gastrointestinal Flashcards

1
Q

treatment for H. Pylori

A
triple therapy PAC500 
proton pump inhibitor 
amoxicillin 1g
clarithromyocin 500 
or 
PMC250 full dose PPI metronidazole 400mg, clarithromycin 250 mg
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2
Q

risk factors for peptic ulcer

A
H. pylori
smoking
alcohol 
NSAIDS and aspirin 
group O
hypercalcaemia 
physiological stress
burns (curling’s ulcers) or brain trauma (cushings ulcers)
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3
Q

different types of portosystemic shunts

A
caput medusae (umbilicus) 
oesophageal varices 
rectal varices 
diaphragm 
retropertineum
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4
Q

what is the child-Pugh score used for

A

liver cirrhosis
score 5-6 100% one year survival
10-15 points 45%

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5
Q

clotting cascade simplify

A
intrinsic APTT (34 sec) heparin prolongation caused by von willebrand disease haemophilias 
extrinsic PT (14 sec) Warfarin and liver disease
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6
Q

liver produces which clotting factors

A

II, VII, IX, X

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7
Q

treatment for achalasia

A
  1. pneumatic balloon dilatation 60% free at 5 years
  2. surgical (Heller’s) myotomy longitudinal incision of the muscle fibres of the distal oesophagus risk of GORd so sometimes occurs with funoplication
  3. botox injection
  4. drugs like ca channel blockers and nitrates but these are last and not very effective
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8
Q

risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma

A
drinking smoking 
nitrosamines (pickled moldy foods) and nitrates 
aflatoxins 
achalasia 
plummer vinson syndrome 
hereditary tylosis 
coeliac disease
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9
Q

risk factors for adenocarcinoma

A

barrett’s oesophagus

smoking and alcohol but not as imp as school

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10
Q

plummer vinson syndrome

A
strophic glossitis (smooth tongue) 
cheilosis (cracks at the mouth)
koilonychia 
dysphagia 
post cricoid web of hyperkeratinization 
may require balloon dilatation and it is premalignant to cricopharyngeal carcinoma
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11
Q

what is the pathophysiology of achalasia?

A

absence of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus which leads to failure of the relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter and aperistalsis in the oesophageal body. ddx chagas disease or met carcinoma

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12
Q

vomit with undigested foods

A

oesophageal disorders achalasia, pharyngeal pouch

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13
Q

partially digested vomit

A

gastric outlet obstruction, gastroparesis

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14
Q

bile in the vomit

A

small bowel obstruction distal to the ampulla of vater

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15
Q

foul looking vomiting

A

distal intestinal or colonic obstruction

NB the only time you will see true faeces in the vomit is if there is a gastocolonic fistula or coprophagia

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16
Q

blood or coffee ground appearance

A

heamatemsis

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17
Q

long duration of vomiting

A

less likely it is a small bowel obstruction rules out acute pathologies

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18
Q

why should you always ask about constipation and flatus?

A

because an absolute constipation and flatus is a serious sign suggesting bowel obstruction

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19
Q

management of cholecystitis

A

nonoperative
clear fluids- avoiding food in the duodenum symptomatic relief to keep the gallbladder from contraction and also to prepare her for surgery.
IV fluids- vomiting
analgesics- WHO paracetamol and opioids given regular intervals.
antibiotics- according to local hospital guidelines gram neg
operative
laparoscopic cholecystectomy
urgent within 72 hours
or treating the acute episode and cholecystectomy 6-12 weeks later.

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20
Q

complications of cholecystitis

A

empyema
cholecystodoudenal fistula
gallbladder carcinoma
ascending cholangitis

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21
Q

what are the sings of ascending cholangitis?

A
charcots triad:
RUQ pain 
jaundice 
fever with rigors 
swinging fever
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22
Q

management of ascending cholangitis

A
surgical emergency- 
blood culture 
fluids 
oxygen
broad spectrum antibiotics 
lactate serum 
 urine output 
endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography drainage 
endoscope is placed in the esophagus through to the duodenum sphincter of oddi a fine catheter placed there pus drained and sent for culture. small basket collect any obstructing stone or sludge sphincterotomy
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23
Q

post drainage of CBD management

A

nil by mouth
monitoring and abx
definition mgx is cholecystectomy

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24
Q

bile is made up of what?

A

water
fats cholesterol and phospholipids
bile salts (help stabilise fats to ease digestion)
conjugated bilirubin (stool brown colour)
bile salts are reabsorbed in the terminal ileum

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25
Give parental vitamin K due to what type of jaundice
if PT time is prolonged you can give vit K in obstructive jaundice
26
types of gallstone
bile pigment: heamolytic anaemia pictureor long term parental nutrition cholesterol stone: the five fs fat, fair, fertile, female of forty.
27
complications of gallstones
anatomically gallbladder ciliary colic, cholecystitis,mucocoele, empyema, cancer of gallbladder of CBD (cholangiocarcinoma) CBD- obstructive jaundice, ascending cholangitis acute pancreatitis gallstones ileus
28
how do fatty foods cause pain in biliary colic and cholecystitis
CCK released in duodenum in response to fatty foods stimulating the gallbladder to contract.
29
what is calots triangle
top liver inferior is cystic duct medial side is common bile duct and right hepatic duct cystic artery is a branch of the right hepatic artery which passes behind the common bile duct.
30
what is Mirizzi syndrome
stone in hartmann’s pouch pressing on the common bile duct
31
courvoisier’s law
if the gallbladder is palpable in the presence of jaundice then the jaundice is unlikely to be due to stones... if stone in the CBD gallbladder thickened and fibrotic *shrivelled CBD is obstructed due to carcinoma gallbladder is likely to be normal.
32
what is ERCP and how does it differ from MRCP
ERCP can be therapeutic and diagnostic therapeutic * dormia basket and endoscopic sphinctectomy MRCP purely diagnostic risks of ERCP is bleeding, perforation of biliary tree, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.
33
if you think that your patient has pancreatitis what blood tests would you order?
FBC- leucocytosis and neutrophillia LFT= hepatic involvement or obstructive picture (primary cause) serum amylase- greater than 1000 Amylase or greater than 300 Lipase modified Glasgow score for pancreatitis severity FBcm calcium, urea, liver enzymes, LDH, albumin, glucose, and arterial blood gas)
34
what can result in protienuria
UTI and appendicitis irritating the bladder
35
how should patient be follow up after acute diverticulitis
offered colonscopy 2-6 weeks after resolution of episode extent and strictures high fibre diet
36
when would surgery be considered in this patient
``` advise 1/3 remain well without symptoms 1/3 ocasional cramps 1.3 require hospital admission 2 episodes of hospital admission associated obstructive symptoms contrast leak during CT abdomen ```
37
emergency management of a perforated diverticulitis
1. resus (fluids titrated in response to BP, HR, and urinary output) oxygen keeping it greater than 94 Nil by mouth 2. blood tests: VBG, FBC, U&E, cross match 3. analgesia 4. antibiotics 5. CT emergency laparoscopy - normally Hartmanns procedure
38
when should a patient with renal stones (nephrolithiasis) be admitted?
evidence of an upper UTI renal impairment (high creatinine, urea, high k) refractory pain bilateral obstructing stones patient is elderly, child or systemically unwell
39
management for kidney stone
1. regular multimodal analgesia (NSAIDS and paracetamol) 2. encourage fluid intake 3. tamsulosin (alpha blocker) or nifedipine (ca channel blockers) both relax smooth muscle 4. active stone removal stones less than 5mm can spontaneously 50% of time (keep the stone for analysis) 5. KUB x-ray before discharge to see if stone appears 6. stones greater than 5 mm are unlikely to pass discuss with urology
40
methods of kidney stone removal
lithotripsy extracorporeal shock wave if stones are less than 2 cm ureterorenoscopic removal = dormia basket, holmium laser and mechanical lithotripsy may require a post op ureteric stent percutaneous nephrolithotomy= rarely stenting or percutaneous nephrostomy may be performed in order to prevent hydronephrosis antibiotic cover- given if their are invasive procedure.
41
what are the different causes of kidney stones
calcium- investigate for hyperparathyroidism struvite- ammonium magnesium phosphate proteus infection, pseudomonas urate- tx with potassium citrate cystine
42
RF fro developing kidney stones
``` metabolic: hypercaliuria hyperuricosuria hypocitraturia hyperoxaluria gout (G6PDH deficiency, malignancy) cystinuria primary hyperparathyriodism crohn’s chronic urinary tract medullary sponge or polycystic kidneys sarcoidosis ```
43
jelly like or mucous stool what species?
salmonella or villious polyps
44
How do you diagnose IBS
ROME III at least 3 months with onset at least 6 months previously of recurrent abdominal pain or discomfort associated with two or more of the following: improvement with defecation onset associated with a change is stool consistency and also frequency of stooling
45
what is the definition of inflammatory bowel disease?
this is a spectrum of diseases including pouchititis and also have extraintestinal effects of the disease.
46
risk factors for IBD
white, european ancestry and jewish populations
47
prevalece
1: 500 1: 1000
48
which IBD is less likely in smokers
ulcerative colitis
49
which is more common in smokers?
crohns
50
what is the genetic component of IBD?
5-10% in siblings | 50% in monozygotic twins
51
What are the gene variants that associated with Chrons?
NOD2
52
IBD pathogenesis
dysfunction of the bowel immune system. pathology- acute (neutrophils) and chronic inflammation gut flora- take away gut improves
53
Ulcerative colitis presentation
frequency tenesmus rectal bleeding
54
endoscopy UC
``` ulcers friability pseudopolyps variable extension proximal continous ```
55
histology hallmark UC
lumen of the crypt is lined with neutrophils
56
what is the differential for UC
``` crohn’s disease shingella salmonella e. coli campylobacter pseudomembranous colitis (severe C DIFF) non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs ```
57
How do you diagnose IBD- UC?
no gold standard- clinical ddx diarrhoea and rectal bleeding for a couple weeks or months neg. stool culture neg C diff colonoscopy showing continuous colitis from anal verge proximally absence of small bowel involvement histology shows chronic inflammation with crypt abcesses.
58
extra-enteric manifestations
Uveitis enteropathic arteritis oligioartheritis = large joint single joint ankolsing spondylitis - morning stiffness and back involvement primary scelerosing cholangitis- irregular, narrow bile ducts greatly increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma. No effective treatment. obstructive picture. pyoderma gangrenosum erythmatous nodusum= painful bumps on shins
59
UC treatment
aminosalicylates- mesalazine mild disease corticosteroids= severe disease azathioprine= anti- TNF
60
UC complications
toxic megacolon- higher risk of perforation if flare up= IV fluids and corticosteroids normal X ray of colon even if symptomatic 2 daily physical examination for abdominal tenderness- peritonitis
61
toxic megacolon
indication for emergency surgery.
62
surgery ulcerative colitis
permanent illiotosmy permanent J pouch= works well in young people but not older people= anal 6 bowel movements a day
63
crohn’s disease associated with which which gene change
NOD2 or CARD15 the more alleles the greater the risk 1= 3X risk 2= 40X
64
what are some of the traits associated with Crohns
mouth to anus transmural disease skip lesions
65
crohn’s presentation
diarrhoea crampy pain rectal perianal disease
66
endoscopic chrons
deep ulcers
67
surgical chrons
fat proliferation | producing proinflammatory cytokines
68
perianal disease in crohns
abcess and fistula
69
How can you tell the air fluid level in a CT?
look up on radio pedía
70
treatment of crohn’s disease
do not use amiosalicyates use coritcosteriods immunosuppressants inflixamab and other biologics
71
treatment of fistula and abcess
surgical drainage | metronidazole
72
should you do surgery in Crohns
recurrence in the illuim just above anastomosis most patients don’t have granuloma crypt abcess is the most
73
complications of Crohns
abcess and fistula and stricture formation
74
biologics
inflixamab- 1/5 of patients in remission placebo = 10% patients needed to treat- 13 patients active crohns - combination of inflix and azothioprine is better
75
anti drug antibodies
trough inflixamab | can amount immune response against it.
76
vedolizumab
gut specific anti intergrin= MS and UC prevent rolling
77
historical treatment vs current treatment of crohns
currently based on severity of the disease and going with a strong therapy.
78
fecal calportectin
neg good for saying they don’t have the disease | also monitoring disease activity