Pharmacology Flashcards
All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.
1
Q
What is a drug
A
A substance used to diagnose, prevent or treat disease.
2
Q
What are the drug indications
A
The specific disease or condition for which the drug product is approved
3
Q
What are the contraindications
A
The reasons why you shouldn’t use it. Ie: pregnancy
4
Q
What is xylotol used for
A
It is a sugar free solvent for many human drugs. Toxic to dogs
5
Q
What is the veterinarian-client-patient relationship for rx drugs
A
The veterinarian has assumed responsibility for making clinical judgement about the health of the animals and the need for treatment.
6
Q
What does the vet have to do for the animal to get medicine
A
The vet has sufficient knowledge of the animal to issue a diagnosis. Must have seen the animal recently and must be available for follow up evaluation of the patient
7
Q
What are the drug sources
A
Plants, minerals, animals, synthesized
8
Q
What does xylotol cause in dogs
A
Causes liver necrosis and hyperglycemia due to insulin release. Aka seizure and death.
9
Q
What are inactive ingredients
A
Classified as binders, coatings, colouring agents, disintegrates, emulsifiers, fillers, flavourings, flow agents, humectants, preservatives
10
Q
Describe prescription drugs
A
May have toxic effectsHas been approved for specific uses etcHas contraindications. Sometimes has extra label it off label use
11
Q
What is a drug regimen
A
Includes the dose, the route of administration, the frequency, the duration
12
Q
What is a dosage
A
The general principal
13
Q
What is a dose
A
The quantity of specific time
14
Q
What are the control drugs groups
A
Five schedules.. According to their potential for abuse. The schedule is designated with a C with a Roman numeral 1,2,3,4,5
15
Q
Describe schedule 1 drugs
A
Substances with no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. Heroin etc
16
Q
Describe schedule 2 drugs
A
Drugs have accepted medical uses but have a high potential for abuse. Codeine etc
17
Q
Describe schedule 3 drugs
A
Less potential for abuse
18
Q
Which drugs have to be kept in a locked cabinet
A
2-5
19
Q
What are the technician responsibility for all drugs
A
Make sure the correct drug is administeredAdminister by correct route Nd correct time Observe animals response to drugsQuestion unclear orders Put labels on containers Explain medicine instructions to clients Put into into medical record
20
Q
What are pharmacokinetics
A
Includes the stdy of mechanisms of absorption and distribution of the administered drugs.. The chemical changes of the substances in the metabolism and the effects and routes of excretion of the metabolites of the drug
21
Q
Where is a drug first absorbed/placed
A
Into the blood stream
22
Q
How can a drug move in the blood stream
A
May bind with a plasma protein or may exist in the free state
23
Q
Where does a drug go from the bloodstream
A
Distributes the drug to the capillary level
24
Q
Where does the drug go from the capillary level
A
Into the interstitial fluid. It enters the cell or binds with surface receptors
25
Where does the drug go from the cell
Exits the cell and moves back to the interstitial fluid, reenters the circulation and is transported to the liver for metabolism.
26
Where does the drug go after it is metabolized in the liver
The metabolite is transported to the kidneys for excretion
27
What are the routes of administration
OralParenteralInhalationTopical
28
What does pharmokinetics involve
Routes of administrationDrug absorptionDrug distributionBiotransformation (metabolism)Drug excretion
29
What does the therapeutic index tell you ?
Lethal Dose 50/ Effective dose 50Safe range for a drug.
30
What type of drugs does the kidney filter
Water soluble
31
What type of drugs does the liver excrete
Fat soluble, through the bile
32
Where else are drugs excreted from other than the kidney or liver
Mammary glands LungsIntestinal tractSweat gland Salivary glands Skin
33
What is pharmacodynamics
Study of the mechanism by which drugs produce physiologic changes in the body. How a drug works and it's mechanism of action
34
What is an antagonist
Blocker
35
What is an agonist
Activates the receptor
36
What is a partial agonist
Partially activates the receptor
37
What are the different types of drug interactions
Pharmacokinetic, pharmacodynamic, pharmaceutic
38
What is pharmacokinetic
How the drug moves through the body
39
What is a pharmacodynamic interaction
The action of one drug is altered by another. These reactions occur at the site of drug action.
40
What is an antagonistic interaction in terms of pharmacodynamic interaction
Ie: a reversal agent.
41
What is an additive action in terms of pharmacodynamic interaction
Ie: combining to produce two effects
42
What is synergistic interaction in terms of pharmacodynamic interactions
Helps to aid in an effect
43
What is pharmaceutic interaction
When physical or chemical changes take place as a result of mixing drugs in a syringe or other container
44
What is drug compounding
Combine two or more drugs to make something new etcDiluting a drug etc
45
What is the cba composed of
The brain and the spinal cord
46
What is the peripheral nervous system composed of
Everything else
47
What is the peripheral nervous system divided into
Afferent and efferent
48
What is the peripheral nervous system divided into
Somatic and autonomic nervous system
49
What is the autonomic nervous system composed of
Efferent nerve cells that carry info from the cns to cardiac muscle, glands and smooth muscle. Involuntary
50
What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system.
Sympathetic and parasympathetic.
51
How are nerve impulses transmitted
Sodium potassium pump.
52
What is a synapse
How one nerve cell communicates with another
53
What are the different types of receptors
Muscarinic, nicotonic and adrenergic
54
What are the 4 ways that drugs can effect neurotransmitters
Mimicking neurotransmitter Interfering with neurotransmitter release Blocking the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptorsInterferes with the breakdown of neurotransmitters
55
What are the neurotransmitters
AcetylcholineNorepinephrine DopamineSerotoninGABA
56
What are the two classes of autonomic nervous system agents
Cholinergic agent and adrenergic agent
57
What are the types of cholinergic agents
Direct acting cholinergics, indirect acting cholinergics anticholinesterase agent
58
With both classes of autonomic nervous system agents what are there
Blocking agents. Cholinergic blocking agent and adrenergic blocking agent
59
What do adrenergic agents act like in the body
Like the sympathetic nervous system i.e. epinephrine
60
What do cholinergic agents do
Aid in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis, reduce the inter-ocular pressure of glaucoma, stimulate G.I. motility, treat urinary retention, control vomiting, act as an antidote for neuromuscular blockers.
61
What are the direct acting cholinergics that are most important
BethanecholPilocarpineMetoclopramide
62
What does bethanechol do
Is used to treat GI and urinary tract atony
63
What does pilocarpine do?
Reduces intraocular pressure associated with glaucoma
64
What does metacopramide do
Metoclopramide is used to control vomiting and to promote gastric tract emptying
65
What is the most important indirect acting cholinergic agent
Organophosphate compounds that are commonly used in the insecticide dips and may result in toxicity if used inappropriately.
66
What are the adverse side effects of excessive cholinergic stimulation
Bradycardia, hypotension, heart block, lacrimation, diarrhea, vomiting, increased intestinal activity, intestinal rupture, increased bronchial secretions
67
What are cholinergic blocking agents
Drugs that block the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors of the sympathetic nervous system
68
What are the clinical uses of atropine and glycopyrrolate
Treatment of diarrhea and vomiting by decreasing G.I. motility, as a preanesthetic to dry secretions and prevent bradycardia, to dilute the pupils for ophthalmic examination, to relieve ciliary spasm of the eye, to treat sinus bradycardia
69
Why do we use atropine and glycopyrrolate as a preanesthetic
For sedation, decreased dose of prescription of anesthetic. prevents problems caused by other prescriptions, pain management
70
Describe atropine
Used as a pre-Anna static to dry secretions and to prevent bradycardia, as an antidote to organophosphate poisoning in, to dilute the pupils for ophthalmic examination, to control ciliary spasms of the eye, to treat sinus bradycardia, to slow a hypermotile gut
71
Whats the difference between atropine and glycopyrolate
It provides longer action than atropine and is used primarily as a preanesthetic. Doesn't result in a higher heart rate. Does not get degraded by atropinase
72
What are the adverse side effects of anticholinergics
Overdose can cause drowsiness, disorientation, tachycardia, photophobia, constipation, anxiety, burning at the injection site
73
What is the purpose of giving a pre-anesthetic
Sedate, decrease dose of drugs to administer, prevent problems caused by other drugs, pain management
74
Why is atropine not effective in rabbits and some cats
Because rabbits and cats have atropinase which destroys atropine
75
Will atropine or glycopyrrolate cause sedation ?
No
76
What do adrenergic agents do
Bring about action at receptors mediated by epinephrine or norepinephrine
77
What are the two things adrenergic agents may be classified as
Catecholamines or noncatecholamines.
78
How are adrenergic agents classified
They are also classified by receptor type activated
79
What are adrenergic agents used for
To stimulate the heart to beat during cardiac arrest, to reverse the hypotension and bronchoconstriction of anaphylactic shock, to strengthen the heart during congestive heart failure or, to correct hypotension through vasoconstriction, to reduce Cappellar he bleeding through vasoconstriction, to treat urinary incontinence, to reduce mucous membrane congestion in allergic conditions, to prolong the effects of local unaesthetic agents by causing Vasoconstriction of blood vessels at the injection site
80
Which receptors does epinephrine stimulate
Epinephrine stimulates all for receptors.
81
What are the effects of epinephrine in the body
To cause an increase in heart rate and cardiac output. Constriction of the blood vessels in the skin. Dilation of blood vessels and muscle. Dilation of the bronchioles. Increase in metabolic rate
82
What is phenylephrine used for
It is an alpha stimulator that is used as a nasal vasoconstrictior for kittens with rhino
83
What does phenylpropanolamine used for
Urinary incontence in dogs
84
What are beta agonists used for
Bronchodilation
85
What do tranquilizers do and give two examples of them
Tranquilizers such as Acepromazine and droperidol act as Alpha blockers and cause vasodilation
86
What is yohimbine used for
Yohimbine is used as an antidote for xylazine toxicity
87
What is atipamezole (antisedan) used for
It is a reversal agent for medetomidine (dormitor)
88
What do beta blockers do
Slow heart rate down
89
What are two types of beta blockers
Propranolol and atenolol
90
What are the types of adrenergic receptors
Alpha 1,2 and Beta 1,2
91
Where are beta 1 receptors located and what do they do
Beta-1 receptors are located in the heart. They increase the heart rate, the strength of contraction by the cardiac muscle.
92
What are beta-2 receptors and where are they found
Beta-2 receptors are found in smooth muscles surrounding blood vessels of the heart, skeletal muscles, arterioles, and the terminal bronchioles in the lungs. Beta-2 receptors cause vasodilation and dilation of the airways in the lungs a.k.a. bronchodilation
93
Where are the alpha-1 receptors and what do they do
The alpha-1 receptors cause smooth muscles surrounding blood vessels in the skin and intestinal track to contract which decreases blood flow. Vasoconstriction via the flight or fight response
94
What's special about acepromazine
It is a tranquilizer that has a side effect of causing hypotension. Causes vasodilation
95
Where are alpha 2 receptors located and what do they do
Alpha-2 receptors are located on the ends of adrenergic neurons where they help regulate the release of norepinephrine
96
What do alpha-2 agonist do
Located on the terminal Bhutto of norepinephrine secreted merlins they decrease norepinephrine release from the neuron both within the central nervous system as well as the peripheral nervous system
97
What is acepromazine used for
Sedation and to allay fear and anxiety without producing significant analgesia. Produce an antiemetic effect by depressing the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain. Have a mild Antipuritic effect. Reduce the tendency of epinephrine to induced cardiac arrhythmias
98
Why do we use Acepromazine as a pre-anesthetic
Because it calms the animal
99
What are the adverse affects to acepromazine
Can cause hypotension and hypothermia through their vasodilation a fact. They can also induce seizures in epileptic animals. Contraindicated in young, geriatric, sick animals.
100
What's special about Acepromazine
There is no reversal agent
101
What are some benzodiazepine derivatives
Valium, versed, Xanax
102
What is the mechanism of action of Valium
Causes depression of the thalamus and hypothalamic areas of the brain. Produces sedation, muscle relaxation, appetite stimulation, anticonvulsant activity. Often used in combination with ketamine to induce short-term Anesthesia. Diazepam is very useful for treating Seizures in progress but not preventative due to short half life
103
What is special about diazepam
Should be stored at room temperature and protected from light, should not be stored in plastic, should not be mixed with other medication, diazepam is metabolized by the liver and eliminated by the kidneys
104
What is xylazine? What are some side effects to xylazine? What reverses it?
Xylazine is a alpha 2 agonist with sedative and analGesic and muscle relaxant properties. This agent causes vomiting in a large percentage of cats. Xylazine is reversed by yohimbine
105
What is dormitor. What are some side effects of dormitor. What is the reversal agent for dormitor.
Dormitor is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used as a sedative and analgesic in dogs older than 12 weeks of age. Adverse side effects are bradycardia, decreased respiration, hypothermia, vomiting, hyperglycemia. Reversed by antisedan.
106
What are the three types of barbiturates. What are they used for. What are some common side effects
Long acting barbiturates, short acting barbiturates and ultra short acting barbiturates. They are used as sedatives, anticonvulsants, general anesthetic, euthanasia agent. They depress the respiratory system
107
What are long acting barbiturates. How long do they last for. What are they used for. What class of controlled substance are they
Phenobarbital is a long acting barbiturate. It lasts for 8 to 12 hours. Use as an anticonvulsant to prevent epileptic seizures. It is a class 4 controlled substance
108
What are short acting barbiturate. How long does the sedation last for. What is it used for. What class of controlled substance is it
Pentobarbital sodium provides 1 to 2 hours of general anesthesia. It is a euthanasia agent. It is a class 2 controlled substance
109
What are ultra short acting barbiturates. What is special about them
Thiobarbiturates. Must be given iv in order to avoid necrosis. Redistrubuted to the fat stores within 5-30 mins. Can cause apnea if administered too quickly and CNS excitement if done too slowly
110
What are the two types of Thiobarbiturates
Thiopental: general anestheticMethohexital: 5-10 min anesthesia for thin animals.
111
What are special instructions for barbiturates
Not for old young or critically ill animals, barbiturates depressed the respiratory system, cause tissue injury if out of the vein
112
What is ketamine considered. What does it do.
Ketamine is a disassociative agent. It causes involuntary muscle rigidity, amnesia and analgesia. laryngeal reflexes are maintained and muscle tone is increased.
113
Where are opioid receptors located
In the brain, spinal cord, digestive tract.
114
What are the four opioid receptors
Mu, Kappa, Sigma, Delta
115
Describe synthetic narcotics and their uses
Produce analgesia and sedation while reducing anxiety and fear. Narcotic effects are produced when they act on opiate receptors in the brain. Used as preanesthetic's or post anesthetics because of their sedative and analGesic properties. Sometimes used alone or in combination with tranquilizers.
116
List a few synthetic narcotic's
Demerol,Oxymorphone,TorbugesicFentanylHydrocodoneEtorphineLomotilApomorphineBuprenorphine
117
What is buprenorphine used for
It is a potent analGesic that is used in several small animal species. Good for mild to moderate pain. Provides longer duration of analgesia than other opioids
118
What are the opioid reversal agents
Naloxone
119
What is neuroleptanalgesia
Opioid combined with a tranquilizer. Used for sedation unrestrained to produce anesthesia
120
How does a kidney maintain homeostasis
Filtration, reabsorption, secretion. Fluid balance regulation. Acid-base balance regulation. Production of hormones-erythropoietin. Blood pressure regulation.
121
What is a nephron
Basic functional unit of kidneys
122
What does a nephron consist of
Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule
123
Describe the blood supply of the kidney
Renal artery enters the kidney at the hilus. Divides into smaller arteries and arterioles
124
What is the distal convoluted tubule
Continuation of the ascending loop of henle
125
What is the purpose of The distal convoluted tubule
Carrie tubular filtrate through the medulla. Empty into renal pelvis. Primary site of action of ADH and regulation of potassium an acid-base balance
126
Describe sodium reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule
Sodium in tubular filtrate attaches to carrier protein that moves it into the cytoplasm of the proximal convoluted tubule epithelial cell.
127
Describe sodium cotransport in the proximal convoluted tubule
Glucose and amino acids attach to the same carrier protein and follow sodium into the cell by passive transport.
128
Describe urine volume regulation in the kidney
Determined by amount of water contained in the tubular filtrate when it reaches the renal pelvis. Controlled by actions of ADH and aldosterone.
129
What gland created ADH hormone
Anterior pituitary gland
130
What does adh hormone do
Acts on the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts to promote reabsorption.
131
What disease do you have if you don't have the ADH hormone
Diabetes insipitus
132
what does aldosterone hormone trigger
Increases reabsorption of sodium
133
What are the reflex components of urine control
A spinal reflex returns a motor impulses to the bladder muscles causing them to contract. Contraction gives the sensation of having to urinate
134
What are the three aspects of urine formation
️Glomerular filtrationTubular reabsorptionTubular secretion
135
What is erythropoiesis
Formation of erythrocytes.
136
What is erythropoietin
A hormone secreted by the healthy kidneys to cause the formation of erythrocytes.
137
What happens if the kidney is not producing erythropoietin
Animal may develop a non-regenerative anemia as a result
138
How do you confirm uremia
Blood tests
139
What can uremia do
Increase the sensitivity of some tissues to certain drugs
140
What blood tests do you do for uremia
Creatinine and bun (blood urea nitrogen)
141
What are diuretic drugs
Urine producing drugs. Used to remove excess extracellular fluid by increasing urine flow and sodium excretion and reducing hypertension
142
What is extracellular fluid
Edema
143
What are the two main reasons for diuretic use
To remove fluid from organs and to reverse high blood pressure
144
What are loop diuretics
Highly potent diuretics that inhibit the tubular reabsorption of sodium. They also promote the excretion of chloride, potassium and water.
145
What can happen to some patients on long term loop diuretic therapy
May also have to be placed on potassium supplementation
146
What are the dosage forms of the loop diuretics
Furosemide (lasix, disal, diuride)
147
What are the adverse side effects of loop diuretics
Hypokalemia
148
What are osmotic diuretics
Can be administered intravenously to promote diuresis by exerting high osmotic pressure in the kidney tubules and limiting tubular reabsorption
149
How does osmotic diuresis work
Water is drawn into the glomerular filtrate, reducing its reabsorption and increasing the excretion of water
150
What can osmotic diuretic drugs be used to treat
Oliguric acute renal failure and to reduce intracranial pressure
151
What are the dosage forms of osmotic diuretics
Mannitol 20% and Glucose
152
What do thiazide diuretics do
Reduce edema by inhibiting reabsorption of sodium, chloride and water. Their duration is longer than loop diuretics
153
What are the adverse side effects of loop diuretics
Hypokalemia if therapy is prolonged. A potassium supplement may be necessary to prevent Hypokalemia
154
What is a potassium sparing diuretic
Weaker diuretic and antihypertensive effects than other diuretics but they have the ability to conserve potassium.
155
What are potassium diuretics also called
Aldosterone antagonists.
156
What does an aldosterone antagonist do
Enhances the excretion of sodium and water and reduces the excretion of potassium.
157
What is special about edema associated with heart failure
Aldosterone might be a factor
158
What type of muscle is the detrusor muscle
Smooth muscle
159
What type of muscle is the internal urinary sphincter
Smooth muscle
160
What type of muscle is the external urinary spinchter
Skeletal muscle
161
What are the clinical uses of cholinergics
Used to help void the urinary bladder. Their action increases the tone of the detrusor muscle of the bladder and decreases bladder capacity
162
What is the dosage form of cholinergic agents
Bethanechol (urecholine and duvoid)
163
In what clinical situations would you use cholinergic agents
Weakened bladder muscle from over distension due to a urinary blockage. Spinal cord injury
164
Why do you use anticholinergic drugs
They block the action of acetylcholine at receptor sites in the parasympathetic nervous system.
165
What are anticholinergic drugs considered
Parasympatholytic because of their ability to block the passage of impulses through the parasympathetic nerves. Promotes muscle relaxation.
166
What is the clinical use of anticholinergic a
Used to treat urge incontinence by promoting the retention of urine in the urinary bladder.
167
What are the dosage forms of anticholinergic drugs
PropanthelineBuscopan
168
What are the Thiazide diuretics
DiurilHydrodiuril
169
What is the dosage form of potassium sparing diuretics
Aldactone
170
What does alpha adrenergic agonists do
Turn up the volume dial on the hold it message from the high neurologic areas. Increases internal spinchter tone
171
What medication Is used as an Adrenergic agonist
Phenylpropanolamine
172
What do adrenergic antagonists do
Relax vascular smooth muscle, enhance peripheral vasodilation and decrease blood pressure.
173
What is the clinical use of adrenergic antagonists
Reduce internal sphincter tone when the urethral sphincter is in hypertonus. This action is useful in treatment of urinary retention because of detrusor areflexia
174
What is detrusor areflexia
Functional urethral obstruction
175
What is prazosin used for
Effective in controlling moderate to severe hypertension which is a complicating factor in chronic renal failure
176
What are the dosage forms of adrenergic antagonists
DibenzylineMinipress
177
What are the adverse side effects of adrenergic antagonists
Rapid decrease in blood pressure, resulting in weakness or syncope after the first dose of prazosin. Usually self limiting.
178
What do beta adrenergic antagonists do
Inhibit the action of catecholamines and other sympathomimetic agents at the beta adrenergic receptor sites and therby inhibit stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
179
What are the clinical uses of beta adrenergic antagonists
Include the control of mild to moderate hypertension associated with chronic renal failure
180
What is the dosage form of beta adrenergic antagonists
Inderal
181
What are the adverse side effects
Decreased Cardiac output and promotion of bronchospasm.
182
What is estrogen used for
Helps to increase sphincter tone
183
What is the dosage form of estrogen
Stillbesterol
184
What is the typical dosaging regime of estrogen
1 tablet sid for 5 days, then once weekly for 5 weeks than as needed
185
What do ace inhibitors do
Block the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2Decrease aldosterone secretion. Reduce peripheral arterial resistance Alleviate vasoconstriction.
186
What is the clinical use of ace inhibitors
Treat hypertension
187
What are the dosage forms of ace inhibitors
Benazepril (fortekor)CapotenEnacard
188
What is a vasodilator
May be substituted for or used in combination with other medications if previous drug therapy to control hypertension fails.
189
What are the clinical uses of vasodilator a
Used to treat non responding hypertension. Dopamine may be used to promote diuresis in patients unresponsive to loop or osmotic diuretics.
190
What are the dosage forms of vasodilator a
ApresolineIntropin
191
What are the dosage forms of calcium channel blockers
CardizemIsoptinAmiodipine
192
What does the adh hormone do
Regulates fluid balance in the body
193
In pituitary diabetes inspitidus what happens
The hormone fails to be synthesized or excreted properly and Polyuria/polydipsia occurs.
194
What are the clinical uses of adh hormone
Used to treat diabetes insipidus
195
What is the dosage form of adh
VasopressinDesmopressin
196
What is Desmopressin
Usually given as an eye drop and a nasal spray. Can cause irritation to the eye or conjunctiva.
197
What is Desmopressin used for during surgery
Type 1 Von willebrand's disease
198
What is a urinary acidifier
Used to produce acid urine which assists in dissolving and preventing formation of struvites uroliths. Not Routinely prescribed
199
What are the dosage forms of urinary acidifiers
MethionineAmmonium chloride
200
What do xanthine oxidase inhibitors do
Decrease the production of uric acid. Prevent ammonium acid urate uroliths.
201
What type of diet is usually prescribed to prevent reoccurance of uroliths
A urine alkalizing, low protein, low purine, low oxalate diet.
202
What is the dosage form of xanthine oxidase inhibitors
Allopurinol
203
What is the dosage form of urinary alkalizer a
Potassium citrateSodium bicarbonate Tiopronin tablets
204
What are the adverse side effects of the urinary alkalizer a
Fluid and electrolyte imbalance with the use of sodium bicarbonate
205
What is the adverse side effects of epo
Local or systemic allergic reaction in animals and pain occurring at injection site.
206
What is amitriptyline
A tricyclic antidepressant and anxiolytic drug with anticholinergic, antihistamine etc properties.
207
What is amtriptyline used for
Idiopathic cystitis for cats
208
Why do glycosaminoglycans do
Covering the transitional epithelium of the urinary tract.
209
What is epakitin
Chitosen based nutritional supplement made from a polysaccharide from crab and shrimp shells
210
What where the clinical uses of epakitin
Product information states that epakitin binds phosphorus in the intestine causing phosphorus to be eliminated through the intestinal tract.
211
What is azodyl
Symbiotic mix containing a patented mixture of three beneficial bacteria. It's a nitrogen trap. Reduces Azotemia.
212
What are the first signs of renal insufficiency
Inappetence, pu/pd, proteinuria,
213
What is renal insufficiency
66% or more nephrons lost. Can no longer concentrate urine but can get rid of waste.
214
What is renal failure
75% or more nephrons lost
215
What is renal failure caused by
Accumulation of waste products (bun/creatine).
216
What is a specific clinical sign of kidney failure
Small lumpy kidneys
217
What is advanced renal failure
90% or more nephrons lost.
218
What are the clinical signs of advanced renal failure
Uremia, weight loss, vomiting, anorexia
219
Diet for renal failure
Low protein, high fats, high b vitamins, low sodium, high potassium low phosphates
220
What are the drug treatments for chronic renal failure
Fluids Anti GI ulcer drugs (famotidine)Antiemetics (cerenia)Potassium Anti hypertensive drugs Appetite stimulant Phosphate binders (amphojel)Erythropoetin if anemic
221
A cholinergic blocker is a drug that blocks the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors of the _________ nervous system
Parasympathetic
222
What is a common anticholinergic agent used in vet medicine
Atropine
223
What happens when atropine is used in eyedrops
It causes the pupils to dilate
224
Why is atropine used as a preanesthetic
To protect the heart from bradycardia
225
Propranolol is an example of what category of drugs
Beta blocker
226
What is the adrenergic receptor that is located in the heart. They increase the heart rate, strength of contraction. Propanol is an example
Beta 1
227
What type of adrenergic receptor causes smooth muscle surrounding blood vessels in the skin to constrict. Acepromazine blocks it
Alpha 1
228
What adrenergic receptors are located on the ends of adrenergic neurons, where they help regulate the release of norepinephrine. Dormitor is an agonist.
Alpha 2
229
What adrenergic receptor when stimulated they cause Bronchodilation. Ventolin is an agonist
Beta 2
230
Where will atropine and glycopyrolate have their effect
Muscarinic receptor
231
What part of the autonomic nervous system is associated with fight or flight
Sympathetic
232
What neurotransmitter is associated with fight or flight
Norepinephrine
233
What neurotransmitter is for cholinergic sites
Acetylcholine
234
What is the class of the drug
NSAID
235
What Are two other drugs that are also in this class
Metacam
236
What are the two client recommendations that go with this drug
Give with a meal Discontinue use if animal is vomiting or has diarrhea
237
True or false: the above class of drugs should be able to provide enough analgesia to allow an animal with a broken leg to be positioned for a radiograph of the leg without using anesthesia
False
238
True or false: cox 1 maintains physiologic functions such as modulation of renal blood flow and synthesis of gastric mucosa
True
239
What are three different classes of drugs that are used as a pre anesthetic
NSAID, opiate and tranquilizers
240
What is the reason for using an nsaid
Good anti inflammatory which ultimately helps to reduce pain. Less inflammation is less pain
241
What is an opiate
Helps to stop the body from receiving pain. It stops pain before it even starts.
242
What is a tranquilizer used for
Works well in conjunction with opiates. Calms animal which makes the knocking down process easier.
243
Where are enteral drugs are administered
Rectally and orally
244
What can pharmacokinetics be defined as
The method of absorption, metabolism, and excretion of a drug by the body
245
What can pharmacodynamics be defined by
The method by which the function of the living body is affected by the drug
246
What can therapeutic dose be defined by
The method by which the drug has the desired effect with minimal toxicity
247
Most excretion of drugs occurs via the
Liver bile and kidneys
248
WhEre does most biotransformation of drugs occurs in
The liver
249
Describe 3 aspects of the veterinarian client patient relationships for rx
☺️Veterinarian must be available for a follow up appointment ☺️Veterinarian must have seen the animal within a year and know about its medical history ☺️Veterinarian must make a decision for treatment based on the specific symptoms
250
Why are certain prescription drugs are also control drugs
They're drugs that have the potential for human abuse
251
State two parenteral methods to administer medication
Iv im
252
Use pharmacokinetics to explain why the oral amoxil is ineffective at treating otitis externa
It is ineffective because it does not reach the outer ear, it goes into the bloodstream and there is no real major blood supply to the outer ear so it is excreted out instead of going into the ear to treat the bacteria.
253
What drug is an alpha 2 agonist
Decided dormitor
254
What drug is an alpha 1 antagonist
Acepromazine
255
What drug is a beta blocker
Propanolol
256
What drug is a beta 2 agonist
Ventolin
257
What drug is a benzodiazepine tranquilizer
Valium
258
What drug is a phenothiazine tranquilizer
Acepromazine
259
What drug is an anticholinergic
Atropine
260
What drug is the reversal agent for dormitor
Antisedan
261
What drug is a long acting barbiturate
Phenobarbital
262
Where are barbiturates metabolized by
Liver
263
What is a side effect of barbiturates
They are potent depressors of the respiratory system
264
What drug is used to stimulate breathing if a dog stops breathing
Dopram or doxapram
265
If a dog is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction, what emergency drug will be used
Epinephrine
266
What is apo morphine used for
To induce vomiting in dogs
267
What is neuroleptanalgesia
Tranquilizer and narcotic
268
What are two common drugs used to control or prevent seizures in dogs
Phenobarbital and kBr
269
Name a drug that is very useful in seizures but has too short of a half life to prevent them
Diazepam
270
Give an example where clomipramine is used for in cats and dogs
For animals with aggression
271
What is Naloxone used for in vet medicine
It is an opiate reversal agent
272
How can addisons develop after being on corticosteroids
If the adrenal cortex is not being used as frequently due to negative feedback then it will shrink and be unable to produce acth
273
What are two precautions to take to prevent the development of addisons
Wean off of dosage until you're at lowest possible dose that works. Take it every other day so that the AC won't shrink.
274
Name two organs possibly damaged by rimadyl
Liver and kidney
275
Using pharmacokinetics explain why fentanyl is administered as a patch rather than an oral med
It has a very short half life as a pill and is metabolized by the liver too quickly and it doesn't have the 24hr to reach the stable state and is instead excreted in the urine
276
How long does a fentanyl patch last
72hr
277
What are short term effects of corticosteroid use
Polyphagia
278
What are long term effects of corticosteroid use
Delayed healing
279
What is the classification of trimeprazine tartrate
Antihistamine
280
What is the classification of prednisolone
Cortisone.
281
Name a beta lactamase inhibitor
Clavamox
282
In what class of antibiotic drugs are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects
Aminoglycosides
283
What medication is used to treat pasturella infection in rabbits and requires you to use gloves Because it causes aplastic anemia and blood dyscrasia
Chloramphenicol
284
Baytril, zeniquin and Orbax all belong to which group of antibiotics
Fluoroquinolones
285
What is a side effect of baytril being dosed in cats at a higher dosing schedule
Retinal damage
286
What is the clAss of antibiotics most commonly prescribed to treat mycoplasma or lymes is
Tetracyclines
287
What is the pharmacodynamics of penicillin
Destroys the cell wall
288
What does griseofulvin act on
Dermatophytes
289
Butorphanol is an opioid that is often used for analgesic properties but it also used in other clinical scenarios as
An antitissutive agent
290
Aminophylline and theophylline are ________ derivatives
Methylxanthine
291
What are expectorants
Drugs that liquify and dilute the viscus secretions of the respiratory tract, thereby helping to evacuate those secretions
292
Name a disease in cats were acyclovir would be used
Rhinovirus
293
In what diseases would interferon be used
Fiv, felv
294
Pseudoephedrine, ephedrine and phenyleprine are examples of what
Decongestants
295
Name a cholinergic blocker that dries up bronchial secretions and causes Bronchodilation
Antihistamine
296
Name a beta 2 adrenergic agent that causes Bronchodilation
Ventolin
297
Name the toxic ingredient in chocolate
Theobromine
298
What is igr
Insect growth regulator
299
What is praziquantel used for
Tapeworms
300
Ivermectin and moxidectin are part of which class
Avermectins
301
Identify which of the 4 is not a monthly heartworm preventative.Milbemycin oximeSelamactinHeart guard plusDiethylcarbamazine
Diethylcarbamazine
302
What is a topical solution that controls roundworms, hookworms, tapeworms
Profender
303
Praziquantel is the active ingredient found in what medication
Droncit
304
An organophosphate is a substance that can interfere with the function of the nervous system by inhibiting which enzyme
Cholinesterase
305
What dog breed is most susceptible to ivermectin toxicosis
Collie
306
T/F: heartworm disease can be acquired from a blood transfusion taken from a heartworm positive dog that has circulating microfilariae.
False
307
What is the name of the product that is an oral flea adulticide that causes rapid death of fleas
Cap star
308
What is the antidote for organophosphate toxicity
Atropine
309
List two monthly heartworm preventative but not fleas
Heart guard and interceptor
310
List two monthly flea only preventatives
Advantage, program
311
List 3 monthly heartworm and flea preventatives
Revolution, advantage multi and trifexis
312
List one oral flea and tick preventative
Bravecto
313
How is sentinel different than interceptor
Different active ingredients
314
How is capstar excreted
Unchanged in the urine. 1 day- dogs 2 days- cats
315
Explain to an owner how they should administer lopatol
Fast dog, give it to him in the morning with adequate water and 1/4 food. Give rest of food at dinner time
316
A 6 week 1lb kitten was given 2 tablets of milbemax- how concerned are you ?
I am, it's a 16x overdose.
317
How much ivermectin per kg will a 5kg dog receive
13ug/kg
318
For revolution, what is the difference in concentration of the drug between the cat and dog products
The dog concentration is 2x the cat concentration
319
In which case would trifexis be contraindicated
In dogs with a history of epilepsy or seizures
320
How much fenbendazole is in 5g of panacur?
1110 mg
321
How many tablets of pyran 35 would a 7kg cat get
4 tablets
322
How many ml of strongid T to deworm a 25kg dog
2.5ml
323
What is a faster than normal heart rate
Tachycardia
324
When situations cause spontaneous depolarization of cardiac muscle or abnormalities of the conduction system what might occur
Arrhythmia
325
CHF chronic congestive heart failure or results when the pumping ability of the heart is impaired to the extent that sodium and water are retained in an effort to compensate for inadequate cardiac output. It is associated with all of the following: exercise intolerance, ascites, pulmonary edema, diaphragmatic hernia except..........
Diaphragmatic hernia
326
What is digitalis. It is obtained from the dried leaves of the plant digitalis purpurea.
Cardiac glycoside
327
True or false: gloves do not have to be worn when applying nitroglycerin
False
328
What can Furosemide cause in patients
Hypokalemia
329
Name a common Ionatropic cardiac medicine prescribed for congestive heart failure
Vetmedin
330
Name a common ace inhibitor are used in the veterinary medicine
Fortekor
331
Name a drug that will be given to Jack to treat or help manage pulmonary edema
Lasix
332
By which route would lasix be given in order for it to be in Jack's system within 10 to 20 minutes
Intramuscular
333
Name a drug that can be given to Jack to help manage his general anxiety because of not being able to breathe
Morphine
334
What two active hormones are produced by the thyroid gland
T3 and T4
335
What is the concentration of Caninsulin
U40
336
How do you resuspend insulin
Rolling tube in hands. Don't shake it
337
Name the structures of the pancreas that produces insulin
Islets of langerhans or beta cells
338
When and how should the owner feed the cat
Feed 2x per day small portion of intake in the morning and night
339
When should the owner give Caninsulin
Morning and night
340
Describe how the owner should inject the Caninsulin
Sub cutaneously on alternate sides
341
What medical condition does topazole (methimazole) treat
Hyperthyroid
342
Name two treatments other than topazole for hyperthyroid
Radioactive iodine and surgical removal of adenoma
343
Estrogen in the form of diethylstilbestrol can be use to treat what problem in the dog
Urinary incontinence
344
If you draw up 20 U with a U 40 syringe- how many mls have you drawn up
0.5 ml
345
Why does pain sensation arise
Nerve endings may be activated through mechanical, thermal, chemical stimulation
346
in which free nerve endings do pain sensations arise
Nociceptors
347
Where are nociceptors located
Skin, joints, blood vessel walls, periosteum, hollow organs, parietal surfaces of thorax and abdomen
348
What is superficial pain
Paid that arises in subcutaneous tissue.
349
What is deep pain
Associated with skeletal muscles, tendons, bones, joints. Visceral pain
350
Why can pain be harmful
Because it leads to stress and related problems such as gastrointestinal lesions, immunosuppression, delayed healing, hypertension, potential dysrhythmias
351
What is the first step in the pain pathway
Transduction or stimulation
352
What is the second step in the pain pathway
Spinal cord transmission
353
What is the third step in the pain pathway
Modulation
354
What is the fourth step in the pain pathway
Perception of pain
355
What are type C unmyelinated fibers responsible for
Dull, poorly localized pain in humans
356
What are type a Delta fibers responsible for
Sharp, localized pain
357
Where do type a and type C fibers carry impulses to
To the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
358
What are the responses to pain
Increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate, mydriasis, salvation, vocalization, changes in facial expression, guarding of the painful site, restlessness, unresponsiveness, failure to groom, abnormal gait, abnormal stands, rolling
359
How is the perception of pain enhanced
Hyperalgesia and central sensitization.
360
What is central sensitization
The idea that pain control is enhanced if analgesia is given before pain is generated. It is a preemptive pain medication
361
What are analgesics
Drugs used to control pain include NSAIDs and narcotics.
362
What are the bodies own opiate like analgesics
Endorphins
363
How can you pharmacologically intervene with pain
By targeting a single or multiple points of the pain process
364
What can transduction be inhibited by
Opioids and nsaids
365
What can transmission of nerve impulses be inhibited by
Local anesthetics and alpha 2 agonists
366
How can you modulate pain impulses in the spinal cord
Through the effects of local anesthetic, opioids, Alpha 2 agonists, tricyclic antidepressant, nsaid, anticonvulsant
367
How can pain perception in the cortex be inhibited
By use of anesthetic, opioid, benzodiazepine and alpha 2 agonist
368
What does damage to cells result in
Release of several chemical mediators that may initiate or prolong the inflammatory response
369
What are the chemical mediators of inflammation
Prostaglandins, leukotrienes, histamine, cytokines
370
What do the mediators of inflammation do
Exacerbate a pain response
371
What happens if you reduce inflammation
You reduce ️pain
372
How do NSAIDs work
Inhibit an enzyme called cyclooxygenase. Cox. Two forms: Cox 1 and Cox 2 exist
373
What is cox 1
Maintains physiologic functions such as modulation of renal bloodflow and synthesis of gastric mucosal
374
What does cox 2 do
Promotes the formation of prostaglandins from cell membrane arachodonic acid.
375
Which NSAIDs are less harsh: cox 1 or cox 2 inhibitors ?
Cox 2 inhibitors. Produce fewer gastrointestinal side effects
376
What is the short term use of NSAIDs
Preoperative/preemptive pain control
377
What is the long term use of NSAIDs
Older dogs with osteoarthritis
378
What does cox 1 do with the stomach mucus
Plays an important role in causing the secretion of stomach protective mucus, maintaining blood supply to the stomach and decreasing acid production
379
What does cox 1 do with the kidney
Cox 1 prostaglandins counteracted vasoconstriction and allowed vasodilation of the renal blood supply
380
What are glucocorticoids
Exert their effects by blocking Phospholipase an enzyme necessary for the production of both prostaglandins and leukotrienes. Intervention is provided earlier in the sequence of the formation of inflammatory mediators. Because the inflammatory reaction is blocked earlier by glucocorticoids they are more effective anti inflammatory agents than NSAIDs
381
What are the common side effects of NSAIDs
Most common side effects are gastrointestinal ulceration and bleeding. Other side effects may include hepatotoxicity, nephrotoxicity, inhibition of cartilage metabolism, bone marrow suppression, bleeding tendencies
382
What should dogs and cats on prolonged and nsaid use have
Routine biochemistry done before the start of nsaids and every six months while on NSAIDs to check for liver and kidney function
383
What are the precautions for nsaids
Do not give more than one type of nsaid at a time, prevent accidental ingestion, always give with food, stop if vomiting or diarrhea, always check if animal seems not well
384
What does aspirin do
Causes ulcerations and bleeding out. Relief of mild to moderate pain caused by musculoskeletal conditions such as arthritis and hip dysplasia
385
What is special about cats with aspirin
They're highly susceptible to aspirin overdose because of their inability to metabolize it rapidly.
386
What is phenylbutazone
Banamine. Anti-inflammatory medication for horses
387
What is DMSO
It is an anti-inflammatory and has the ability to act as a carrier of other agents through the skin. It is not a nsaid.
388
What is special about tylenol with cats
Cat lacks liver enzymes to metabolize the drug safely. Produces metabolites that are toxic to the liver
389
What is carprofen
Propionic acid derivative nsaid that has been approved for oral use in dogs. Carprofen has been approved for oral and injectable use in dogs and cats.
390
How long is the rimadyl-carprofen half life
8 hours.
391
How does rimadyl work
By inhibiting cox 2 and doesn't cause ulcers.
392
What is the clinical use of rimadyl
Relief of pain associate.d with degenerative joint disease and postoperative pain resulting from soft tissue or orthopaedic repair.
393
What is the dosage form of rimadyl
Available in tablets etc
394
What are the adverse side effects of carprofen
Side effects such as gastrointestinal ulceration and bleeding are apparently rare with this agent
395
What does ibuprofen cause
Ulcers and gastric bleeding
396
What is deramax
An analgesic and a nsaid against the coxib. Control of pain and inflammation
397
What is previcox
NSAID that belongs to coxib class. Used for the treatment of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis
398
What is metacam
Cox 2 receptor nsaid. It has aninflammatory, analgesia and antipyretic. Used to control pain associated with surgical procedures and arthritis t
399
What are the adverse side effects of metacam
Similar to other NSAIDs
400
Decreased function of what organ would have the greatest effect on biotransformation of most drugs
Liver
401
The generic name for a drug is also called the
Proprietary name
402
The percentage of the total dose that ultimately reaches the bloodstream is called what
Bioavailability
403
What do cholinergic agents do
Slow heart rate, increase blood flow to intestinal tract, decreased diameter of bronchioles
404
What is the dog steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is extremely toxic to cats
Acetominophen
405
What are the most common adverse side effects of Aminoglycoside antimicrobial's
Nephrotoxic an ototoxic
406
What is a true statement regarding tetracyclines and bacterial resistance
Many bacteria are resistant to them
407
To what other drug class is cephalosporin class closely related
Penicillins
408
The use of Fluoroquinolones as anti-infective agent should be done with great caution and what type of animal
Cats
409
What anti-infective drug should be avoided in all food producing animals
Chloramphenicol
410
What organs are penicillins primary excreted by
Kidneys
411
What is diazepam often administered in combination with
Ketamine
412
What is the reversal for xylazine hydrochloride
Yohimbine
413
What does griseofulvin act on
Antifungal
414
Does Xylazine have analgesic properties ?
Yes it is a alpha-2 adrenergic agonist
415
What is propofol
A painkiller given an incremental doses.
416
What is butorphanol
Originally it was a cough suppressant
417
Heart guard contains ivermectin which does what
Used to prevent heart worm infection
418
What do Loop diuretics such as furosemide do
Can cause hypokalemia with chronic use. Potassium supplements are often administered
419
What are pain receptors called
Nociceptors
420
What opioid is an agonist/ antagonist
Butorphanol
421
What does acepromazine Maleate cause
Hypotension. It has the effect of vasodilation
422
What is the ratio between the toxic dose in the therapeutic dose of the drug used as a measure of the relative safety of the drug for particular treatment
Therapeutic index
423
What Is not a short-term effect of corticosteroid therapy. Polyuria, polyphagia, delayed healing, osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is a long term effect
424
What is a common side effect of antihistamine drugs such as diphenhydramine
Sedation.
425
Where are H2 receptors found
In the gastric mucosa
426
Theo barbiturates should be administered with great care or not at all to? collies, greyhounds Colorado Weilers, spaniels.
Greyhounds. Due to low body fat. Will remain in the circulation at a high concentration
427
Puppies born via cesarean section that are not breathing well may benefit from what type of drops administered sublingually
Doxapram drops
428
What are intradermal injections primarily used for
Allergy testing
429
Most biotransformation of drugs occurs where
Deliver
430
What type of administration are elixirs used for
Oral administration
431
What type of administration are solutions used for
Iv
432
What does it mean when a drug has a narrow therapeutic range
The difference between the therapeutic dose of the potentially toxic dose is very small
433
What is the example of an antibiotic that is considered to be a Beta lactamase inhibitor
CLavamox
434
In what class of antibiotic drugs are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects
Aminoglycoside
435
What antibiotic is used for a rabbit with Pastorella. Causes a plastic anemia and humans
Chloramphenicol
436
What does anaphylaxis refer to
A severe, life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction
437
What is a side effect of tetracycline and young animals
Can cause bone or teeth problems
438
Antimicrobial drugs like baytril, Zeniquin, or Orbax all belong to which group of antibiotics
Fluoroquinolones
439
What type of drug would be most helpful for a patient with a productive cough
And expectorant.
440
Anticoagulant diluted in Celine for injection to form a flush solution for preventing blood clots in intravenous catheter is is
Heparin
441
What diuretic drug is used most commonly in patients with congestive heart failure or
Furosemide
442
What does epinephrine do
Increases heart rate
443
What is the most common side effect of drugs that cause vasodilation
Hypotension
444
Which drug is used for cardiac arrest
Epinephrine
445
If a dog eats warfarin based rat poison what is the treatment
Vitamin K
446
Chronic use of moderate to high doses of glucocorticoids may result of the development of what
Cushing's disease
447
What are glucocorticoids used for
Allergies, Musculoskeletal problems, immune mediated disease
448
What is the most common side effect of nsaid use
Gastrointestinal ulceration
449
What precautions should you take when applying dmso to an animals skin
Wear latex gloves to prevent skin to skin contact
450
All of the following drugs are controlled substances except for one... Propofol, diazepam, ketamine, oxymorphone
Propofol
451
What drug is in the same clSs as thiopental
Phenobarbital
452
An opioid analgesic often used in transdermal patches to control post surgical pain
Fentanyl
453
What drug can be administered rectally during a seizure
Diazepam
454
If a sedated patient has a slow hr, which drug would you expect would be administered
Dormitor
455
All the drugs are antagonists except for : yohimbine, detomidine, atipamezole, Naloxone
Detomidine
456
Oreo was given morphine so what are some normal side effects
Hypersensitive to sounds, Oreo might vomit and defecate, more comfortable recovering in a dark room
457
Norepinephrine, epinephrine and dopamine are the primary neurotransmitters for what
Sympathetic nervous system
458
What is the active ingredient in euthanasia solutions
Pentobarbital
459
Can you keep Propofol for tomorrow
No because bacteria will grow in it and produce endotoxins
460
If a cat has eyes wide open and unblinking and limbs stiffly distended what sedative did he get
Ketamine
461
In what animals should Acepromazine be avoided
In epileptic patients
462
What behavioural drug group that may be used to stimulate Appetite in cats
Benzodiazepines
463
What tricyclic antidepressant is now approved for use in dogs and cats to control seperation anxiety
Clomicalm
464
What does phenylpropanolamine do
It treats incontinence by increasing urethral sphincter tone
465
What does a 1:1000 concentration represent in percent
.1%
466
What is epinephrine used for
Anaphylactic shock
467
Why would you use lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic to remove a pea size wart from a dog's paw
Because it causes vasoconstriction
468
What is the classification of Benadryl
Antihistamine
469
What are three separate antibiotic classes
Penicillin, cephalosporin, beta-lactamase inhibitor
470
What is the classification of antirobe
Lincosamide
471
What is the classification of clavaseptin
Beta-lactamase inhibitor
472
What is the classification for Zeniquin
Fluroquinolone
473
What is the classification for Amoxil
Penicillin
474
What is the classification for baytril
Fluroquinolone
475
What is the classification for apo-doxy tabs
Tetracycline
476
What is the classification for novo lexin
Cephalosporin
477
What is the classification for S1 25
Sulfonamide
478
What is the classification for tylosin
Macrolide
479
What is the general classification for atropine and glycopyrrolate
Anticholinergic
480
Between atropine and glycopyrrolate which will have longer duration of action in the cat and what is the reason for that
Glycopyrrolate and it is due to no atropinase enzyme
481
List two reasons why atropine and glycopyrrolate are used as preanesthetic's
Prevent secretions and restore cardiac rate
482
List three corticosteroids
Dexamethasone, prednisone, prednisolone
483
Out of those three corticosteroids which would be used in an emergency anaphylactic reaction
Dexamethasone
484
Which enteral product requires the liver to metabolize it to the active ingredient
Prednisone
485
Which enteral product does not require the liver to metabolize it to the active ingredient
Prednisolone
486
What is the classification for Rimadyl, Medicam, Tolfedine, deramax
Nsaid
487
What is cartrophen
Polysulfate sodium
488
What is triancinolone acetonide
Corticosteroid
489
What is the classification for nystatin
Antifungal
490
What is the classification for neomycin sulfate
Aminoglycosides
491
What is the classification for gramicidin
Antibiotic
492
What is the classification for miconazole nitrate
Antifungal
493
What is the classification for polymyxin B
Antibiotic
494
What is the classification for prednisolone acetate
Anti inflammatory
495
What is the classification for thiostrepton
Antibiotic
496
What is the classification for triamcinolone acetonide
Corticosteroid
497
What is the classification for gentamicin
Antibiotic
498
What is the classification for betamethasone
Glycorticoid (antiinflammatory)
499
What is the classification of clotrimazole
Antifungal
500
What is the classification for fusidic acid
Antibacterial
