic and common pathways - II, V, X, (2ndary hemostasis)

44
Q

Major cross match

A

donor red blood cells vs. recipient plasma

45
Q

Antithrombin activity

A

Sometimes measured when DIC is a concern but is not used to evaluate platelet function

46
Q

Minor cross match

A

donor plasma vs. recipient cells

47
Q

Uroperitoneum in foal electrolyte imbalances

A

Hyperkalemia, Hyponatremia, Hypochloremia

48
Q

How quickly should a urine sediment be evaluated after collection if looking for pyuria?

A

Within one hour

49
Q

What is xanthocrhomia and what is the significance of xanthochromia on a CSF tap?

A

Evidence of prior hemorrhage. Xanthochromia is the yellow discoloration seen for at least a week after bleeding in the CSF.

50
Q

What chem abnormalities would be seen with a uroabdomen?

A

azotemia, hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperkalemia hyperkalemia.

51
Q

How many blood groups do the follow species have? Dogs, cats, cows, horses, sheep, goats

A

Dogs: 8
Cats: 3
Cows: 11
Horses: 7
Sheep: 7
Goats: 5

52
Q

What biochemical abnormalities are seen with lily toxicosis in cats?

A

Due to renal failure and deceased GFR we see azotemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperkalemia, isosthenuria

53
Q

A direct fecal saline smear is used to visualize ______, fecal float (+/- centrifugation) is used to see _______, and fecal sedimentation reveals _____. The baerman assay recovers ______. Heat fixed fecal stain can be used to see ________.

A
  • Direct fecal saline smear is used to visual trophozoites of protozoa (giardia, tritrichomonas).
  • Fecal float +/- centrifugation are used to identify coccidia oocysts (cystoisospora, sarcocystis, etc) and the eggs of nematodes (ancylostoma, toxocara, trichuris) and cestodes (echinococcus, taenia).
  • Fecal sedimentation reveals heavier eggs of trematodes (ie nanophyetus salmincola and alaria spp), cestodes and some nematodes
  • The baerman assay recovers motile nematode larvae such as lungworm and strongyloides.
  • dry or heat fixed direct smear are used uncommonly to visualize certain yeast or bacterial populations
54
Q

Suppurative means _____, granulomatous means ____ and pyogranulomatous means _______.

A

Suppurative means primarily non-degenerate neutrophils, granulomatous means primarily mononuclear cells (lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells) and pyogranulomatous is a mixed population.

55
Q

Microfilariae in the peripheral blood can be either ____ or ____

A

Acanthocheilonema reconditum or dirofilaria immitis

56
Q

Aminocarproic acid facilitates clot stabilization by ____

A

inhibiting fibrinolysis (inhibits activation of plasminogen to plasmin)

57
Q

What are the instrinct pathway factors?

A

12, 11, 9, 8
Intrinsic Pathway: I shop at Wal-Mart because everything is under $12.
It is always $11.98. (Factors 12,11,9,8)

58
Q

Which are the extrinsic pathway factors?

A

III (tissue factor) and VII

59
Q

Which are the common pathway factors?

A

2 (prothrombin), 5, 1 (fibrinogen), 10

60
Q

Which are the vitamin K dependent factors? Which has the shortest half life?

A

II, VII, IX, and X - VII has the shortest half life

61
Q

What is the ACT test? What pathways does it test for?

A

Activated Clotting Time - tests fibrin clot formation on fresh whole blood. Tests intrinsic and common pathways. ACT is prolonged if any of the factors involved drop to less than 25% of
normal concentration. Normal time is between 60-90 seconds

62
Q

What does PTT stand for? What sample do you need for the test? What pathway does it test?

A

activated partial thromboplastin time; This tests the intrinsic and common pathways. More sensitive than ACT. Essentially the term ‘partial’ means Phospholipid is present but no Tissue Factor, and at the time it was made it was supposed to measure the complex of factors that converts prothrombin to thrombin. In reality it measures VIII, IX, XI and XII and can also be used for II, V and X. It is performed on citrated plasma. Platelet poor plasma [PPP] is incubated at 37°C then phospholipid (cephalin) and a contact activator (e.g. Kaolin, micronized silica or ellagic acid) are added. This leads to the conversion of Factor XI [FXI] to FXIa but the remainder of the pathway is not activated as no calcium is present. The addition of calcium (pre-warmed to 37°C) initiates clotting and the timer is started. The APTT is the time taken from the addition of calcium to the formation of a fibrin clot.

63
Q

What is the PT test? Why is it named that? What sample do you need for the test? What pathway does it test?

A

Prothrombin time. Named because it was meant to measure prothrombin (factor II), but it actually also measures V, VII and X. Done on citrated plasma and you add tissue factor (factor III). Tests the extrinsic and common pathways.

64
Q

Describe the diagnostic test results seen with DIC

A

thrombocytopenia, increased PT and PTT, increased D-dimers, decreased fibrinogen, decreased antithrombin 3, shistocytes on RBC morphology

65
Q

How would a coagulation panel look for a patient with rodenticide toxicity??

A

Elevated PT and PTT

66
Q

Prothrombin is also known as factor ____ and thrombin is factor _____

A

prothrombin is factor II and thrombin is IIa

67
Q

fibrinogen is factor ____ and fibrin ia factor ___

A

I and Ia

68
Q

Any type of hemophilia affects the ____ pathway so the ____ would be prolonged and the ___ would be normal.

A

Affects the instrinsic pathway (VII, IX, XI, XII) so the PTT would be prolonged and the PT would be normal.

NAVLE By Species (29 decks)

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