Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

ACE inh

A

rami”pril”
Dilate arteries and veins by blocking angiotensin II formation and inhibiting bradykinin metabolism. This vasodilation reduces arterial pressure, preload and afterload on the heart.
Down regulate sympathetic adrenergic activity by blocking the facilitating effects of angiotensin II on sympathetic nerve release and reuptake of norepinephrine.
Promote renal excretion of sodium and water (natriuretic and diuretic effects) by blocking the effects of angiotensin II in the kidney and by blocking angiotensin II stimulation of aldosterone secretion. This reduces blood volume, venous pressure and arterial pressure.
Inhibit cardiac and vascular remodeling associated with chronic hypertension, heart failure, and myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Calcium channel blocker

A

amlodi”pine” acts on the smooth muscle of the vascular smooth muscle (arterial not venous) to reduce contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

nitrates

A

isosorbide mononitrate promotes NO mediated dilation of the venous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A blockers

A

used fro benign prostate hyperplasia

doxasin negative ionotrope, and cause vasoconstriction of the veins especially when the patient stands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

medication given in alcohol withdrawal

A

chlordiazepoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

drugs that can contribute to dysphagia

A

oesophageal tone: ca channel blockers and nitrates

PUD: NSAIDS, asprin, steriods, and bisphosphonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

mechanism of action of asprin

A

irreversible inhibitor of the enzyme cyclooxygenase which synthesises inflammatory mediators including platelet aggregator A2. Platelets have no nuclei so cannot reverse this action by procudcing more COX. Aspirin’s action is reversed by platelet production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

mechanism of action of clopidogrel

A

irreversibly blocks the ADP receptor on pletlet cell membranes that prevents binding to fibrogen and inh platelet aggregation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Abcixmab mechanism of action

A

also tirofiban works the same way to reversibly block fibrogen binding to the glycoproteins r IIB/IIIa on the platelet cell membranes that mediate platelet aggregation,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

bivalirudin mechanism of action

A

is a direct thrombin inh and used as an alternative to heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the indications for an exercise stress test?

A

possibility of coronary artery disease and the benefit of angioplasty. patients ECG and bp are measured along with symptoms ST depression greater than 2 mm exertional angina, ST elevation greater than 1 mm
30% of positive results are false positives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are you looking for in a stress echogram

A

give dobutamine looking for hypokinetic movement in ischemia
hyperkinetic movement is normal
this is used for patients who are not fit for traditional stress test or immobile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

salbutamol

A

selective B agonist
acts on the G protien coupled receptor activating adenylate cyclise and increasing the formation of camp leading the relaxation of smooth muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ipratropium

A

antimuscarinic/ anticolinergic antagonizes muscarinic receptors in the airways preventing parasympathetic muscular contraction. often used in COPD but less often in asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

combivent

A

mixture of salbutamol and ipratropium bromide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

inhaled corticosteroids mechanism of action

A

affecting the intracellular production of various proteins to reduce inflammation response in the airways

17
Q

cycline mechanism of action and use

A

antihistamine and antimuscarinic that blocks actylcholine rectors in the vestibular and vomiting centres
use in post op nausea, bowel obstruction nausea *ANTIKINETIC
and also raised ICP

18
Q

metoclopramide MOA and use

A

agonist properties at the 5HT4 receptor and antagonist properties at D2 receptors
PROKINETIC DO NOT use in bowel obstruction and use with caution in parkinson’s patients
used in causes of delayed gastric emptying.

19
Q

odansetron MOA and use

A

5HT3 receptor antagonist acts on receptors of the gut and chemoreceptors trigger zone useful for chemo induced and post op vomiting

20
Q

haloperidol MOA and use

A

antagonist of dopamine (D2) receptors found in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and myenteric plexus of GIT
drug induced and metabolic causes of vomiting and also raised ICP

21
Q

what are the cautions and contraindications for NSAIDs

A

contraindicated in asthma
history of anaphylaxis with NSAIDS
previous or active peptic ulcers
severe heart failure
COX2 SHOuld not be used in ischeamic heart disease, cerebralvascular disease or PAD increased risk of thromboembolic events
caution in:
cogulation defects
renal cardiac and hepatic impairment
during pregnancy or breastfeeding- in utero can cause closure of the ductus arteriosus
elderly patients have risk of bleeding and renal failure

22
Q

indications for AAA surgery repair

A

symptomatic
greater than 5.5 cm
if it is growing greater than 1 cm per year

23
Q

indapamide

A

thiazide like diuretic used for HTN or decompensative heart failure

24
Q

alendronate

A

bisphosphanate drug used for bone disease

25
Q

what three medications predispose a patient to peptic ulcers?

A

NSAIDS
bisphosphonates
steriods

26
Q

what medications should you put on hold in a patient with oligouria or a worsening kidney function

A

NSAIDS ACE inh diuretics and abx (gent, vanc,)

27
Q

MOA of biguanides

A

decrease hepatic uptake and increase peripheral glucose uptake

28
Q

MOA of glitazones

A

activate peroxisome proliferator activated receptor gamma
nuclear transcription factor increasing LPL and fatty acid transporter protein 1 transcription involved in lipid metabolism
increasing perpheral insulin sensitivity

29
Q

MOA of sulphonylureas and meglitinides

A

increased insulin secretion by blocking the K ATP channel in the pancreatic B cells causeing deploratization and ca entry leading to increased insulin production.

30
Q

MOA of gliptins

A

competively inhibit the DPP4 enzyme that normally inactivates glucagon like peptide and incretin that stimulates insulin secretion and inhibits glucagon release.

31
Q

a- glucosidase inh. MOA

A

decrease glucose reabsorption in the intestine.

32
Q

Warfarin side effects

A
heamorrhage 
nausea and vomiting 
purple toes and skin necrosis
hepatic dysfunction 
pancreatitis
33
Q

What is the INR target range for patients with proven DVT?

A

2-3