Microbiology and Immunology (2nd) Flashcards
All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.
What are the general characteristics of viruses
Can have multiple shapes, have a capsule and some have an envelope, no organelles, have either DNA or RNA or, need an electron microscope to view, need a host, lysogenic or lytic cycle
What is a host range
Spectrum of what the virus can affect. Only affect certain cells such as hair
What is a bacteriophage
A virus that only affects bacteria
What is the structure of a bacteriophage
Have s capsid, nucleic acid and sometimes an envelope
What are the five steps of the lytic cycle for a bacteriophage
Attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation, release which lyse the cell
Describe the attachment phase of the lytic cycle
Specific and based on host range
Describe the penetration phase of the lytic cycle
Lysosome makes holes (enzyme)
Describe the biosynthesis phase of the lytic cycle
Replication. Uses host cell mechanisms for replication
Describe the release phase of the lytic cycle
Lyse the cell to allow virus to infect neighbour cells
What are the 5 stages of the lysogenic cycle
AttachmentPenetrationDna integrationHost cell replication Virus dna removes itself from the host cell dna
Describe the DNA integration phase of the lysogenic cycle
The virus puts its DNA into host DNA. The virus now becomes a prophage
Describe the host cell replication phase of the lysogenic cycle
It also replicates the viruses DNA
Describe the virus DNA removal phase of the lysogenic cycle
The virus DNA removes itself from the host cell DNA and can now join the lytic cycle and then go through biosynthesis
What’s the difference between animal and bacterial viruses
In animal viruses the full virus goes into the host cell but with bacterial viruses the DNA/rna goes inside
How does virus remove its envelope/capsid after penetration
By fusion/endocytosis
Where is Viral replication in bacterial infections
In the cytoplasm
In DNA animal viruses the replication occurs where
️Nucleus
In rna animal viruses the replication occurs where
In the cytoplasm
What does a lysogenic cycle mean for an animal
Chronic infections, latent infection, slow viral infection and cancer
What happens to a cell if a virus has an envelope
It won’t lyse the cell
What happens to a cell if a virus doesn’t have an envelope
It will lyse the cell and steal part of the plasma membrane
What are the 4 things a virus needs to cause disease
A route of infection Disemmenation (to get where it needs to be - generalized or local)Cause disease (has an incubation period)Shed and transmit itself
Describe an acute disease
Short term, clinical signs, persistant
Describe a latent disease
Virus is inside of host cell but doesn’t have symptoms
Describe a chronic disease
Virus is present and can be shed
Describe a slow infection
Virus load increase over years and eventually kills you
What is vertical transmission
Mother to child
What is horizontal transmission
Via fomites/vectors from person to person
What are the seven feline viral diseases
Panleukopenia, rhinotracheitis, calici virus, feline Corona virus/FIP, feline leukemia virus, feline immunodeficiency virus, rabies
What family is Panleukopenia in
Parvoviridae
Describe the structure of the Panleukopenia virus
Non-envelope DNA virus
How long can panleukopenia survive in the environment
For years on contaminated surfaces. Extremely stable virus
What can Panleukopenia cause in kittens
Severe acute gastroenteritis and leukopenia
Who are the most susceptible for panleukopenia
2 to 6 months of age cats
Describe the mortality rate for panleukopenia in kittens
Very high mortality rate. Can also kill susceptible older cats
Describe the incubation period for Panleukopenia
Five days
What is the route of infection for panleukopenia
Oral route
What happens if a mother is infected with panleukopenia in utero infection in first trimester
Abortion and fetal death
Describe what happens if a mother is affected with panleukopenia in second and third trimester
Cerebellar hypoplasia. Versus myocarditis for puppies
How is Panleukopenia transmitted
Virus is shed on all body secretions but primarily feces and can be transmitted in utero
What are the clinical signs of panleukopenia
Lethargy, dehydration, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, turgid intestines, fever, hypothermia
What are the clinical signs if a kitten is infected in utero or neonatally
Ataxia, hypermetria, incoordination. The signs persist for life but are not progressive
What is the treatment for Panleukopenia
Hospitalization with aggressive supportive treatment. IV fluids, antibiotics, antiemetics antacids
How do you prevent Panleukopenia
Disinfection of cages, floors, food and water dishes with bleach. Vaccination
What causes feline upper respiratory infection
A complex of viral and bacterial agents. Sneezing nasal congestion and nasal discharge. Herpes virus, calici virus, Bordetella bronchiseptica, chlamydia Felis, mycoplasma
What family is rhino in
Herpesviridae
Describe the structure of the rhinovirus
Envelope dna virus. Latent infection possible
Which cats do rhinotracheitis infect
Cats of all ages but mostly kittens. Can also in fact many exotic cats.
What does rhinotracheitis cause
Acute upper respiratory tract infection. Very widespread in the cat population
What Is the incubation period for rhinotracheitis
2 to 6 days
What is the route of infection for the rhinotracheitis virus
Oral, intranasal or conjunctival exposure
What is the pathogenesis of the rhinotracheitis virus
Attacks epithelial cells and causes necrosis of the upper respiratory tract and ocular epithelia. Pulmonary involvement is rare. All cats infected become chronic carriers
What are the clinical signs of the rhinotracheitis virus
Sneezing, Serous to micro purulent nasal discharge. Turbinate distruction might be permanent and lead to chronic sinusitis. Possible ulcerative keratitis, occasional oral ulcers. Possible anorexia
What can happen if kittens under four weeks of age get rhinotracheitis
Can be fatal.
What happens if pregnant queens get rhinotracheitis
Can abort or have severe infections in neonates
What is the treatment for rhinotracheitis
Frequent cleaning of eyes a nose. IV fluid antibiotics antivirals appetite stimulants nebulization reducing stress
What family is the calici virus in
Caliciviridae
Describe the structure of the calici virus
Non-envelopes are in a virus. Many different strains of variable degrees of Virulence
What is calici virus cause
Common viral respiratory disease of domestic and exotic cats. Highly contagious. Common in multi-cat household and breeding catteries
Who’s susceptible to the calici virus
Cats of any age but young kittens more susceptible. High morbidity and mortality can reach 30% in young kittens. Prognosis is excellent in older kittens unless severe pneumonia develops
What is the incubation period for calici virus
2-6 days
What are the three forms of calici virus
PneumotropicRheumaticVirulent systemic
Describe the pneumotropic form of calici virus
Affect the upper respiratory tract and rarely of the lower respiratory tract
Describe the rheumatic form of the calici virus
Joint pain and lameness in kittens
Describe the Virulent systemic form of calici virus
Severe clinical signs in adults
Describe the route of infection for calici virus
Ingestion
What is the dessemination of the calici virus
Replication and oropharyngeal tissues. Spreads primarily to epithelium of conjunctiva, nose and oral cavity. Causes rapid cytolysis of infected cells.
What are the clinical signs of calicivirus
Anorexia, dehydration, fever, conjunctivitis, oral discharge, blepharospasms, chemosis, ulcers on tongue, dyspnea
What is the treatment for calici virus
Clean eyes and nose, supportive treatment if anorexic, antibiotics, ophthalmic antibiotics
Describe the transmission for calici virus
Cat to cat contact, virus shed and high amounts and affected cats. Recovered cats can be persistently infected and shed smaller quantities of virus in their saliva
How do you prevent calici virus
Isolation, disinfection, vaccination
What family does the corona virus belong to
Corona Viridae
Describe the structure of the coronavirus
Enveloped RNA virus
What can the coronavirus cause
Feeling Coronaviral enteritis, feline infectious peritonitis
Describe feline coronal viral enteritis
Mild, self-limiting diarrhea. Transmitted mainly by fecal oral route or through saliva. Can also be transmitted intraplacental. No vaccinations
Describe feline infectious peritonitis
Occur sporadically. Chronic debilitating disease. Usually fatal with mortality near hundred percent. In vivo mutation transforms the low Verelint introduced into the aggressive lethal virus. More common in cats six months to two years of age and more common in males
Describe the pathogenesis for FIP
FIP virus replicates in the upper respiratory tract. Viruses taken up by the micro fighters and transported throughout the body. Replication of perivascular sites cause nodules and liver spleen lungs etc. lesions also appear in Pericarditis
What are the two forms of FIP
Wet form (effusive) and dry form (non effusive). Host immune status determines the pathogenesis and clinical outcome
What are the clinical signs for the wet form of FIP
Abdominal distention with ascites, pleural effusion, muffled heart sounds, abdominal masses
What are the clinical signs for the dry form of FIP
Uveitis, ataxia, personality changes, seizures, abdominal masses
What is the treatment for FIP
Incurable. Wet form will die within two months. Dry form have chronic disease but fatal
What family is the feline leukemia virus and feline immunodeficiency virus part of
Retrovirudae
Describe the structure of the retroviruses
Enveloped RNA virus
What does leukemia result in
Immunosuppression myelosuppression and neoplasia. Cats under one year more susceptible. Outdoor cats are more at risk. And males are more at risk than females
What’s the route of infection for feline leukemia
Oral and nasal cavities
Describe the dissemination for feline leukemia
Virus replicates an oral pharyngeal lymphoid tissues. Cats can moat a few full immune response on the limited the infection or have an ineffective at me and response and become very manic. Once premier occurs the virus replicates and other lymphoid tissues and bone marrow. Latent infection may be reactivated after stress
What are the clinical signs of feline leukemia virus
Anemia, weight loss, anorexia, diarrhea, respiratory distress, liver and kidney disease, lymphoma
What’s the treatment for feline leukemia cats
No treatment if no clinical signs. Antibiotics, blood transfusion, chemotherapy. Leukemia positive cats can live for several years
How is the feline leukemia virus transmitted
Through saliva, can also be transmitted through blood and transplacentally. Mutual grooming, same food and water bowls
Who is at risk for the feline immunodeficiency virus
All feelings. Male cats are two times more likely than females. Stray intact adult male cats are at higher risk.
Describe the acute phase of the feline immunodeficiency virus
Viral replication and salivary gland, lymph nodes, Simons. Last days to a few weeks. May cause fever and lethargic
Describe the clinically latent phase of feeling immunodeficiency virus
Immune system contains but does not eliminate the virus, no clinical signs, cats are transmitting virus through bite and blood, lasts months to several years
Describe the terminal phase of feeling immunodeficiency virus
Viral replication overwhelms the immune system. Immune deficiency causes opportunistic infections and neoplasia
How is feline immunodeficiency virus transmitted
Cat bites. Through bite wounds and blood contamination. Also transmitted through colostrum
What are the seven canine viral diseases
Distemper, adenovirus, para influenza, parvovirus, coronavirus, papilloma virus, rabies
What is the family name for canine distemper
Paramyxoviridae
Describe the structure of the canine distemper virus
Enveloped RNA virus
What symptom manifestations does distemper cause
Respiratory, gastrointestinal, central nervous system
What is the host range for distemper
Dogs, wolves, foxes, ferrets, raccoons, skunks, lion
How is the morbidity and mortality in dogs
High morbidity and mortality . 50% mortality and unvaccinated dogs
Which age range is more susceptible to distemper
3 to 6 months more susceptible
What is the incubation period for distemper
3 to 8 days
Describe the route of infection for distemper
Inhaled droplets of infected secretions
Describe the dissemination of distemper
Macrophages carry the virus to local lymph nodes and then the virus spreads via viremia to respiratory, gastrointestinal, urogenital tract and central nervous system
What are the non-neurological signs of distemper
Fever, anorexia, nasal and ocular thick discharge, coughing, vomiting, diarrhea
What are the neurological signs of distemper
Seizures, circling, ataxia, paralysis
What happens to dogs that survive distemper
They often have lifelong nervous system complications
How do you treat distemper
Supportive care, IV fluid, antibiotics, anticonvulsive, analgesic
How long do infected dogs with distemper shed the virus for
Several months
How do you prevent canine distemper
Vaccination, prevent contact with wildlife, disinfection, isolation of infected puppies
What is the family of the canine adenovirus
Adenoviridae
Describe the structure of the canine adenovirus
Non-envelope DNA virus
What is type one canine adenovirus
Infectious hepatitis
What is type two canine adenovirus
Respiratory infection
What can canine adenovirus one infect
Foxes, wolves, coyotes, skunks, bears
What can canine adenovirus one cause
Acute or chronic hepatitis
In which age range is the at T9 adenovirus most common
Dogs less than one year of age
What is the incubation period for the acute disease version of K9 adenovirus one
4 to 9 days
What is the route of infection for canine adenovirus one
Oro nasal
What is the dissemination for canine adenovirus one
Virus replicates in tonsils then the following viremia there is viral replication in the liver, kidney, spleen, lungs
What are the clinical signs for canine adenovirus one
Most cases are asymptomatic. Can have peracute, acute or mild disease
Describe the clinical signs for the acute disease
Fever, anorexia, Lethargy, vomiting, diarrhea, hepatomegaly, abdominal pain
What will 20% of dogs get when they get infected with canine adenovirus one
Anterior uveitis and corneal edema. hepatitis Blueeye
How do you treat canine adenovirus one
Fluid therapy, antibiotics, antiemetics, antiacids
How is canine adenovirus one transmitted
Through feces and saliva. Once were covered dogs we should the virus in their urine for several months
How do you prevent canine adenovirus one
Vaccination
Describe canine adenovirus two
Mild respiratory disease. Causes tonsillitis, pharyngitis, bronchitis, bronchopneumonia. Involved in the tracheobronchitis infection kennel cough
What is the family for para influenza
Paramyxoviridae
Describe para influenza
Highly contagious upper respiratory tract infection which is an important cause of tracheobronchitis. Usually does not cause a severe disease but to make the dog more susceptible to secondary bacterial and viral infections
What is infectious tracheobronchitis
Highly contagious, acute disease that is localized in the airways. Can be caused by one or more infectious agents such as canine adenovirus two, para influenza virus, Bordetella bronchiseptica
What are the clinical signs of infection is tracheobronchitis
Sudden onset of severe productive or nonproductive cough. Cough is worse worse with exercise, excitement, pressure on the neck from collar. Trachea palpation induces cough on GPE. Can also have gagging, retching or nasal discharge
What is the treatment for infectious tracheal bronchitis
In most dogs the diseases self-limiting with resolution of clinical signs into weeks. Rest for 7 to 14 days to limit constant irritation of airways caused by coughing. Cough suppressant’s or antibiotics may be prescribed if the condition persists
How do you prevent infections tracheobronchitis
Isolate sick animals. If it’s at a kennel evacuate the kennel for 1 to 2 weeks and disinfect
What is the family for parvovirus
Parvoviridae
Describe the structure of the parvovirus
Non-envelope DNA virus
Describe canine parvovirus type two
Has two strains type a and type B.
What can canine parvovirus type two infect
Dogs, wolves, coyotes
What are the risk factors for canine parvovirus type two
Season. More likely in the summer months. If a Rottweiler, Doberman, pitbull, Labrador retriever. If six weeks to six months old. If not vaccinated
What is the route of infection for parvovirus
Fecal to oral
What is the initial replication cycle of parvovirus
The laryngeal tissues, virus is spread to other tissues and organs by the bloodstream. Infects and destroys rapidly dividing cells
What happens if parvovirus destroys the precursor cells of white blood cells
Leukopenia
What happens if parvovirus destroys the intestinal crypt cells
Shortened villi, malabsorption, diarrhea
What happens if a neonatal puppy is infected with parvovirus
Results in myocarditis and death. Some puppies may survive but with a lifelong cardiac condition
What is the incubation period for parvovirus
4 to 14 days
What are the clinical signs of parvovirus
Anorexia, vomiting, hemorrhagic diarrhea, weight loss, Lethargy. Severe disease results in sepsis. Can be fatal
What is the treatment for parvovirus
Hospitalization with aggressive supportive treatment, IV fluids, antibiotics, anti-vomiting, anti-acid, analgesic
What happens if an animal survives parvovirus
Lifelong immunity after natural infection
Describe the transmission of parvovirus
Virus is shed and high amounts in feces one clinical signs are present. Virus may also be shed after late into incubation period for a limited time after recovery. 2 to 3 weeks. Direct contact with contaminated stool surfaces bulls collars and leashes. Flies can carry contaminated fecal matter to food bowls. Spread by Hans and clothing of people in contact with affected dogs
How long can parvovirus stay in the soil
Months
How do you prevent and control parvovirus
Isolation of sick animals, gloves and protective clothing, disinfection, vaccination
What is the family of the coronavirus
Coronaviridae
Describe the structure of a coronavirus
Envelope RNA virus
What is the root of infection for the coronavirus
Fecal to oral
What is the pathogenesis of the coronavirus
Affects the epithelial cells of the intestinal villi but not the crypt cells
What are the clinical signs of the coronavirus
Mild gastroenteritis, anorexia, Lethargy
What is the transmission for the coronavirus
Virus is shed in feces for two weeks
What is the incubation period for the coronavirus
1 to 3 days
What is the treatment for coronavirus
Most dogs recover without treatment. Some patients may need supportive care
How do you prevent and control coronavirus
Strict sanitation and isolation protocols, vaccine is available but controversial
What family is the papilloma virus in
Papillomaviridae
Describe the structure of a papilloma virus
Non-envelope DNA virus
Describe the thing that special about the Papilloma virus
Highly host specific and tissue restricted. Virus can only affect terminally differentiated cells like skin cells. Stimulates cell hyperplasia. Infected tissue forms benign tumors. Canine papillomas occurred on the lips and in the mouth of young dogs
How do you transmit the Papilloma virus
Close contact
What is an antiviral
An agent that kills a virus or that suppresses its ability to replicate and hence inhibits its capacity to multiply and reproduce
Why is it difficult to make antivirals
Since viruses use the hosts cells to replicate which makes this difficult to find targets for the drug that would interferes with the virus without also harming the host cells. And virus variation.
How do most antivirals work
Interfere with viral nucleic acid synthesis or regulation. Or interfere with viral cell binding or interruption of virus coating or release. Some antivirals also enhance the immune system of the host
What is a prion
Proteinaceous infectious particles that resist inactivation by procedures that degrade or damage nucleic acids. Prions are normal cellular proteins that undergo confirmational changes and become pathogenic. Very resistant to environmental effects. Do not invoke inflammatory or immune response. Can be transmitted horizontally and perhaps vertically
Describe prion diseases
Transmissible spongiform and cephalopod to use. 9 neurodegenerative diseases with long incubation period for months to years. Cause large vacuoles to form in the brain. Fatal diseases
Name all of the transmissible spongiform encephalopathies of animals
Scrapies, bovine spongiform encephalopathies, feline spongiform encephalopathies, chronic wasting disease, transmissible mink encephalopathies
What are the human transmissible spongiform encephalopathies
Creutzfeld-Jakob disease, fatal familial insomnia, kuru, gersttman-straussler-scheinker disease
What is scrapies
Does occur in Canada and United States. Has been known since 1732 but infectious agent remain unknown until 1982. Affects sheep and goats between 3 to 5 years of age. Incubation. 2 to 5 years. Does not appear to be transmittable to humans
What are the clinical signs of scrapie’s
Behavior changes, may become excitable. Tremors of the head and neck. Intense pruritis, weakness, ataxia, fatal
What is the diagnosis for scrapie
Based on clinical signs, flock history and, microscopic evaluation of the brain
How do you prevent scrapie
Infectious and could be transmitted to other sheep. Slaughter infected sheep and those sheep that were in contact with infected sheep
What is bovine spongiform encephalopathy
mad cow disease
What are the clinical signs of bovine spongiform encephalopathic
Change in behavior, incoordination, milk production disease, weight loss, fatal. Most cattle affected or 3 to 5 years of age
How do you diagnose bovine spongiform encephalopathy
Based on clinical signs, third history, microscopic a valuation of the brain
How did mad cow disease first start
From feeding cattle meat and bone meal that contains infected products from a spontaneously occur in case of bovine spongiform encephalopathy
How does bovine spongiform start
Spread to cats and certain zoo animals by a protein supplements Added from the rendered cattle products added to animal feed including commercial cat food
How do you prevent mad cow disease
Slaughter of infected animals, bans on meat imported from bse infected countries
How are enhanced animal protection from bse
In infected cattle, bse concentrates on certain tissues known as specified risk material (srm). These tissues are removed from all cattle slaughtered for human consumption.
What are srm
Brain, skull, eyes, ganglia, spinal cord, vertebral column, tonsils
Are bse and scrapies reportable
Yes
What is mycology
Study of fungi
What does the fungi group involve
Microorganisms, molds, mushrooms
What are the characteristics of fungi
Eukaryotes, cell wall contains chitin, closely related to animals, no mechanisms of locomotion, range in size of microscopic to very large.
What are heterotrophs
No chloroplasts for photosynthesis Uses organic material for growth.
What is an autotroph
An organism that uses inorganic material for growth and produce organic material
How do fungi get nutrients
Acquired by absorption.. Usually from decaying material
are fungi aerobic ?
Aerobic or facultative anaerobic, only a few anaerobic fungi are known
How do fungi reproduce
Asexually or sexually
What are the three fungi categories
Saprophytic, parasitic, mycorrhizal (symbiotic)
What is a saprophytic categories
Largest group of fungi, they grow on dead organic matter and work to rot or digest that organic matter. Good with fallen trees, dead leaves etc
What is the parasitic fungi categories
Second largest group, prefer a living host.. Can cause damage to a host
What is a mycorrhizal fungi
Form a partnership mainly with trees and plants. Mutually beneficial
Describe yeast
Non filamentous, microscopic, unicellular fungi. Oval or spherical. Larger than bacteria. Widely distributed. Reproduces by budding or fission
Describe the yeasts budding
Budding yeast divide unevenly. Parent cell forms a protuberance on its outer surface. Bud elongates and parents cells nucleus divides, makes a cell wall division, bud breaks away
How many yeasts cell can produce
24 daughter cells by budding
What is a fission yeast
Divide evenly to produce two new cells. Parent cell elongates, parent cell nucleus divides, two daughter cells are produced
What is a yeast capable of
Facultative anaerobic growth.
What happens if oxygen is present for yeast
Performs aerobic respiration to metabolize carbohydrates to carbon dioxide and water
What happens with yeast if no oxygen is present
They ferment carbohydrates and produce ethanol and carbon dioxide
What is yeast used for in the food industry
Bakers yeast, bubbles, beer yeast, wine yeast
What is a hyphae
Thallus (body) of a mild or fleshy fungus consists of long filaments of cells joined together.
What are septa
Molds that have hyphae that contain cross walls
What is a vegetative hyphae
Portion of hypha that obtains nutrients and forms mycelium
What are Aerial hyphae
Portion of hypha concerned with reproduction and projects from surface of medium
What are most molds
Aerobic
Why is the life cycle of fungi
Filamentous fungi can reproduce asexually by fragmentation of their hyphae. Both sexual and asexual reproduction occurs by the formation of spores. Fungi is identified by spore type
What are the molds in the industry used for
Food, pharmaceutics.
What is a dimorphic fungi
Some fungi, especially the pathogenic species exhibit dimorphism. Can grow as a mold or a yeast. Non pathogenic fungi dimorphism can be co2 dependant.
What is the structure of rabies virus
Enveloped RNA virus
What is rabies
A viral disease that affects the central nervous system of all mammals including humans. Almost always fatal
Who is at risk for rabies
Mammals of all ages. Endemic in wild animals with periodic outbreaks.
In Canada and usa who are the most common transmitters of the disease
Bats, foxes, skunks and raccoons.
In Asia and Africa what are the most common transmitters of rabies
Dogs are the main carriers
Describe the pathogenesis of rabies
Virus enters through wound or mucus membrane, virus replicates in local tissues, virus is protected once it enters the CNS or peripheral nervous system. Replicates in CNS, moves to salivary glands.
What is the incubation period for rabies
2 weeks to 6 months dependant on innervation at bite site, distance of bite from cns, virus variant, amount of virus at exposure
Once clinical signs are present with rabies, how long until death
7-10 days
Describe what 10% of dogs get when they get rabies
Vicious form of rabies with foaming mouth.
What are the majority of dogs with rabies like
Lethargic and poorly responsive
Describe the prodormal form of rabies
Change in behaviour, fever, pruritis…. Lasts 2-3 days. Followed by paralytic or furious form
Describe the paralytic form
Majority of canine cases, lethargy, difficulty swallowing, drooling, voice change, paralysis in wounded limb.
How long does the paralytic form of rabies last from onset of overt signs
1-7 days
Describe the furious form of rabies
Majority of feline cases, aggression, biting, hydrophobia, possible hyperesthesia, hyperreponsiveness, ataxia, paralysis
How long does the furious form of rabies last from overt signs of the disease until death
2-4 days
Describe the transmission of rabies
Through saliva. Also aerosolized virus from exposure to bats, ingestion of infected tissues is also possible. Organ transplant too.
What happens when rabies in saliva is dried
When exposed to open air
What is the risk of human infection following a rabid animal bite
5-80%
What is the risk of human infection following a scratch
0.1-1%
How do you diagnose rabies
Ifa of brain or nervous tissue. Submit the brain to a state approved laboratory.
How do you treat rabies
Fatal, dies within 7-10 days of clinical signs.
What do you do if you suspect rabies
Report disease under health of animals act
How do you recommend monitoring
10 days confined period after human exposure from a suspected dog or cat. Monitor for behavioural/neurological signs
What happens if a healthy dog or cat bites a human
Quarantined for 10 days
What happens if an unvaccinated cat/dog bites a human
Quarantined for 6 months. Monitored for onset of clinical signs. Vaccinate 1 month prior to release
What happens if a vaccinate dog or cat bites a human
Immediate revaccination for rabies. Owner monitors for 45 days
What happens if exposure is suspected
Immediately wash wound for 15mins. Remove contaminated clothing. Seek medical advice
What is the publics responsibility with rabies
Vaccination, keep pets on leash, stay away from wild animals
Describe the vaccination schedule for rabies
Vaccinated after 12 weeks, again 1 year later and then every year or 3 years depending on regulation. Ferrets are vaccinated yearly against rabies.
What’s special about rabies vaccination and traveling
Dependant on where you are going
What do wildlife departments do to help control rabies
Oral vaccines in bait.
What are most fungi considered
Opportunistic pathogen’s
What causes a fungal proliferation
Treatment with antibiotics which wipes out normal bacteria microflora, decreased immune system secondary to neoplasia, corticosteroids, diabetes mellitus
Describe the characteristics of fungal infections
Chronic and slow progressing. Inflammatory response is granulomatous, immunity is cell mediated
What is Dermatophytosis a.k.a. ringworm
Contagious infection of keratinized skin, hair, claws. Caused by one of several species of superficial fungi, the dermatophytes
Describe the host range for ringworm
Species are host adapted, but can cross host barriers. Any animal species may contact her dermatophytosis. Particularly important in cats and is zoonotic.
What is the general age range infected with ringworm
Most commonly a disease of young animals do to immaturity of immune system
What are the risk factors for dermatophytosis
Immune deficiency. Inadequate husbandry conditions, high population density, stress, poor nutrition
Which are the breeds of cats that are predisposed to dermatophytosis
Persians and Himalayan’s
What are the most common dermatophytes of cats and dogs
Microsporum canisMicrosporum gypseumTrichophyton mentagrophytes
Describe the dermatophytosis lesions
Circular areas of alopecia and scaling patches with central hair regrowth and inflamed edges. Often multiple lesions. Not all lesions are classic
Describe where the dermatophytosis lesions are on dogs
Face or paws
Describer where the dermatophytosis lesions are on cats
Ear pinnea and face
Why is dermatophytosis underdiagnosed in cats
Due to the variation in lesion presentation
How do you diagnose dermatophytosis
Woods lamp. Look for Applegreen florescence. Not all dermatophytes fluoresce. Fungal culture to confirm diagnosis and monitor treatment
What percentage of microsporum canis strains will flouresce a bright green color upon exposure to a uv light
50%
What materials can cause a false positive when diagnosing ringworm
Scales or dandruff and topical products which can florescence
How do you confirm that it’s a true positive when diagnosing ringworm
Bright green in hairs only. Allow the lamp five minutes to warm up
What do you do when you have fluorescing hairs in diagnosing ringworm
Sent for fungal culture. Pluck hair from edges of lesions using a sterile hemostat and submit. Or a toothbrush is vigorously combed over the lesions for 2 to 3 minutes. Wrap in plastic to submit to laboratory
Name the in clinic fungal culture method
DTM. Dermatophyte testing medium. Place hair on culture medium or inbed toothbrush. Cover plates and incubate at room temperature. Watch daily for growth.
How do you know that you have ringworm based on a culture
Look for off-white, fluffy to powdery colony with the red color change in the medium at the same time that the colony first appears. Examine them under the microscope for confirmation
How quickly does ringworm grow on culture medium
Growth happens within 7 to 14 days though plates are kept for 21 days before being deemed negative for growth
How do you perform the microscopic confirmation of ringworm
Brush a strip of clear tape over the colony. Mount tape sticky side down onto a drop of methyl blue on a microscope slide. Examine it 10 X to 40 X for typical appearance of dermatophyte macroconidia
Describe the appearance of microsporum canis generally speaking
Canoe shaped, thick walled macroconidia with terminal knobs
Describe how you would microscopically identify microsporum gypseum
Numerous thin walked macroconidia with slightly rounded proximal ends
Describe how you would microscopically identify trichiphyton mentagrophytes
Cigar shaped microconidia which may be few in number. Numerous globose microconidia . Spiral hypae might be present
How do you treat ringworm
Usually self limiting. Treatment strongly advised to accelerate recovery and minimize spread l
What does the best treatment for ringworm include
Topical, systemic and environmental treatment
How long do you do a treatment for ringworm
Continued until clinical and ideally mycologic cure is achieved, usually 8-16weeks
At what time in treatment do you repeat fungal culture for ringworm
After 2 months of treatment then once per month until 2 negative culture
Give an example of a ringworm topical treatment
Imaverol dilution with e collar.
Describe a systemic treatment for ringworm for dogs as well as cats
Itrafunol for cats. Ketoconazole in dogs.
Describe an environmental treatment for ringworm
Disinfect environment with diluted bleach
How is ringworm transmitted
Direct contact or fomites.
What is the protocol you should follow with ringworm
Handle infected patients with gloves and wash your hands. Disinfect cages and consultation tables with diluted bleach. Remind owners of the zoonotic nature of disease
Describe malassezia pachydermatis
Pear shape yeast. Part of normal flora of ear in small quantities. Can cause otitis externa in dogs, uncommon in cats and can also cause dermatitis
What are the predisposing factors of otitis externa
Conformation, lifestyle, obstructive lesions
Describe which conformations are most susceptible to otitis externa
Cocker spaniels, basset hounds, beagles, sharpeis, english Bulldogs, chow chows, poodles
What life style factors can predispose you to otitis externa
Swimming, grooming, excessive ear care
What types of obstructive lesions can cause otitis externa
Polyps, neoplasia
How do you treat otitis externa
Topical antibacterial, Antifungal, glucocorticoid combination therapy
What is malassezia dermatitis caused by
Secondary to allergies and excessive licking.
How do you treat malassezia dermatitis
Treated topically (surolan) or systemically (itraconazole)
Describe Candida albicans
Part of the normal flora of the mouth, intestine, lower urogenital tract of animals and humans
Describe the virulence of Candida albicans
Opportunistic, can invade locally and usually causes superficial infections of skin and mucosa. Can cause systemic infections in severely immunocompromised patients
What are different examples of candida
Whitish hyperkeratitis on tongue, mouth, stomach. Diaper rash in babies. Mastitis in cows. Vaginitis in women
What is a blastomyces dermatitidis
Slow growing dimorphic fungus. Mold form in the environment and very large yeast in the body. Most common systemic mycotic infection
Describe blastomycosis
Can affect many mammalian species but occurs most often in people and dogs. Outdoor roaming dogs near waterway have increased risk. Majorly August-October
Describe the dissemination of blastomycosis
Young male hunting dog inhales spores. Spores germinate in lung to large budding yeast form, most individual resist infection. Predisposition/heavy load leads to development of chronic granulomatous pneumonia. Usually then disseminates to skin, bone, prostate, testes, eyes. Blocks capillaries and forms ulcerations.
What are the clinical signs of blastomycosis
Fever, cough, weight loss, lameness, skin ulcers, uveitis
Describe histoplasma capsulatum
Dimorphic fungus, small yeast in tissue.
Where is histoplasmosis found
Mostly in soil, especially contaminated with bird or bat droppings
How do you get histoplasmosis
Inhalation of small microconidia. Oral exposure can also result in disease. Disease may remain confined to lungs, gi tract or may become disseminated.
What does histoplasmosis cause
Granulomatous pneumonia, lymphadenopathy, colitis, emaciation
What is cryptococcosis
Dimorphic fungus with the yeast phase Being infective. The yeast is fast growing and slimy.
What does c. Neoformans var. neoformans affect
Immunocompromised individuals. Frequent in bird manure
What does c. Neoformans var. Gatti affect
More virulent, can affect healthy individuals, associated with plant debris
What are the forms of cryptococcosis
Respiratory, cutaneous, cns, ocular forms
Describe cryptococcosis in cats
Unilateral or bilateral nasal discharge, sneezing, firm swelling over bridge of nose, submandibular lymphadenopathy
What can cryptococcosis cause in cats or dogs
Multifocal neurologic signs, ocular abnormalities, cutaneous lesions
What is aspergillosis
Mold. Causes regional or disseminated infection. Dogs more commonly affect than cats.
What breeds does systemic aspergillosis affect
Middle aged German shepherd
What breeds are affected with nasal aspergillosis
Medium to large breed dogs
Describe the appearance of aspergillus fumigatus
Common grey green mold found on moldy bread, cheese and oranges.
Describe aspergillus fumigatus
Causes a wide variety of disease depending on host predisposition. Can cause chronic sinusitis in dogs, cats, horses.
What are the limitations of zone of inhibition experiment
Designed for rapid growing bacteria. Ph and moisture etc can affect it
What are the factors that can affect efficiency of antibiotics in clinical cases
Site of infection, concentration of antibiotic in tissues, drug pharmacodynamics, host response
How do you do a gram stain
Crystal violetGrams iodineDecolorizerSafranin
Describe bacterial conjugation
Transmit info through sex pili between pos/Neg bacteria
What is bacterial transduction
Virus takes a portion of bacteria and gives it to another bacteria
What is bacterial transformation
Bacteria dies and DNa free floats and other bacteria pick it up
Do different strains of the Same bacteria look the same ?
Yes
How do you know if conjugation as transfer of dna has occurred ?
If two bacteria are individually resistant to different antibiotics as once mates they grew on plates with the presence of both antibiotics
What is a plaque
Clear areas in agar medium that was previously Seeded with bacteria. Represents the lysis of a phage infected bacterial cell
What are plaque forming units
Used to quantitate the number of infective phage particles in the culture
What stain do you use for yeast
Methylene blue
What is malassezia pachydermatis
The infections of ear and skin of dogs
What does malassezia pachydermatis look like in gram stain
Gram stain: purple and round
What does microsporum canis
Canoe with compartments
What does a microsporum gypseum
Thin cigars with a million of them
What does trichiphyton m look like microconidia
Small circles
What does tricophyton m macroconidium look lik
Cigars
What indicator is in dtm
Phenol red
What is resistance
Ability to ward off disease through our defenses
What is susceptibility
Vulnerability or lack of resistance
What are the two different types of the body’s defenses
Non specific defences (innate)Specific defences: immune response (acquired)
What is the first line of defence
Skin and mucous membranes, normal microbial flora
What is the second line of defence
Phagocytes, inflammation, fever, and antimicrobial substances
What is the third line of defence
Acquired immunity: lymphocytes and antibodies
What defences are considered non specific
1 and 2nd
What defences are considered specific
3rd line
What do non specific defences do
Protect us against any pathogenActs in the same way regardless of the pathogen
What is the mechanical process of the first line of defence
Physical barriers to entry or processes that remove microbes from body’s surface
What is the chemical form of the first line of defence
Substances made by the body that inhibit microbial growth and destroy them
Describe general characteristics of skin
Largest organ 3 layers: epidermis DermisHypodermis
Describe the epidermis
Top layer, consisting of dead cells rich in keratin
Describe the hypodermis
Sub cutaneous tissues
List some of the skin defences
Dryness and acidity of skin inhibit growth. Skin shedding removes microbes on skin surface Sebum creates a protective film that inhibits certain bacteriaPerspiration flushes the skin and has lysozymes to break down gram + bacteria cell walls
Which bacteria is usually involved in a dermatitis
Staphylococci bacteria since it is the normal inhabitant of the skin
Describe mucus membranes
Cover respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tract. Less protective than skin. Epithelial layer secretes mucus which is a slightly viscous glycoprotein. Mucus traps microbes and dust which prevents tracts from drying
Describe the ciliary escalator
Mucus membrane cells are covered with cilia that move in a wave- like motion to propel microbes and dust that become trapped in mucus upward toward the throat where it is coughed, sneezed or swallowed.
Describe saliva
Helps dilute the numbers of Microorganisms and wash them from the surface of teeth and mucus membranes in the mouth. Contains lysozymes that break down bacteria
Describe the characteristics of the stomach
Gastric secretions are a mixture of hydrochloric acid, enzymes, mucus. High acidity destroys most bacteria and toxins Some Microorganisms enter intestines by being protected in food particles.
Describe the characteristics of urogenital tract
Flow of urine cleanses the urethra Vaginal secretions move Microorganisms outside the body. Also slightly acidic to inhibit bacterial growth
Describe the lacrimal apparatus
Lacrimal glands produce tears, blinking spreads the tears over the eye, tears evaporate and drain into the nasolacrimal duct
What happens in the lacrimal apparatus if irritating substances or Microorganisms done in contact with the eye
Lacrimal glands produce more tears to wash away the irritating factor. Tears contain lysozyme.
What is commensalism
One organism benefits from a larger organisms which is unaffected
Where are normal microbiota found
Skin and GI tract.
What are normal microbiota good for
Reduces area available for pathogens to attach establish. Competes with pathogens for nutrients. Produces substances harmful to pathogens.alters conditions that affect the survival of pathogens. Usually harmless but can cause disease if conditions change
Describe the second line of defense
Phagocytosis, inflammation, fever, complement system, interferons
What is Phagocytosis
Ingestion of micro organisms or particles such as debris by phagocytic cells.
What white blood cells are Phagocytic
Neutrophils, eosinoPhils, macrophages
Phagocytosis is part of what process
Inflammation
Describe neutrophils
Highly phagocytic and motile. Active in initial stages of infection. Can leave the blood and enter infected tissue to destroy microbes and foreign particles
Describe eosinophils
Somewhat phagocytic Active in initial stages of infection. Ability to leave the bloodProduce toxic proteins against parasites such as helminthsDischarge peroxide ions to destroy helminths.
What does having a high number of eosinophils mean
Parasitic infections and allergic (hypersensitivity reactions)
Describe macrophages
Matured monocytes Active as infection progresses Dispose of bacteria, worn out blood cells as infection subsides. Involved in cell mediated immunity.
What are the two types of macrophages
Fixed and wandering
What is the other name for fixed macrophages
Histiocytes
What do wandering macrophages do
Roam the tissues and gather at sites or inflammation or infection.
What is chemotaxis
Chemical attraction of phagocytes to Microorganisms.
What are the chemotactic chemicals
Microbial products, wbc components, damaged tissue cells
Describe adherence
Attachment of phagocytes plasma membrane to the surface of the Microorganisms or other foreign material.
What is opsonization
The coating process with certain serum proteins that promote attachment of micro organism to the phagocyte
What is ingestion
Plasma membrane extends pseudopods that engulf the micro organism. The pseudopods join and fuse to create phagosomes.
Describe digestion in phagocytes
Phagosome in cytoplasm contacts lysosomes containing digestive enzymes and bacteriocidal substances. The two fuse membranes to form a phagolysosome.
What are the four mechanisms of phagocytosis
Chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion.
How do bacteria avoid distruction by phagocytosis
Have structures that inhibit adherence, some microbes can escape the phagosome before fuses with Lysozomes. so microbes can survive inside the phagocyte and require the low pH inside the phagolysosomes to replicate.
What is inflammation
Defense mechanism following tissue damage caused by microbial infection, physical agents such as heat electricity or sharp objects, or chemical agents such as acids or bases.
What are the four signs of information
Redness or Erythema, heat, swelling or edema, pain
What is acute inflammation
If the cause of inflammation is removed in a short period of time. Intense response
What is chronic inflammation
If the cause of information is difficult or cannot be removed. Longer-lasting and less intense response. Overall more destructive
What are the functions of inflammation
Destroy and remove the injurious agent if possible. If destruction is not possible, to limit the effects on the body if I can finding or walling off the injurious agent. Repair or replace damaged tissue.
What are the three stages of inflammation
Vasodilation and increased permeability of blood vessels, phagocytose migration and phagocytosis, tissue repair
Why is vasodilation part of the information process
Increased permeability permits defensive substances to pass through the walls of blood vessels and enter the injured area. Help deliver clotting elements to form a clot
What is vasodilation responsible for
The erythema and heat of inflammation.
What is increased permeability responsible for
The Edema of inflammation.
What is a localized accumulation of pus
Absess
What is vasodilation and increased permeability of blood vessels caused by
Chemicals released by damage cells in response to injury. Histamines, kinins, prostaglandins, leukotrienes.
What do histamines, kinins, prostaglandins, leukotrienes do
Attract phagocytic cells and T cells from the immune system
What is margination
When neutrophils and monocytes stick to lining of blood vessels
What is diapedesis
Phagocytes squeeze between the endothelial cells of blood vessels to reach the damaged area
What do monocytes mature into
Macrophages
What do macrophages do
Phagocytize destroyed tissues, dead neutrophils, invading Microorganisms
What do dead neutrophils and macrophages form
Pus
What happens to pus
Fistulates or is gradually destroyed and absorbed by the body
When does tissue repair start
During active phase of inflammation but is not completed until harmful substances have been removed.
When is a tissue repaired
When it’s stroma or parenchyma produces new cells
What is a stroma
Supportive connective tissue
What is a parenchyma
Functioning part of the tissue
What is fever
Abnormally high body temperature produced in response to a bacterial or viral infection.
What part of the brain controls body temperature
Hypothalamus
What does a chill in a fever mean
The body responses to cold temperature with increased blood vessel constriction, increased rate of metabolism and shivering
What is the crisis point in a fever
Where the infection subsides the body temperature lowers and he losing mechanisms such as vasodilation and sweating occur
What are two antimicrobial substances
Proteins of the complement system, interferons
What is the complement system
Complement system consists of a group of serum proteins produced by the liver that activate one another in the cascade to destroy invading microorganisms. Complement proteins are in active until they are split into products
What happens when the three complement system pathways end in the activation of C3
Inflammation,opsonization or phagocytosis, cytolysis
What are interferons
Antiviral proteins produced in response to a viral infection. Host cell specific but not virus specific
What do alpha and beta IFN interferons do
Induce uninfected cells to produce antiviral proteins that prevent viral replication
What does the gamma IFN interferon do
Activates neutrophils and microphones is to kill bacteria by phagocytolysis
What Do the specific defenses of the immune system do
Recognizes foreign substances is not belonging to the body develops a specific immune response against them
What are antigens
Substances that provoked a specific response
What are anti-bodies
Proteins produced by the body in response to an antigen
What is acquired immunity
Protection and animal develops again certain types of microbes or foreign substances. Developed during an individual’s life time. Can be acquired actively or passively
What is active immunity
Immune system response following exposition to microorganisms or foreign substances
What is passive immunity
Antibodies are preformed by some other animal. Lasts only as long as the antibodies are present which is weeks to months
What is humoral immunity. Antibody mediated
Production of antibodies against foreign organisms and substances.
Where are anti-bodies found
In extracellular fluid’s such as blood plasma, lymphatic fluid, mucus secretions
Which cells are responsible for production of antibodies
The B lymphocytes
What does a Humoral immunity protect against
Bacteria, bacterial toxins and viruses
What is cell mediated immunity
Involve specialized T cells that acts against foreign organisms or tissues. Regulate the activation and proliferation of other immune system cells like macrophages
What is cell mediated immunity the most effective against
Bacteria and viruses within phagocytic or infected host cells, fungi, protozoa, Helminthes.
What is cell mediated immunity important for
Primary responder to transplanted tissue an important defense against cancer
What are antigens
Substance that the body recognizes as being foreign against which enemy in response will be mounted. Most are proteins are large polysaccharides. Lipids nucleic acid’s are usually only anti-genic if combined with proteins are polysaccharides.
What are non-microbial agents that have antigens
Pollen, egg white, blood cell surface molecules, serum proteins from other individuals
What are antigenic determinant’s or epitopes
Specific region on the surface of an antigen against which anti-bodies are formed. An antigen usually has several antigenic determinant sites that cause the production of different anti-bodies
What is a Hapten
Substance of low molecule wait that does not cause the formation of antibodies by itself but does when combined with the carrier molecule
What are antibodies
Highly specific proteins that are made in response to an antigen. Recognize unbind antigens. Hope to neutralize or destroy antigens
Describe the structure of an anti-body
Each anybody has at least two identical binding sites that bind antigenic determinant.
What is a valance
Number of antigen binding sites. Most anti-bodies are bivalent and are monomers
Describe the shape of an antibody monomer
It is a Y shape with 2 antigen binding sites
What does the variable region of the antibody monomer do
Has 2 binding sites that are antigen specific.
What are the constant regions for
For the 5 classes of immunoglobulins
What is the FC region of the antibody monomer
Fragment that crystallized in cold storage. If exposed after both arms Jim binding sites attached to an antigen the FC regions of adjacent antibodies combined complement and destroy the pathogen. Can bind to a cell and leave the antigen binding sites of adjacent antibodies free to react with antigens.
Describe the immunoglobulin classes
Five classes, determined by the constant regions. Each class please a different role in the immune response.
Describe immunoglobulin G
Bivalent monomer. Accounts for 80% of all antibodies in zero. Readily crosses walls of blood vessels and enters tissue fluids. Protect against circulating bacteria and viruses, neutralize bacterial toxins, trigger complement system, enhances phagocytosis when bound to an antigen. Maternal IgG can cross the placenta and confirm passive immunity to a fetus also present in the colostrum. 
Describe immunoglobulin M
It is a pentamer. 5 to 10% of antibodies in serum. It’s large-size prevents RGM from moving freely and it generally remains in blood vessels. First antibodies to appear in response to initial exposure to an antigen in and relatively short-lived, a second exposure results mostly in increased IgG production. Valuable in the diagnosis of the disease since it is first to appear in primary infection and is very short-lived. Effective in aggregating antigens and then reactions were involving complement. Can enhance ingestion of target cells by phagocytic cells
Describe immunoglobulin a
10 to 15% of antibodies in serum, but common in most mucous membranes and body secretions. Most abundant immunoglobulin in the body. Has two Forms
What are the two forms of immunoglobulin a
Serum IGA, secretory IGA
Describe the serum IGA
Circulates mostly as a monomer
Describe the secretory IGA
Diameter, produced by plasma cells and mucous membranes, enters and passes through a mucosal so word acquires a secretary component that protect against enzymatic Tegra Dacian. Prevents attachment of pathogens to mucosal surfaces. Present in colostrum
What is immunoglobulin D
0.2% of serum antibodies. Bivalent monomer. Found in blood and lymph and on surfaces of B cells. No known function in serum. Act as antigens receptors on B cells.
What is immunoglobulin E
0.002% of total serum antibodies. They’re specialized cells that participate in allergic reactions. Once binded to an antigen, it triggers release of histamine which causes an allergic reaction.
Describe the B cell cycle
B cells exposed to antigens.Activate B cells Divide and differentiate into plasma cells Antibody production
Where are B cells created
From stem cells in red bone marrow in adults and liver in fetuses
Where do mature B cells migrate to
Lymphoid organs such as lymph nodes or spleen
How do B cells recognize antigens
By means of antigen receptors on their cell surfaces. Once stimulated they immediately make antibodies associated with the assistance of T cells and cell mediated immune system.
How many antigens can b cells recognize
An infinite number of antigens
Each B cell can produce antibodies against how many antigens
Only one specific antigen
What does a B cell coming in contact with an antigen trigger
Proliferation of a cell that is specific for that antigen into a clone of cells with the same specificity.
What are the two series of self tolerance for B cells
Self and nonself. B and T cells that interact with self antigens are destroyed during fetal development. The body discriminates between dangerous and non dangerous cells
DeScribe the antigen-antibody complex
When an antibody encounters an antigen for which it is specific. Tags foreign cells and molecules for distraction by phagocytes and complements.
What components are part of the antigen-antibody complex
Agglutination, opsonization, neutralization, ab-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity an action of complement
What is an antibody titer
Amounts of antibody and serum. Reflects the intensity of your humoral response.
What is the primary immune system response
Initial contact with the antigen, slow rise in antibody tighter. First IGM then IgG. Gradual decline in antibody tighter and takes a few days.
What is the secondary immune system response or memory response
Immune response after second exposure to an antigen. Memory cells rapidly differentiate into an anti-body producing plasma cells. Mostly IgG antibodies.
What cells are involved in cell mediated immunity
Involve specialized lymphocytes. T cells. Response to intracellular pathogens and non-transferred to the fetus via placenta
What is a cytokine
Chemical messengers within the immune system.
What is a interleukin
Messenger between leukocytes
What is a chemokine
induce the migration of leukocytes into infected areas
What are interferons
Help protect against viral infection of cells
What is the tumor necrosis factor
Very important and inflammatory reactions
What is the colony stimulating factor
Stimulate formation of various blood cells
Where do T cells develop
In stem cells of bone marrow
Where do the T cells migrate to
Migrate from bone marrow and mature in thymus then migrate to lymphoid organs
What are the types of T cells
Helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, delayed hypersensitivity T cells, suppressor T cells, CD4 cells, CD8 cells
What must happen for a T cell to interact with an antigen
Antigen must be displayed on the cell surface called and antigen presenting cell.
What are the primary antigen presenting cells
Macrophages and dendritic cells.
What do antigen presenting cells do
Ingest and process the antigen, then displays fragments of antigen on the cell surface
What is necessary for a T-cell to recognize the antigenic fragment on the antigen presenting cell
Must be a close association with cell surface self molecules which are components of major histocompatibility complexes.
How is IL -1 created
Binding of helper T cells to antigen MHC complex on antigen presenting cell stimulates the secretion of IL-1
What does IL-1 do
Activates helper T cell which secretes IL-2
What does IL-2 do to the helper T cell
Stimulates receptor on that helper T cell which will proliferate and differentiate into mature helper T cells.
Which T cells are affected by IL-2
It is non specific but only Helper T cells that were stimulated by an antigen have IL-2 receptors
What do cytotoxic T cells do
Destroy target cells on contact.
How does a cytotoxic T cell lyse a cell
Cytotoxic T cell binds with MHC antigen complex on the cell surface of a viral infected cell. Releases a protein called perforin which Lyses the infected cell by forming pores in the cell membrane.
How long do cytotoxic T cells work for
Continue their activity as long as Antigen persists then undergo apoptosis
Describe delayed hypersensitivity T cells
Probably not separate population but mostly helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells. Associated with certain allergic reactions and rejection of organ transplant
What are suppressor T cells
Regulate the immune system by turning it off with an antigen is no longer present. May be helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells.
What activates the macrophages
Increased phagocytic capacities, larger and ruffled. Stimulation is primarily by ingestion of antigenic Material. Cytokines released by helper T cells. Ability to attack and destroy cancer cells. Antigen presenting cells.
Describe natural killer cells
Attack and destroy virus infected cells and tumor cells. Can undergo large parasites. doesnt need to be stimulated by an antigen. not phagocytic. participates in antibody dependant cell mediated cytotoxicity.
describe the production of antibodies
T independent antigens directly stimulate B cells to produce antibodies
describe antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity
The parasite becomes coated with antibodies leaving their FC region extended. Immune system cells attached to the parasite and secrete lytic enzymes and other factors that destroy the parasite.
What is an auto immune disorder
Sometimes the immune system identifies parts of its own body as foreign and attacks them.
What is a hyper sensitivity or allergic reaction
The immune system over reacts to foreign invaders by producing too many antibiotics or other chemicals
What is immuno suppression
When the immune system does not react or cannot generate an appropriate immune response
What are the three types of immune disorders
Hypersensitivity, immune deficiencies, immunoproliferative disorders
What are the two types of hypersensitivity reaction
Allergic reaction, auto immune disease
What is hypersensitivity
Antigenic response beyond what is considered normal. Animal is sensitized to an antigen if exposed to that antigen again the immune system reacts in a damaging manner.
What are the four types of hypersensitivity
Type one, type two, type III, type 4
What is a type one hypersensitivity reaction
Anaphylactic shock
What is a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
Cytotoxic
What is a type III hypersensitivity reaction
Immune complex
What is a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction
Cell mediated or delayed hypersensitivity
Describe an anaphylactic reaction
Allergic reaction provoked by reexposure to a specific Allergan. Exposure may be by ingestion, inhalation, injection, direct contact.
What is the treatment for an anaphylactic reaction
Epinephrine, antihistamines, corticosteroids
Describe the sensitization form of an anaphylactic reaction
An antigen is presented to helper T cells that stimulate the B cell production of ige antibodies specific to the antigen. Ige antibodies bind to the FC receptors on the surface of mast cells and basophils. Mast cells and basophils coated with ige become sensitized
Describe the. Second exposure form of an anaphylactic reaction
He antigen combines with two IGE antibodies on sensitized cells. Degranulation and secretion of histamines, prostaglandins and some other chemicals. Vasodilation of blood vessels and smooth muscle contraction
What is a systemic anaphylactic reaction
If antigen appears in blood, the result can be either anaphylactic shock or more localized reaction
What is a localized anaphylactic reaction
If Antigen enters to the skin, is ingested or inhaled the localized reaction is typical.
What is anaphylactic shock
Rare, life-threatening, immediate allergic reaction to food, and injection, and insect sting. Signs include severe respiratory distress and the sudden onset of diarrhea, vomiting, excessive drooling, shock, seizures, coma, death. Animals gums are very pale and the limbs are cold. Heart rate is fast but post is weak.
How do you counteract an anaphylactic reaction
IV injections of epinephrine is administered to counteract the reaction. Treatment for other associated problems such as difficulty breathing may be needed.
What is hives or urticaria
Allergic reaction to drugs, chemicals, something eaten, insect bites, sunlight. Develops within 20 minutes of exposure to allergens
Describe hives
These severe type of anaphylactic reaction. Small bumps occur on the skin. Often the hair stands up over the swellings and sometimes they itch
Describe facial swelling
Most often noticed on the face especially on the lips, the muzzle, around the eyes. Usually not life-threatening. Give antihistamines and corticosteroids
What is allergic asthma
Most often in cats. Occurs more frequently in summer and after going outdoors. Asthma attacks can be moderate or lengthy and severe
Describe the signs of allergic asthma
Coughing, shortness of breath, mouth breathing, breathing with abdominal efforts. This conviction occurs as a result of construction of the breathing passages triggered by the release of compounds such as histamines that combat allergens
What is the treatment for allergic asthma
Oral or inhaled corticosteroids but they do not treat the underlying cause of the asthma. Determining allergic trigger can be difficult
What’s one warning about cats with asthma attacks
Decompensation and stress can be fatal to them, may need sedation before procedures like radiographs
