Pharmacology basics Flashcards

1
Q

How do drugs interact with receptors

A

Drug interact as a ligand with a receptor (large protein macromolecule responsible for cellular signaling). This results in activation of cellular biochemical processes by way of a transduction pathway that ultimately brings about the pharacological effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a sucide substrated

A

A competitive inhibitor that is converted to an irreversible inhibitor at the active ste of the enzyme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the general mechanisms by which drugs work

A

Vanderwal’s interaction: like repel each other, weak interaction;
Hydrogen bonding- weak;
Ionic- share more than one hydrogen;
Covalent- irreversible bound (aspirin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Principle of induced fit

A

Also called lock and key; drug acts as a key, receptor as a lock, combination yeilds a response; Dynamic and flexible interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tachyphylaxis

A

Rapidly decreasing response to a drug after administration of only a few doses; repeated same doses are less effective over time. Morphine addiction. Adding ketamine to fentanyl delays tachyphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Desensitized (tolerance)

A

Decreased response to the same dose with repeated (constant) exposure; or more drug needed to achieve same effect. Receptors don’t respond to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Inactivation

A

Recptors normally results in a depression of maximal response of agonist dose-response curves; complete response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Refractory period

A

A total inability to respond in an effective time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Down-Regulation

A

tolerance/sensitivity at the cellular level may be due to a change in the number of receptors (without the appropriate subunit) due to change in stimulation. Less receptors there to respond. Example hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

What happened in the process of the drug, binding one receptor; then multiple binding to a lot of receptors, which then going stimulate a local response prior to a body response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Graded dose response relationship

A

Constructed for responses measured on a continuous scale (hear rate). They relate the intensity of reponse to the size of the tose and hence are useful to characterize the actions of the drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Quantal dose response

A

Constructed for drugs that elicit an all or none response (prescence or abscense of convulsions) for most drugs the doses required to produce specific quantal effect in a population are log normally distributed so that the frequence of distribution of teh responses plotted agains log dose is a guassian normal distribution curve. The percentage of the population requiring a paticular dose to exhibit the effect can be determined from these curve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dose response curves

A

Percent effect (y), drug dose (x); depicts the relationship between drug dose and magnitude of drug effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define Potency

A

The measure of the drug concentration required to elicit a particular effect; The concentration or dose (ED 50) of a drug required to produce 50% of the drug’s maximal effect as depicted by a graded dose response curve; concentration in which you get 1/2 of efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define Efficacy

A

The maximum effect a drug can have (full response)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Agonist

A

Receptor interaction with a drug that results in some level of activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Full agonist

A

Results in maximal effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Partial agonists

A

Results that are not maximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Inverse agonist

A

an agent that binds to the same receptor as an agonist but induces a pharmacological response to that agonist; inactive a receptor that is normally on. Bind to the agonist site or elsewhere to induce a response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Antagonist

A

interacts selectively with receptors but it lacks intrinsic efficacy and this is able to block or reduce the action of an agonist at the receptor; Has no effect if nothing has been given that it needs to reverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Competitive antagonist

A

Competitive occurs at the same recptor site- reversible (easily dissociate from the receptor) or irreversible (form a stable chemical bond with receptor (alkylation); Torb is a competitive antagonist- may have to give enough fentanyl to overcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Non-competitive active site antagonist

A

binds to the active site and is irreversible or very close

23
Q

Non-competitive allosteric antagonist

A

binds to a distinctly separate binding site from the agonist exerting their action to the receptor via the other binding site. Do not compete at the active binding site. The bound antagonists may prevent conformational changes in the receptor required for receptro activation after the agonists bindts- will decrease efficacy

24
Q

What are spare receptors

A

Explains a maximum response beign achieved when only a fraction of the total number of receptors is occupied. Amplification of signal through G protein amplification. Binds to receptors, when it falls off it can then activate another receptor and the first receptor stays active

25
Q

Therapeutic Window

A

The range of a drug or its concntration in a bodily system that proves safe effective therapy

26
Q

Therapeutic Index

A

is a measure of a drug’s safety LDF50/ED 50; The higher the value the safer the drug

27
Q

ADME

A

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination/excretion; Four dynamic drug movements; plasma drug concentrations at any point in time after administration of a dose reflect the combined effects of four dynamic drug movements

28
Q

Absorption- define

A

From the site of administration (orally, parentally) to systemic circulation; Bioavailabillity, oral absorption play a role

29
Q

Distribution- define

A

From systemic circulation to tissues (target/nontarget) and back again. Protein binds- systems blood and lymph

30
Q

Metabolism- define

A

breaks it down, activates, or deactivates the drug

31
Q

Excretion- define

A

elimination of the drug from the body

32
Q

What is pH trapping (ion trapping)

A

The build up of a higher concentration of a chemical across a cell membrane due to the pKa value of the chemical and difference of pH across the cell membrane. Move to one compartment to another then hydrogen is stuck or gives it. Weakly acidic likely to give up hydrogen ion

33
Q

What drug properties favor drug entry into the CNS

A

Lipid Soluble, small size- low mocular weight, can use exisiting, BB protiens, deliver intratheical, non protein bound

34
Q

Define bioavailability

A

The percentage of an administered dose of drug that reaches systemic circulation and is thus able to induce a response. Used to predict drug efficacy after different routes of administration or administration of different formulations

35
Q

Explain the process of first pass metabolism

A

The concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches systemic circulation due to the liver (only)

36
Q

Factors affecting drug absorption from oral administration

A

Reach systemic circulation from absorption from the small intestine; pH- favors absorption of weak acids; surface area favors SI vs. Stomach; motility;concentration of diffusible drug at the site of movement; permeability and thickness of the mucosal epithelium; and intestinal blood flow which maintains the concentration gradient across the mucosal epithelium

37
Q

Explain volume of distribution

A

Is a constant that relates the amount of drug in the body to the plasma drug concentration, but does not necessarily correspond to any actual anatomic volume or compartment

38
Q

What organs/tissues are responsivel for metabolism of drugs

A

Is the enzymatic conversion of one chemical compound into another. Most drug metabolism occurs in the liver, although some will occur in the gut wall, lungs, skin, or blood plasma.

39
Q

What factors influence renal excretion

A

Host factors determine renal excretion include renal blood flow (including glomerular filtration rate), active tubular secretion, and tubular (generally passive) reabsorption. The kidney is also capable of metabolizing some drugs, although only occasionally clinical important. Glomerular filtration is a passive process

40
Q

What factors influence biliary excretion

A

Slow; more contact with intestines leading to adverse GI reactions; chemic struction, polarity, and molecular weight, with MW being the major determinant.

41
Q

How are drugs concentrated in the urinary system

A

Drugs excreted in the urine that do not undergo passive reabsorption will be progressively concentrated in the renal tubule. Tubular cells

42
Q

Describe the process of enterohepatic recirculation

A

Conjugated (phase II) drugs excreted by this route may undergo enterohepatic circulation if intestinal bacteria or due to pH change unconjugate the drug or metabolite. Allowing intestinal absorption to occur. Prolongs elimination half life and further exposes gastrointestinal tract to the drug

43
Q

Define Drug Clearance

A

Parameter used to assess the excretory capacity and thus physical well being of an organ relative to plasma concentration. Differs from elimination because it is a volume per unit of time, not a rate constatnt

44
Q

Define First-order Kinetics

A

Decrease exponentially with time, rate of elimination is proportional to concentration, plot of log [drug] or ln [drug] versus time are linear; t1/2 is constant regardless of the [drug]; cant saturate the eliminating step

45
Q

Define Zero-order kinetics

A

[drug] decreases linearly with time, rate of elimination is constant, rate of elimination is independent of [drug], no true t1/2; no point of CRI with zero order kinetics, as can staturate, ex. Buprenorphine

46
Q

Define halflife

A

disappearance of drug from plasma

47
Q

Define elimination half life

A

the time necessary for plasma or blood concentrations to decline by 50%; Should be the basis for an appropriate dosing interval

48
Q

How does age affect the volume of distribution of a drug

A

Body composition changes as people; physiologic functions generally decline steadily with increasing ages. Energy requirements of dogs decrease as they age. Organ mass reduces in size and function by approximatly 25%

49
Q

How does obesity affect the volume of distribution of a drug

A

Increased porportion of body fat is accompanied by a decrease in total body water and cell mass; as distribution of water solubel drugs decreased with total body water, PDCs tend to increase. The distrubution of lipid soluble drugs increase as the proportion of body increases, however which tends to decrease PDCs unless the patient is dose on mg/kg bases

50
Q

How does pathologic fluid accumulations affect the volume of distribution of a drug

A

Edema formation and intravenous fluid administration contribute to a vast increase in total body water substantially increasing Vd of hydrophilic antimicrobials

51
Q

How does cholestasis induce or inhibit cytochrome p450 enzymes

A

Cholestasis decrease the content or activity of cytochrome p450 drug metabolizing enzymes and thus can affect the elimination of drugs that are not secreted in bile

52
Q

How does liver failure affect the volume of distribution of a drug

A

Decreased protein binding of drugs that may accompany liver disease. Increase hepatic clearance and thus compenasate for reduced hepatic metabolism. Further complicated by the effects of fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base imbalances, which are also likely to occur.

53
Q

How does kidney failure affect the volume of distribution of a drug

A

Uremia induced alterations in tissue receptors or from decreased or increased PDCs caused by disease induced changes in pharmacokinetic; decreased renal blood flow which tends to parallel glomerular filtration and tubular secretion.

54
Q

How does heart failure (decreased cardiac output) affect the volume of distribution

A

Primary or compensatory disturbances that lead to altared drug disposition include renal sodium and water retention, increased pulmonary and systemic venous pressures, and increased sympathetic nervous systme output