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BVetMed - Complete course (Years 1, 2, 3) > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.

1
Q

What is a drug

A

A substance used to diagnose, prevent or treat disease.

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2
Q

What are the drug indications

A

The specific disease or condition for which the drug product is approved

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3
Q

What are the contraindications

A

The reasons why you shouldn’t use it. Ie: pregnancy

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4
Q

What is xylotol used for

A

It is a sugar free solvent for many human drugs. Toxic to dogs

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5
Q

What is the veterinarian-client-patient relationship for rx drugs

A

The veterinarian has assumed responsibility for making clinical judgement about the health of the animals and the need for treatment.

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6
Q

What does the vet have to do for the animal to get medicine

A

The vet has sufficient knowledge of the animal to issue a diagnosis. Must have seen the animal recently and must be available for follow up evaluation of the patient

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7
Q

What are the drug sources

A

Plants, minerals, animals, synthesized

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8
Q

What does xylotol cause in dogs

A

Causes liver necrosis and hyperglycemia due to insulin release. Aka seizure and death.

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9
Q

What are inactive ingredients

A

Classified as binders, coatings, colouring agents, disintegrates, emulsifiers, fillers, flavourings, flow agents, humectants, preservatives

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10
Q

Describe prescription drugs

A

May have toxic effectsHas been approved for specific uses etcHas contraindications. Sometimes has extra label it off label use

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11
Q

What is a drug regimen

A

Includes the dose, the route of administration, the frequency, the duration

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12
Q

What is a dosage

A

The general principal

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13
Q

What is a dose

A

The quantity of specific time

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14
Q

What are the control drugs groups

A

Five schedules.. According to their potential for abuse. The schedule is designated with a C with a Roman numeral 1,2,3,4,5

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15
Q

Describe schedule 1 drugs

A

Substances with no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. Heroin etc

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16
Q

Describe schedule 2 drugs

A

Drugs have accepted medical uses but have a high potential for abuse. Codeine etc

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17
Q

Describe schedule 3 drugs

A

Less potential for abuse

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18
Q

Which drugs have to be kept in a locked cabinet

A

2-5

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19
Q

What are the technician responsibility for all drugs

A

Make sure the correct drug is administeredAdminister by correct route Nd correct time Observe animals response to drugsQuestion unclear orders Put labels on containers Explain medicine instructions to clients Put into into medical record

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20
Q

What are pharmacokinetics

A

Includes the stdy of mechanisms of absorption and distribution of the administered drugs.. The chemical changes of the substances in the metabolism and the effects and routes of excretion of the metabolites of the drug

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21
Q

Where is a drug first absorbed/placed

A

Into the blood stream

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22
Q

How can a drug move in the blood stream

A

May bind with a plasma protein or may exist in the free state

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23
Q

Where does a drug go from the bloodstream

A

Distributes the drug to the capillary level

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24
Q

Where does the drug go from the capillary level

A

Into the interstitial fluid. It enters the cell or binds with surface receptors

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25
Q

Where does the drug go from the cell

A

Exits the cell and moves back to the interstitial fluid, reenters the circulation and is transported to the liver for metabolism.

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26
Q

Where does the drug go after it is metabolized in the liver

A

The metabolite is transported to the kidneys for excretion

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27
Q

What are the routes of administration

A

OralParenteralInhalationTopical

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28
Q

What does pharmokinetics involve

A

Routes of administrationDrug absorptionDrug distributionBiotransformation (metabolism)Drug excretion

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29
Q

What does the therapeutic index tell you ?

A

Lethal Dose 50/ Effective dose 50Safe range for a drug.

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30
Q

What type of drugs does the kidney filter

A

Water soluble

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31
Q

What type of drugs does the liver excrete

A

Fat soluble, through the bile

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32
Q

Where else are drugs excreted from other than the kidney or liver

A

Mammary glands LungsIntestinal tractSweat gland Salivary glands Skin

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33
Q

What is pharmacodynamics

A

Study of the mechanism by which drugs produce physiologic changes in the body. How a drug works and it’s mechanism of action

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34
Q

What is an antagonist

A

Blocker

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35
Q

What is an agonist

A

Activates the receptor

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36
Q

What is a partial agonist

A

Partially activates the receptor

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37
Q

What are the different types of drug interactions

A

Pharmacokinetic, pharmacodynamic, pharmaceutic

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38
Q

What is pharmacokinetic

A

How the drug moves through the body

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39
Q

What is a pharmacodynamic interaction

A

The action of one drug is altered by another. These reactions occur at the site of drug action.

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40
Q

What is an antagonistic interaction in terms of pharmacodynamic interaction

A

Ie: a reversal agent.

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41
Q

What is an additive action in terms of pharmacodynamic interaction

A

Ie: combining to produce two effects

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42
Q

What is synergistic interaction in terms of pharmacodynamic interactions

A

Helps to aid in an effect

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43
Q

What is pharmaceutic interaction

A

When physical or chemical changes take place as a result of mixing drugs in a syringe or other container

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44
Q

What is drug compounding

A

Combine two or more drugs to make something new etcDiluting a drug etc

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45
Q

What is the cba composed of

A

The brain and the spinal cord

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46
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system composed of

A

Everything else

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47
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system divided into

A

Afferent and efferent

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48
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system divided into

A

Somatic and autonomic nervous system

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49
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system composed of

A

Efferent nerve cells that carry info from the cns to cardiac muscle, glands and smooth muscle. Involuntary

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50
Q

What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic.

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51
Q

How are nerve impulses transmitted

A

Sodium potassium pump.

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52
Q

What is a synapse

A

How one nerve cell communicates with another

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53
Q

What are the different types of receptors

A

Muscarinic, nicotonic and adrenergic

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54
Q

What are the 4 ways that drugs can effect neurotransmitters

A

Mimicking neurotransmitter Interfering with neurotransmitter release Blocking the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptorsInterferes with the breakdown of neurotransmitters

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55
Q

What are the neurotransmitters

A

AcetylcholineNorepinephrine DopamineSerotoninGABA

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56
Q

What are the two classes of autonomic nervous system agents

A

Cholinergic agent and adrenergic agent

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57
Q

What are the types of cholinergic agents

A

Direct acting cholinergics, indirect acting cholinergics anticholinesterase agent

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58
Q

With both classes of autonomic nervous system agents what are there

A

Blocking agents. Cholinergic blocking agent and adrenergic blocking agent

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59
Q

What do adrenergic agents act like in the body

A

Like the sympathetic nervous system i.e. epinephrine

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60
Q

What do cholinergic agents do

A

Aid in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis, reduce the inter-ocular pressure of glaucoma, stimulate G.I. motility, treat urinary retention, control vomiting, act as an antidote for neuromuscular blockers.

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61
Q

What are the direct acting cholinergics that are most important

A

BethanecholPilocarpineMetoclopramide

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62
Q

What does bethanechol do

A

Is used to treat GI and urinary tract atony

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63
Q

What does pilocarpine do?

A

Reduces intraocular pressure associated with glaucoma

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64
Q

What does metacopramide do

A

Metoclopramide is used to control vomiting and to promote gastric tract emptying

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65
Q

What is the most important indirect acting cholinergic agent

A

Organophosphate compounds that are commonly used in the insecticide dips and may result in toxicity if used inappropriately.

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66
Q

What are the adverse side effects of excessive cholinergic stimulation

A

Bradycardia, hypotension, heart block, lacrimation, diarrhea, vomiting, increased intestinal activity, intestinal rupture, increased bronchial secretions

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67
Q

What are cholinergic blocking agents

A

Drugs that block the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors of the sympathetic nervous system

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68
Q

What are the clinical uses of atropine and glycopyrrolate

A

Treatment of diarrhea and vomiting by decreasing G.I. motility, as a preanesthetic to dry secretions and prevent bradycardia, to dilute the pupils for ophthalmic examination, to relieve ciliary spasm of the eye, to treat sinus bradycardia

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69
Q

Why do we use atropine and glycopyrrolate as a preanesthetic

A

For sedation, decreased dose of prescription of anesthetic. prevents problems caused by other prescriptions, pain management

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70
Q

Describe atropine

A

Used as a pre-Anna static to dry secretions and to prevent bradycardia, as an antidote to organophosphate poisoning in, to dilute the pupils for ophthalmic examination, to control ciliary spasms of the eye, to treat sinus bradycardia, to slow a hypermotile gut

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71
Q

Whats the difference between atropine and glycopyrolate

A

It provides longer action than atropine and is used primarily as a preanesthetic. Doesn’t result in a higher heart rate. Does not get degraded by atropinase

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72
Q

What are the adverse side effects of anticholinergics

A

Overdose can cause drowsiness, disorientation, tachycardia, photophobia, constipation, anxiety, burning at the injection site

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73
Q

What is the purpose of giving a pre-anesthetic

A

Sedate, decrease dose of drugs to administer, prevent problems caused by other drugs, pain management

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74
Q

Why is atropine not effective in rabbits and some cats

A

Because rabbits and cats have atropinase which destroys atropine

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75
Q

Will atropine or glycopyrrolate cause sedation ?

A

No

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76
Q

What do adrenergic agents do

A

Bring about action at receptors mediated by epinephrine or norepinephrine

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77
Q

What are the two things adrenergic agents may be classified as

A

Catecholamines or noncatecholamines.

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78
Q

How are adrenergic agents classified

A

They are also classified by receptor type activated

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79
Q

What are adrenergic agents used for

A

To stimulate the heart to beat during cardiac arrest, to reverse the hypotension and bronchoconstriction of anaphylactic shock, to strengthen the heart during congestive heart failure or, to correct hypotension through vasoconstriction, to reduce Cappellar he bleeding through vasoconstriction, to treat urinary incontinence, to reduce mucous membrane congestion in allergic conditions, to prolong the effects of local unaesthetic agents by causing Vasoconstriction of blood vessels at the injection site

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80
Q

Which receptors does epinephrine stimulate

A

Epinephrine stimulates all for receptors.

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81
Q

What are the effects of epinephrine in the body

A

To cause an increase in heart rate and cardiac output. Constriction of the blood vessels in the skin. Dilation of blood vessels and muscle. Dilation of the bronchioles. Increase in metabolic rate

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82
Q

What is phenylephrine used for

A

It is an alpha stimulator that is used as a nasal vasoconstrictior for kittens with rhino

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83
Q

What does phenylpropanolamine used for

A

Urinary incontence in dogs

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84
Q

What are beta agonists used for

A

Bronchodilation

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85
Q

What do tranquilizers do and give two examples of them

A

Tranquilizers such as Acepromazine and droperidol act as Alpha blockers and cause vasodilation

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86
Q

What is yohimbine used for

A

Yohimbine is used as an antidote for xylazine toxicity

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87
Q

What is atipamezole (antisedan) used for

A

It is a reversal agent for medetomidine (dormitor)

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88
Q

What do beta blockers do

A

Slow heart rate down

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89
Q

What are two types of beta blockers

A

Propranolol and atenolol

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90
Q

What are the types of adrenergic receptors

A

Alpha 1,2 and Beta 1,2

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91
Q

Where are beta 1 receptors located and what do they do

A

Beta-1 receptors are located in the heart. They increase the heart rate, the strength of contraction by the cardiac muscle.

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92
Q

What are beta-2 receptors and where are they found

A

Beta-2 receptors are found in smooth muscles surrounding blood vessels of the heart, skeletal muscles, arterioles, and the terminal bronchioles in the lungs. Beta-2 receptors cause vasodilation and dilation of the airways in the lungs a.k.a. bronchodilation

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93
Q

Where are the alpha-1 receptors and what do they do

A

The alpha-1 receptors cause smooth muscles surrounding blood vessels in the skin and intestinal track to contract which decreases blood flow. Vasoconstriction via the flight or fight response

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94
Q

What’s special about acepromazine

A

It is a tranquilizer that has a side effect of causing hypotension. Causes vasodilation

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95
Q

Where are alpha 2 receptors located and what do they do

A

Alpha-2 receptors are located on the ends of adrenergic neurons where they help regulate the release of norepinephrine

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96
Q

What do alpha-2 agonist do

A

Located on the terminal Bhutto of norepinephrine secreted merlins they decrease norepinephrine release from the neuron both within the central nervous system as well as the peripheral nervous system

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97
Q

What is acepromazine used for

A

Sedation and to allay fear and anxiety without producing significant analgesia. Produce an antiemetic effect by depressing the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain. Have a mild Antipuritic effect. Reduce the tendency of epinephrine to induced cardiac arrhythmias

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98
Q

Why do we use Acepromazine as a pre-anesthetic

A

Because it calms the animal

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99
Q

What are the adverse affects to acepromazine

A

Can cause hypotension and hypothermia through their vasodilation a fact. They can also induce seizures in epileptic animals. Contraindicated in young, geriatric, sick animals.

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100
Q

What’s special about Acepromazine

A

There is no reversal agent

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101
Q

What are some benzodiazepine derivatives

A

Valium, versed, Xanax

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102
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Valium

A

Causes depression of the thalamus and hypothalamic areas of the brain. Produces sedation, muscle relaxation, appetite stimulation, anticonvulsant activity. Often used in combination with ketamine to induce short-term Anesthesia. Diazepam is very useful for treating Seizures in progress but not preventative due to short half life

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103
Q

What is special about diazepam

A

Should be stored at room temperature and protected from light, should not be stored in plastic, should not be mixed with other medication, diazepam is metabolized by the liver and eliminated by the kidneys

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104
Q

What is xylazine? What are some side effects to xylazine? What reverses it?

A

Xylazine is a alpha 2 agonist with sedative and analGesic and muscle relaxant properties. This agent causes vomiting in a large percentage of cats. Xylazine is reversed by yohimbine

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105
Q

What is dormitor. What are some side effects of dormitor. What is the reversal agent for dormitor.

A

Dormitor is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used as a sedative and analgesic in dogs older than 12 weeks of age. Adverse side effects are bradycardia, decreased respiration, hypothermia, vomiting, hyperglycemia. Reversed by antisedan.

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106
Q

What are the three types of barbiturates. What are they used for. What are some common side effects

A

Long acting barbiturates, short acting barbiturates and ultra short acting barbiturates. They are used as sedatives, anticonvulsants, general anesthetic, euthanasia agent. They depress the respiratory system

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107
Q

What are long acting barbiturates. How long do they last for. What are they used for. What class of controlled substance are they

A

Phenobarbital is a long acting barbiturate. It lasts for 8 to 12 hours. Use as an anticonvulsant to prevent epileptic seizures. It is a class 4 controlled substance

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108
Q

What are short acting barbiturate. How long does the sedation last for. What is it used for. What class of controlled substance is it

A

Pentobarbital sodium provides 1 to 2 hours of general anesthesia. It is a euthanasia agent. It is a class 2 controlled substance

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109
Q

What are ultra short acting barbiturates. What is special about them

A

Thiobarbiturates. Must be given iv in order to avoid necrosis. Redistrubuted to the fat stores within 5-30 mins. Can cause apnea if administered too quickly and CNS excitement if done too slowly

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110
Q

What are the two types of Thiobarbiturates

A

Thiopental: general anestheticMethohexital: 5-10 min anesthesia for thin animals.

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111
Q

What are special instructions for barbiturates

A

Not for old young or critically ill animals, barbiturates depressed the respiratory system, cause tissue injury if out of the vein

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112
Q

What is ketamine considered. What does it do.

A

Ketamine is a disassociative agent. It causes involuntary muscle rigidity, amnesia and analgesia. laryngeal reflexes are maintained and muscle tone is increased.

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113
Q

Where are opioid receptors located

A

In the brain, spinal cord, digestive tract.

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114
Q

What are the four opioid receptors

A

Mu, Kappa, Sigma, Delta

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115
Q

Describe synthetic narcotics and their uses

A

Produce analgesia and sedation while reducing anxiety and fear. Narcotic effects are produced when they act on opiate receptors in the brain. Used as preanesthetic’s or post anesthetics because of their sedative and analGesic properties. Sometimes used alone or in combination with tranquilizers.

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116
Q

List a few synthetic narcotic’s

A

Demerol,Oxymorphone,TorbugesicFentanylHydrocodoneEtorphineLomotilApomorphineBuprenorphine

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117
Q

What is buprenorphine used for

A

It is a potent analGesic that is used in several small animal species. Good for mild to moderate pain. Provides longer duration of analgesia than other opioids

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118
Q

What are the opioid reversal agents

A

Naloxone

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119
Q

What is neuroleptanalgesia

A

Opioid combined with a tranquilizer. Used for sedation unrestrained to produce anesthesia

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120
Q

How does a kidney maintain homeostasis

A

Filtration, reabsorption, secretion. Fluid balance regulation. Acid-base balance regulation. Production of hormones-erythropoietin. Blood pressure regulation.

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121
Q

What is a nephron

A

Basic functional unit of kidneys

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122
Q

What does a nephron consist of

A

Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule

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123
Q

Describe the blood supply of the kidney

A

Renal artery enters the kidney at the hilus. Divides into smaller arteries and arterioles

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124
Q

What is the distal convoluted tubule

A

Continuation of the ascending loop of henle

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125
Q

What is the purpose of The distal convoluted tubule

A

Carrie tubular filtrate through the medulla. Empty into renal pelvis. Primary site of action of ADH and regulation of potassium an acid-base balance

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126
Q

Describe sodium reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule

A

Sodium in tubular filtrate attaches to carrier protein that moves it into the cytoplasm of the proximal convoluted tubule epithelial cell.

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127
Q

Describe sodium cotransport in the proximal convoluted tubule

A

Glucose and amino acids attach to the same carrier protein and follow sodium into the cell by passive transport.

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128
Q

Describe urine volume regulation in the kidney

A

Determined by amount of water contained in the tubular filtrate when it reaches the renal pelvis. Controlled by actions of ADH and aldosterone.

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129
Q

What gland created ADH hormone

A

Anterior pituitary gland

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130
Q

What does adh hormone do

A

Acts on the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts to promote reabsorption.

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131
Q

What disease do you have if you don’t have the ADH hormone

A

Diabetes insipitus

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132
Q

what does aldosterone hormone trigger

A

Increases reabsorption of sodium

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133
Q

What are the reflex components of urine control

A

A spinal reflex returns a motor impulses to the bladder muscles causing them to contract. Contraction gives the sensation of having to urinate

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134
Q

What are the three aspects of urine formation

A

️Glomerular filtrationTubular reabsorptionTubular secretion

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135
Q

What is erythropoiesis

A

Formation of erythrocytes.

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136
Q

What is erythropoietin

A

A hormone secreted by the healthy kidneys to cause the formation of erythrocytes.

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137
Q

What happens if the kidney is not producing erythropoietin

A

Animal may develop a non-regenerative anemia as a result

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138
Q

How do you confirm uremia

A

Blood tests

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139
Q

What can uremia do

A

Increase the sensitivity of some tissues to certain drugs

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140
Q

What blood tests do you do for uremia

A

Creatinine and bun (blood urea nitrogen)

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141
Q

What are diuretic drugs

A

Urine producing drugs. Used to remove excess extracellular fluid by increasing urine flow and sodium excretion and reducing hypertension

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142
Q

What is extracellular fluid

A

Edema

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143
Q

What are the two main reasons for diuretic use

A

To remove fluid from organs and to reverse high blood pressure

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144
Q

What are loop diuretics

A

Highly potent diuretics that inhibit the tubular reabsorption of sodium. They also promote the excretion of chloride, potassium and water.

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145
Q

What can happen to some patients on long term loop diuretic therapy

A

May also have to be placed on potassium supplementation

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146
Q

What are the dosage forms of the loop diuretics

A

Furosemide (lasix, disal, diuride)

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147
Q

What are the adverse side effects of loop diuretics

A

Hypokalemia

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148
Q

What are osmotic diuretics

A

Can be administered intravenously to promote diuresis by exerting high osmotic pressure in the kidney tubules and limiting tubular reabsorption

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149
Q

How does osmotic diuresis work

A

Water is drawn into the glomerular filtrate, reducing its reabsorption and increasing the excretion of water

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150
Q

What can osmotic diuretic drugs be used to treat

A

Oliguric acute renal failure and to reduce intracranial pressure

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151
Q

What are the dosage forms of osmotic diuretics

A

Mannitol 20% and Glucose

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152
Q

What do thiazide diuretics do

A

Reduce edema by inhibiting reabsorption of sodium, chloride and water. Their duration is longer than loop diuretics

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153
Q

What are the adverse side effects of loop diuretics

A

Hypokalemia if therapy is prolonged. A potassium supplement may be necessary to prevent Hypokalemia

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154
Q

What is a potassium sparing diuretic

A

Weaker diuretic and antihypertensive effects than other diuretics but they have the ability to conserve potassium.

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155
Q

What are potassium diuretics also called

A

Aldosterone antagonists.

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156
Q

What does an aldosterone antagonist do

A

Enhances the excretion of sodium and water and reduces the excretion of potassium.

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157
Q

What is special about edema associated with heart failure

A

Aldosterone might be a factor

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158
Q

What type of muscle is the detrusor muscle

A

Smooth muscle

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159
Q

What type of muscle is the internal urinary sphincter

A

Smooth muscle

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160
Q

What type of muscle is the external urinary spinchter

A

Skeletal muscle

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161
Q

What are the clinical uses of cholinergics

A

Used to help void the urinary bladder. Their action increases the tone of the detrusor muscle of the bladder and decreases bladder capacity

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162
Q

What is the dosage form of cholinergic agents

A

Bethanechol (urecholine and duvoid)

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163
Q

In what clinical situations would you use cholinergic agents

A

Weakened bladder muscle from over distension due to a urinary blockage. Spinal cord injury

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164
Q

Why do you use anticholinergic drugs

A

They block the action of acetylcholine at receptor sites in the parasympathetic nervous system.

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165
Q

What are anticholinergic drugs considered

A

Parasympatholytic because of their ability to block the passage of impulses through the parasympathetic nerves. Promotes muscle relaxation.

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166
Q

What is the clinical use of anticholinergic a

A

Used to treat urge incontinence by promoting the retention of urine in the urinary bladder.

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167
Q

What are the dosage forms of anticholinergic drugs

A

PropanthelineBuscopan

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168
Q

What are the Thiazide diuretics

A

DiurilHydrodiuril

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169
Q

What is the dosage form of potassium sparing diuretics

A

Aldactone

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170
Q

What does alpha adrenergic agonists do

A

Turn up the volume dial on the hold it message from the high neurologic areas. Increases internal spinchter tone

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171
Q

What medication Is used as an Adrenergic agonist

A

Phenylpropanolamine

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172
Q

What do adrenergic antagonists do

A

Relax vascular smooth muscle, enhance peripheral vasodilation and decrease blood pressure.

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173
Q

What is the clinical use of adrenergic antagonists

A

Reduce internal sphincter tone when the urethral sphincter is in hypertonus. This action is useful in treatment of urinary retention because of detrusor areflexia

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174
Q

What is detrusor areflexia

A

Functional urethral obstruction

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175
Q

What is prazosin used for

A

Effective in controlling moderate to severe hypertension which is a complicating factor in chronic renal failure

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176
Q

What are the dosage forms of adrenergic antagonists

A

DibenzylineMinipress

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177
Q

What are the adverse side effects of adrenergic antagonists

A

Rapid decrease in blood pressure, resulting in weakness or syncope after the first dose of prazosin. Usually self limiting.

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178
Q

What do beta adrenergic antagonists do

A

Inhibit the action of catecholamines and other sympathomimetic agents at the beta adrenergic receptor sites and therby inhibit stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

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179
Q

What are the clinical uses of beta adrenergic antagonists

A

Include the control of mild to moderate hypertension associated with chronic renal failure

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180
Q

What is the dosage form of beta adrenergic antagonists

A

Inderal

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181
Q

What are the adverse side effects

A

Decreased Cardiac output and promotion of bronchospasm.

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182
Q

What is estrogen used for

A

Helps to increase sphincter tone

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183
Q

What is the dosage form of estrogen

A

Stillbesterol

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184
Q

What is the typical dosaging regime of estrogen

A

1 tablet sid for 5 days, then once weekly for 5 weeks than as needed

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185
Q

What do ace inhibitors do

A

Block the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2Decrease aldosterone secretion. Reduce peripheral arterial resistance Alleviate vasoconstriction.

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186
Q

What is the clinical use of ace inhibitors

A

Treat hypertension

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187
Q

What are the dosage forms of ace inhibitors

A

Benazepril (fortekor)CapotenEnacard

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188
Q

What is a vasodilator

A

May be substituted for or used in combination with other medications if previous drug therapy to control hypertension fails.

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189
Q

What are the clinical uses of vasodilator a

A

Used to treat non responding hypertension. Dopamine may be used to promote diuresis in patients unresponsive to loop or osmotic diuretics.

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190
Q

What are the dosage forms of vasodilator a

A

ApresolineIntropin

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191
Q

What are the dosage forms of calcium channel blockers

A

CardizemIsoptinAmiodipine

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192
Q

What does the adh hormone do

A

Regulates fluid balance in the body

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193
Q

In pituitary diabetes inspitidus what happens

A

The hormone fails to be synthesized or excreted properly and Polyuria/polydipsia occurs.

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194
Q

What are the clinical uses of adh hormone

A

Used to treat diabetes insipidus

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195
Q

What is the dosage form of adh

A

VasopressinDesmopressin

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196
Q

What is Desmopressin

A

Usually given as an eye drop and a nasal spray. Can cause irritation to the eye or conjunctiva.

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197
Q

What is Desmopressin used for during surgery

A

Type 1 Von willebrand’s disease

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198
Q

What is a urinary acidifier

A

Used to produce acid urine which assists in dissolving and preventing formation of struvites uroliths. Not Routinely prescribed

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199
Q

What are the dosage forms of urinary acidifiers

A

MethionineAmmonium chloride

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200
Q

What do xanthine oxidase inhibitors do

A

Decrease the production of uric acid. Prevent ammonium acid urate uroliths.

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201
Q

What type of diet is usually prescribed to prevent reoccurance of uroliths

A

A urine alkalizing, low protein, low purine, low oxalate diet.

202
Q

What is the dosage form of xanthine oxidase inhibitors

A

Allopurinol

203
Q

What is the dosage form of urinary alkalizer a

A

Potassium citrateSodium bicarbonate Tiopronin tablets

204
Q

What are the adverse side effects of the urinary alkalizer a

A

Fluid and electrolyte imbalance with the use of sodium bicarbonate

205
Q

What is the adverse side effects of epo

A

Local or systemic allergic reaction in animals and pain occurring at injection site.

206
Q

What is amitriptyline

A

A tricyclic antidepressant and anxiolytic drug with anticholinergic, antihistamine etc properties.

207
Q

What is amtriptyline used for

A

Idiopathic cystitis for cats

208
Q

Why do glycosaminoglycans do

A

Covering the transitional epithelium of the urinary tract.

209
Q

What is epakitin

A

Chitosen based nutritional supplement made from a polysaccharide from crab and shrimp shells

210
Q

What where the clinical uses of epakitin

A

Product information states that epakitin binds phosphorus in the intestine causing phosphorus to be eliminated through the intestinal tract.

211
Q

What is azodyl

A

Symbiotic mix containing a patented mixture of three beneficial bacteria. It’s a nitrogen trap. Reduces Azotemia.

212
Q

What are the first signs of renal insufficiency

A

Inappetence, pu/pd, proteinuria,

213
Q

What is renal insufficiency

A

66% or more nephrons lost. Can no longer concentrate urine but can get rid of waste.

214
Q

What is renal failure

A

75% or more nephrons lost

215
Q

What is renal failure caused by

A

Accumulation of waste products (bun/creatine).

216
Q

What is a specific clinical sign of kidney failure

A

Small lumpy kidneys

217
Q

What is advanced renal failure

A

90% or more nephrons lost.

218
Q

What are the clinical signs of advanced renal failure

A

Uremia, weight loss, vomiting, anorexia

219
Q

Diet for renal failure

A

Low protein, high fats, high b vitamins, low sodium, high potassium low phosphates

220
Q

What are the drug treatments for chronic renal failure

A

Fluids Anti GI ulcer drugs (famotidine)Antiemetics (cerenia)Potassium Anti hypertensive drugs Appetite stimulant Phosphate binders (amphojel)Erythropoetin if anemic

221
Q

A cholinergic blocker is a drug that blocks the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors of the _________ nervous system

A

Parasympathetic

222
Q

What is a common anticholinergic agent used in vet medicine

A

Atropine

223
Q

What happens when atropine is used in eyedrops

A

It causes the pupils to dilate

224
Q

Why is atropine used as a preanesthetic

A

To protect the heart from bradycardia

225
Q

Propranolol is an example of what category of drugs

A

Beta blocker

226
Q

What is the adrenergic receptor that is located in the heart. They increase the heart rate, strength of contraction. Propanol is an example

A

Beta 1

227
Q

What type of adrenergic receptor causes smooth muscle surrounding blood vessels in the skin to constrict. Acepromazine blocks it

A

Alpha 1

228
Q

What adrenergic receptors are located on the ends of adrenergic neurons, where they help regulate the release of norepinephrine. Dormitor is an agonist.

A

Alpha 2

229
Q

What adrenergic receptor when stimulated they cause Bronchodilation. Ventolin is an agonist

A

Beta 2

230
Q

Where will atropine and glycopyrolate have their effect

A

Muscarinic receptor

231
Q

What part of the autonomic nervous system is associated with fight or flight

A

Sympathetic

232
Q

What neurotransmitter is associated with fight or flight

A

Norepinephrine

233
Q

What neurotransmitter is for cholinergic sites

A

Acetylcholine

234
Q

What is the class of the drug

A

NSAID

235
Q

What Are two other drugs that are also in this class

A

Metacam

236
Q

What are the two client recommendations that go with this drug

A

Give with a meal Discontinue use if animal is vomiting or has diarrhea

237
Q

True or false: the above class of drugs should be able to provide enough analgesia to allow an animal with a broken leg to be positioned for a radiograph of the leg without using anesthesia

A

False

238
Q

True or false: cox 1 maintains physiologic functions such as modulation of renal blood flow and synthesis of gastric mucosa

A

True

239
Q

What are three different classes of drugs that are used as a pre anesthetic

A

NSAID, opiate and tranquilizers

240
Q

What is the reason for using an nsaid

A

Good anti inflammatory which ultimately helps to reduce pain. Less inflammation is less pain

241
Q

What is an opiate

A

Helps to stop the body from receiving pain. It stops pain before it even starts.

242
Q

What is a tranquilizer used for

A

Works well in conjunction with opiates. Calms animal which makes the knocking down process easier.

243
Q

Where are enteral drugs are administered

A

Rectally and orally

244
Q

What can pharmacokinetics be defined as

A

The method of absorption, metabolism, and excretion of a drug by the body

245
Q

What can pharmacodynamics be defined by

A

The method by which the function of the living body is affected by the drug

246
Q

What can therapeutic dose be defined by

A

The method by which the drug has the desired effect with minimal toxicity

247
Q

Most excretion of drugs occurs via the

A

Liver bile and kidneys

248
Q

WhEre does most biotransformation of drugs occurs in

A

The liver

249
Q

Describe 3 aspects of the veterinarian client patient relationships for rx

A

☺️Veterinarian must be available for a follow up appointment ☺️Veterinarian must have seen the animal within a year and know about its medical history ☺️Veterinarian must make a decision for treatment based on the specific symptoms

250
Q

Why are certain prescription drugs are also control drugs

A

They’re drugs that have the potential for human abuse

251
Q

State two parenteral methods to administer medication

A

Iv im

252
Q

Use pharmacokinetics to explain why the oral amoxil is ineffective at treating otitis externa

A

It is ineffective because it does not reach the outer ear, it goes into the bloodstream and there is no real major blood supply to the outer ear so it is excreted out instead of going into the ear to treat the bacteria.

253
Q

What drug is an alpha 2 agonist

A

Decided dormitor

254
Q

What drug is an alpha 1 antagonist

A

Acepromazine

255
Q

What drug is a beta blocker

A

Propanolol

256
Q

What drug is a beta 2 agonist

A

Ventolin

257
Q

What drug is a benzodiazepine tranquilizer

A

Valium

258
Q

What drug is a phenothiazine tranquilizer

A

Acepromazine

259
Q

What drug is an anticholinergic

A

Atropine

260
Q

What drug is the reversal agent for dormitor

A

Antisedan

261
Q

What drug is a long acting barbiturate

A

Phenobarbital

262
Q

Where are barbiturates metabolized by

A

Liver

263
Q

What is a side effect of barbiturates

A

They are potent depressors of the respiratory system

264
Q

What drug is used to stimulate breathing if a dog stops breathing

A

Dopram or doxapram

265
Q

If a dog is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction, what emergency drug will be used

A

Epinephrine

266
Q

What is apo morphine used for

A

To induce vomiting in dogs

267
Q

What is neuroleptanalgesia

A

Tranquilizer and narcotic

268
Q

What are two common drugs used to control or prevent seizures in dogs

A

Phenobarbital and kBr

269
Q

Name a drug that is very useful in seizures but has too short of a half life to prevent them

A

Diazepam

270
Q

Give an example where clomipramine is used for in cats and dogs

A

For animals with aggression

271
Q

What is Naloxone used for in vet medicine

A

It is an opiate reversal agent

272
Q

How can addisons develop after being on corticosteroids

A

If the adrenal cortex is not being used as frequently due to negative feedback then it will shrink and be unable to produce acth

273
Q

What are two precautions to take to prevent the development of addisons

A

Wean off of dosage until you’re at lowest possible dose that works. Take it every other day so that the AC won’t shrink.

274
Q

Name two organs possibly damaged by rimadyl

A

Liver and kidney

275
Q

Using pharmacokinetics explain why fentanyl is administered as a patch rather than an oral med

A

It has a very short half life as a pill and is metabolized by the liver too quickly and it doesn’t have the 24hr to reach the stable state and is instead excreted in the urine

276
Q

How long does a fentanyl patch last

A

72hr

277
Q

What are short term effects of corticosteroid use

A

Polyphagia

278
Q

What are long term effects of corticosteroid use

A

Delayed healing

279
Q

What is the classification of trimeprazine tartrate

A

Antihistamine

280
Q

What is the classification of prednisolone

A

Cortisone.

281
Q

Name a beta lactamase inhibitor

A

Clavamox

282
Q

In what class of antibiotic drugs are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects

A

Aminoglycosides

283
Q

What medication is used to treat pasturella infection in rabbits and requires you to use gloves Because it causes aplastic anemia and blood dyscrasia

A

Chloramphenicol

284
Q

Baytril, zeniquin and Orbax all belong to which group of antibiotics

A

Fluoroquinolones

285
Q

What is a side effect of baytril being dosed in cats at a higher dosing schedule

A

Retinal damage

286
Q

What is the clAss of antibiotics most commonly prescribed to treat mycoplasma or lymes is

A

Tetracyclines

287
Q

What is the pharmacodynamics of penicillin

A

Destroys the cell wall

288
Q

What does griseofulvin act on

A

Dermatophytes

289
Q

Butorphanol is an opioid that is often used for analgesic properties but it also used in other clinical scenarios as

A

An antitissutive agent

290
Q

Aminophylline and theophylline are ________ derivatives

A

Methylxanthine

291
Q

What are expectorants

A

Drugs that liquify and dilute the viscus secretions of the respiratory tract, thereby helping to evacuate those secretions

292
Q

Name a disease in cats were acyclovir would be used

A

Rhinovirus

293
Q

In what diseases would interferon be used

A

Fiv, felv

294
Q

Pseudoephedrine, ephedrine and phenyleprine are examples of what

A

Decongestants

295
Q

Name a cholinergic blocker that dries up bronchial secretions and causes Bronchodilation

A

Antihistamine

296
Q

Name a beta 2 adrenergic agent that causes Bronchodilation

A

Ventolin

297
Q

Name the toxic ingredient in chocolate

A

Theobromine

298
Q

What is igr

A

Insect growth regulator

299
Q

What is praziquantel used for

A

Tapeworms

300
Q

Ivermectin and moxidectin are part of which class

A

Avermectins

301
Q

Identify which of the 4 is not a monthly heartworm preventative.Milbemycin oximeSelamactinHeart guard plusDiethylcarbamazine

A

Diethylcarbamazine

302
Q

What is a topical solution that controls roundworms, hookworms, tapeworms

A

Profender

303
Q

Praziquantel is the active ingredient found in what medication

A

Droncit

304
Q

An organophosphate is a substance that can interfere with the function of the nervous system by inhibiting which enzyme

A

Cholinesterase

305
Q

What dog breed is most susceptible to ivermectin toxicosis

A

Collie

306
Q

T/F: heartworm disease can be acquired from a blood transfusion taken from a heartworm positive dog that has circulating microfilariae.

A

False

307
Q

What is the name of the product that is an oral flea adulticide that causes rapid death of fleas

A

Cap star

308
Q

What is the antidote for organophosphate toxicity

A

Atropine

309
Q

List two monthly heartworm preventative but not fleas

A

Heart guard and interceptor

310
Q

List two monthly flea only preventatives

A

Advantage, program

311
Q

List 3 monthly heartworm and flea preventatives

A

Revolution, advantage multi and trifexis

312
Q

List one oral flea and tick preventative

A

Bravecto

313
Q

How is sentinel different than interceptor

A

Different active ingredients

314
Q

How is capstar excreted

A

Unchanged in the urine. 1 day- dogs 2 days- cats

315
Q

Explain to an owner how they should administer lopatol

A

Fast dog, give it to him in the morning with adequate water and 1/4 food. Give rest of food at dinner time

316
Q

A 6 week 1lb kitten was given 2 tablets of milbemax- how concerned are you ?

A

I am, it’s a 16x overdose.

317
Q

How much ivermectin per kg will a 5kg dog receive

A

13ug/kg

318
Q

For revolution, what is the difference in concentration of the drug between the cat and dog products

A

The dog concentration is 2x the cat concentration

319
Q

In which case would trifexis be contraindicated

A

In dogs with a history of epilepsy or seizures

320
Q

How much fenbendazole is in 5g of panacur?

A

1110 mg

321
Q

How many tablets of pyran 35 would a 7kg cat get

A

4 tablets

322
Q

How many ml of strongid T to deworm a 25kg dog

A

2.5ml

323
Q

What is a faster than normal heart rate

A

Tachycardia

324
Q

When situations cause spontaneous depolarization of cardiac muscle or abnormalities of the conduction system what might occur

A

Arrhythmia

325
Q

CHF chronic congestive heart failure or results when the pumping ability of the heart is impaired to the extent that sodium and water are retained in an effort to compensate for inadequate cardiac output. It is associated with all of the following: exercise intolerance, ascites, pulmonary edema, diaphragmatic hernia except……….

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

326
Q

What is digitalis. It is obtained from the dried leaves of the plant digitalis purpurea.

A

Cardiac glycoside

327
Q

True or false: gloves do not have to be worn when applying nitroglycerin

A

False

328
Q

What can Furosemide cause in patients

A

Hypokalemia

329
Q

Name a common Ionatropic cardiac medicine prescribed for congestive heart failure

A

Vetmedin

330
Q

Name a common ace inhibitor are used in the veterinary medicine

A

Fortekor

331
Q

Name a drug that will be given to Jack to treat or help manage pulmonary edema

A

Lasix

332
Q

By which route would lasix be given in order for it to be in Jack’s system within 10 to 20 minutes

A

Intramuscular

333
Q

Name a drug that can be given to Jack to help manage his general anxiety because of not being able to breathe

A

Morphine

334
Q

What two active hormones are produced by the thyroid gland

A

T3 and T4

335
Q

What is the concentration of Caninsulin

A

U40

336
Q

How do you resuspend insulin

A

Rolling tube in hands. Don’t shake it

337
Q

Name the structures of the pancreas that produces insulin

A

Islets of langerhans or beta cells

338
Q

When and how should the owner feed the cat

A

Feed 2x per day small portion of intake in the morning and night

339
Q

When should the owner give Caninsulin

A

Morning and night

340
Q

Describe how the owner should inject the Caninsulin

A

Sub cutaneously on alternate sides

341
Q

What medical condition does topazole (methimazole) treat

A

Hyperthyroid

342
Q

Name two treatments other than topazole for hyperthyroid

A

Radioactive iodine and surgical removal of adenoma

343
Q

Estrogen in the form of diethylstilbestrol can be use to treat what problem in the dog

A

Urinary incontinence

344
Q

If you draw up 20 U with a U 40 syringe- how many mls have you drawn up

A

0.5 ml

345
Q

Why does pain sensation arise

A

Nerve endings may be activated through mechanical, thermal, chemical stimulation

346
Q

in which free nerve endings do pain sensations arise

A

Nociceptors

347
Q

Where are nociceptors located

A

Skin, joints, blood vessel walls, periosteum, hollow organs, parietal surfaces of thorax and abdomen

348
Q

What is superficial pain

A

Paid that arises in subcutaneous tissue.

349
Q

What is deep pain

A

Associated with skeletal muscles, tendons, bones, joints. Visceral pain

350
Q

Why can pain be harmful

A

Because it leads to stress and related problems such as gastrointestinal lesions, immunosuppression, delayed healing, hypertension, potential dysrhythmias

351
Q

What is the first step in the pain pathway

A

Transduction or stimulation

352
Q

What is the second step in the pain pathway

A

Spinal cord transmission

353
Q

What is the third step in the pain pathway

A

Modulation

354
Q

What is the fourth step in the pain pathway

A

Perception of pain

355
Q

What are type C unmyelinated fibers responsible for

A

Dull, poorly localized pain in humans

356
Q

What are type a Delta fibers responsible for

A

Sharp, localized pain

357
Q

Where do type a and type C fibers carry impulses to

A

To the dorsal horn of the spinal cord

358
Q

What are the responses to pain

A

Increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate, mydriasis, salvation, vocalization, changes in facial expression, guarding of the painful site, restlessness, unresponsiveness, failure to groom, abnormal gait, abnormal stands, rolling

359
Q

How is the perception of pain enhanced

A

Hyperalgesia and central sensitization.

360
Q

What is central sensitization

A

The idea that pain control is enhanced if analgesia is given before pain is generated. It is a preemptive pain medication

361
Q

What are analgesics

A

Drugs used to control pain include NSAIDs and narcotics.

362
Q

What are the bodies own opiate like analgesics

A

Endorphins

363
Q

How can you pharmacologically intervene with pain

A

By targeting a single or multiple points of the pain process

364
Q

What can transduction be inhibited by

A

Opioids and nsaids

365
Q

What can transmission of nerve impulses be inhibited by

A

Local anesthetics and alpha 2 agonists

366
Q

How can you modulate pain impulses in the spinal cord

A

Through the effects of local anesthetic, opioids, Alpha 2 agonists, tricyclic antidepressant, nsaid, anticonvulsant

367
Q

How can pain perception in the cortex be inhibited

A

By use of anesthetic, opioid, benzodiazepine and alpha 2 agonist

368
Q

What does damage to cells result in

A

Release of several chemical mediators that may initiate or prolong the inflammatory response

369
Q

What are the chemical mediators of inflammation

A

Prostaglandins, leukotrienes, histamine, cytokines

370
Q

What do the mediators of inflammation do

A

Exacerbate a pain response

371
Q

What happens if you reduce inflammation

A

You reduce ️pain

372
Q

How do NSAIDs work

A

Inhibit an enzyme called cyclooxygenase. Cox. Two forms: Cox 1 and Cox 2 exist

373
Q

What is cox 1

A

Maintains physiologic functions such as modulation of renal bloodflow and synthesis of gastric mucosal

374
Q

What does cox 2 do

A

Promotes the formation of prostaglandins from cell membrane arachodonic acid.

375
Q

Which NSAIDs are less harsh: cox 1 or cox 2 inhibitors ?

A

Cox 2 inhibitors. Produce fewer gastrointestinal side effects

376
Q

What is the short term use of NSAIDs

A

Preoperative/preemptive pain control

377
Q

What is the long term use of NSAIDs

A

Older dogs with osteoarthritis

378
Q

What does cox 1 do with the stomach mucus

A

Plays an important role in causing the secretion of stomach protective mucus, maintaining blood supply to the stomach and decreasing acid production

379
Q

What does cox 1 do with the kidney

A

Cox 1 prostaglandins counteracted vasoconstriction and allowed vasodilation of the renal blood supply

380
Q

What are glucocorticoids

A

Exert their effects by blocking Phospholipase an enzyme necessary for the production of both prostaglandins and leukotrienes. Intervention is provided earlier in the sequence of the formation of inflammatory mediators. Because the inflammatory reaction is blocked earlier by glucocorticoids they are more effective anti inflammatory agents than NSAIDs

381
Q

What are the common side effects of NSAIDs

A

Most common side effects are gastrointestinal ulceration and bleeding. Other side effects may include hepatotoxicity, nephrotoxicity, inhibition of cartilage metabolism, bone marrow suppression, bleeding tendencies

382
Q

What should dogs and cats on prolonged and nsaid use have

A

Routine biochemistry done before the start of nsaids and every six months while on NSAIDs to check for liver and kidney function

383
Q

What are the precautions for nsaids

A

Do not give more than one type of nsaid at a time, prevent accidental ingestion, always give with food, stop if vomiting or diarrhea, always check if animal seems not well

384
Q

What does aspirin do

A

Causes ulcerations and bleeding out. Relief of mild to moderate pain caused by musculoskeletal conditions such as arthritis and hip dysplasia

385
Q

What is special about cats with aspirin

A

They’re highly susceptible to aspirin overdose because of their inability to metabolize it rapidly.

386
Q

What is phenylbutazone

A

Banamine. Anti-inflammatory medication for horses

387
Q

What is DMSO

A

It is an anti-inflammatory and has the ability to act as a carrier of other agents through the skin. It is not a nsaid.

388
Q

What is special about tylenol with cats

A

Cat lacks liver enzymes to metabolize the drug safely. Produces metabolites that are toxic to the liver

389
Q

What is carprofen

A

Propionic acid derivative nsaid that has been approved for oral use in dogs. Carprofen has been approved for oral and injectable use in dogs and cats.

390
Q

How long is the rimadyl-carprofen half life

A

8 hours.

391
Q

How does rimadyl work

A

By inhibiting cox 2 and doesn’t cause ulcers.

392
Q

What is the clinical use of rimadyl

A

Relief of pain associate.d with degenerative joint disease and postoperative pain resulting from soft tissue or orthopaedic repair.

393
Q

What is the dosage form of rimadyl

A

Available in tablets etc

394
Q

What are the adverse side effects of carprofen

A

Side effects such as gastrointestinal ulceration and bleeding are apparently rare with this agent

395
Q

What does ibuprofen cause

A

Ulcers and gastric bleeding

396
Q

What is deramax

A

An analgesic and a nsaid against the coxib. Control of pain and inflammation

397
Q

What is previcox

A

NSAID that belongs to coxib class. Used for the treatment of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis

398
Q

What is metacam

A

Cox 2 receptor nsaid. It has aninflammatory, analgesia and antipyretic. Used to control pain associated with surgical procedures and arthritis t

399
Q

What are the adverse side effects of metacam

A

Similar to other NSAIDs

400
Q

Decreased function of what organ would have the greatest effect on biotransformation of most drugs

A

Liver

401
Q

The generic name for a drug is also called the

A

Proprietary name

402
Q

The percentage of the total dose that ultimately reaches the bloodstream is called what

A

Bioavailability

403
Q

What do cholinergic agents do

A

Slow heart rate, increase blood flow to intestinal tract, decreased diameter of bronchioles

404
Q

What is the dog steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is extremely toxic to cats

A

Acetominophen

405
Q

What are the most common adverse side effects of Aminoglycoside antimicrobial’s

A

Nephrotoxic an ototoxic

406
Q

What is a true statement regarding tetracyclines and bacterial resistance

A

Many bacteria are resistant to them

407
Q

To what other drug class is cephalosporin class closely related

A

Penicillins

408
Q

The use of Fluoroquinolones as anti-infective agent should be done with great caution and what type of animal

A

Cats

409
Q

What anti-infective drug should be avoided in all food producing animals

A

Chloramphenicol

410
Q

What organs are penicillins primary excreted by

A

Kidneys

411
Q

What is diazepam often administered in combination with

A

Ketamine

412
Q

What is the reversal for xylazine hydrochloride

A

Yohimbine

413
Q

What does griseofulvin act on

A

Antifungal

414
Q

Does Xylazine have analgesic properties ?

A

Yes it is a alpha-2 adrenergic agonist

415
Q

What is propofol

A

A painkiller given an incremental doses.

416
Q

What is butorphanol

A

Originally it was a cough suppressant

417
Q

Heart guard contains ivermectin which does what

A

Used to prevent heart worm infection

418
Q

What do Loop diuretics such as furosemide do

A

Can cause hypokalemia with chronic use. Potassium supplements are often administered

419
Q

What are pain receptors called

A

Nociceptors

420
Q

What opioid is an agonist/ antagonist

A

Butorphanol

421
Q

What does acepromazine Maleate cause

A

Hypotension. It has the effect of vasodilation

422
Q

What is the ratio between the toxic dose in the therapeutic dose of the drug used as a measure of the relative safety of the drug for particular treatment

A

Therapeutic index

423
Q

What Is not a short-term effect of corticosteroid therapy. Polyuria, polyphagia, delayed healing, osteoporosis

A

Osteoporosis is a long term effect

424
Q

What is a common side effect of antihistamine drugs such as diphenhydramine

A

Sedation.

425
Q

Where are H2 receptors found

A

In the gastric mucosa

426
Q

Theo barbiturates should be administered with great care or not at all to? collies, greyhounds Colorado Weilers, spaniels.

A

Greyhounds. Due to low body fat. Will remain in the circulation at a high concentration

427
Q

Puppies born via cesarean section that are not breathing well may benefit from what type of drops administered sublingually

A

Doxapram drops

428
Q

What are intradermal injections primarily used for

A

Allergy testing

429
Q

Most biotransformation of drugs occurs where

A

Deliver

430
Q

What type of administration are elixirs used for

A

Oral administration

431
Q

What type of administration are solutions used for

A

Iv

432
Q

What does it mean when a drug has a narrow therapeutic range

A

The difference between the therapeutic dose of the potentially toxic dose is very small

433
Q

What is the example of an antibiotic that is considered to be a Beta lactamase inhibitor

A

CLavamox

434
Q

In what class of antibiotic drugs are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects

A

Aminoglycoside

435
Q

What antibiotic is used for a rabbit with Pastorella. Causes a plastic anemia and humans

A

Chloramphenicol

436
Q

What does anaphylaxis refer to

A

A severe, life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction

437
Q

What is a side effect of tetracycline and young animals

A

Can cause bone or teeth problems

438
Q

Antimicrobial drugs like baytril, Zeniquin, or Orbax all belong to which group of antibiotics

A

Fluoroquinolones

439
Q

What type of drug would be most helpful for a patient with a productive cough

A

And expectorant.

440
Q

Anticoagulant diluted in Celine for injection to form a flush solution for preventing blood clots in intravenous catheter is is

A

Heparin

441
Q

What diuretic drug is used most commonly in patients with congestive heart failure or

A

Furosemide

442
Q

What does epinephrine do

A

Increases heart rate

443
Q

What is the most common side effect of drugs that cause vasodilation

A

Hypotension

444
Q

Which drug is used for cardiac arrest

A

Epinephrine

445
Q

If a dog eats warfarin based rat poison what is the treatment

A

Vitamin K

446
Q

Chronic use of moderate to high doses of glucocorticoids may result of the development of what

A

Cushing’s disease

447
Q

What are glucocorticoids used for

A

Allergies, Musculoskeletal problems, immune mediated disease

448
Q

What is the most common side effect of nsaid use

A

Gastrointestinal ulceration

449
Q

What precautions should you take when applying dmso to an animals skin

A

Wear latex gloves to prevent skin to skin contact

450
Q

All of the following drugs are controlled substances except for one… Propofol, diazepam, ketamine, oxymorphone

A

Propofol

451
Q

What drug is in the same clSs as thiopental

A

Phenobarbital

452
Q

An opioid analgesic often used in transdermal patches to control post surgical pain

A

Fentanyl

453
Q

What drug can be administered rectally during a seizure

A

Diazepam

454
Q

If a sedated patient has a slow hr, which drug would you expect would be administered

A

Dormitor

455
Q

All the drugs are antagonists except for : yohimbine, detomidine, atipamezole, Naloxone

A

Detomidine

456
Q

Oreo was given morphine so what are some normal side effects

A

Hypersensitive to sounds, Oreo might vomit and defecate, more comfortable recovering in a dark room

457
Q

Norepinephrine, epinephrine and dopamine are the primary neurotransmitters for what

A

Sympathetic nervous system

458
Q

What is the active ingredient in euthanasia solutions

A

Pentobarbital

459
Q

Can you keep Propofol for tomorrow

A

No because bacteria will grow in it and produce endotoxins

460
Q

If a cat has eyes wide open and unblinking and limbs stiffly distended what sedative did he get

A

Ketamine

461
Q

In what animals should Acepromazine be avoided

A

In epileptic patients

462
Q

What behavioural drug group that may be used to stimulate Appetite in cats

A

Benzodiazepines

463
Q

What tricyclic antidepressant is now approved for use in dogs and cats to control seperation anxiety

A

Clomicalm

464
Q

What does phenylpropanolamine do

A

It treats incontinence by increasing urethral sphincter tone

465
Q

What does a 1:1000 concentration represent in percent

A

.1%

466
Q

What is epinephrine used for

A

Anaphylactic shock

467
Q

Why would you use lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic to remove a pea size wart from a dog’s paw

A

Because it causes vasoconstriction

468
Q

What is the classification of Benadryl

A

Antihistamine

469
Q

What are three separate antibiotic classes

A

Penicillin, cephalosporin, beta-lactamase inhibitor

470
Q

What is the classification of antirobe

A

Lincosamide

471
Q

What is the classification of clavaseptin

A

Beta-lactamase inhibitor

472
Q

What is the classification for Zeniquin

A

Fluroquinolone

473
Q

What is the classification for Amoxil

A

Penicillin

474
Q

What is the classification for baytril

A

Fluroquinolone

475
Q

What is the classification for apo-doxy tabs

A

Tetracycline

476
Q

What is the classification for novo lexin

A

Cephalosporin

477
Q

What is the classification for S1 25

A

Sulfonamide

478
Q

What is the classification for tylosin

A

Macrolide

479
Q

What is the general classification for atropine and glycopyrrolate

A

Anticholinergic

480
Q

Between atropine and glycopyrrolate which will have longer duration of action in the cat and what is the reason for that

A

Glycopyrrolate and it is due to no atropinase enzyme

481
Q

List two reasons why atropine and glycopyrrolate are used as preanesthetic’s

A

Prevent secretions and restore cardiac rate

482
Q

List three corticosteroids

A

Dexamethasone, prednisone, prednisolone

483
Q

Out of those three corticosteroids which would be used in an emergency anaphylactic reaction

A

Dexamethasone

484
Q

Which enteral product requires the liver to metabolize it to the active ingredient

A

Prednisone

485
Q

Which enteral product does not require the liver to metabolize it to the active ingredient

A

Prednisolone

486
Q

What is the classification for Rimadyl, Medicam, Tolfedine, deramax

A

Nsaid

487
Q

What is cartrophen

A

Polysulfate sodium

488
Q

What is triancinolone acetonide

A

Corticosteroid

489
Q

What is the classification for nystatin

A

Antifungal

490
Q

What is the classification for neomycin sulfate

A

Aminoglycosides

491
Q

What is the classification for gramicidin

A

Antibiotic

492
Q

What is the classification for miconazole nitrate

A

Antifungal

493
Q

What is the classification for polymyxin B

A

Antibiotic

494
Q

What is the classification for prednisolone acetate

A

Anti inflammatory

495
Q

What is the classification for thiostrepton

A

Antibiotic

496
Q

What is the classification for triamcinolone acetonide

A

Corticosteroid

497
Q

What is the classification for gentamicin

A

Antibiotic

498
Q

What is the classification for betamethasone

A

Glycorticoid (antiinflammatory)

499
Q

What is the classification of clotrimazole

A

Antifungal

500
Q

What is the classification for fusidic acid

A

Antibacterial

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