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BVetMed - Complete course (Years 1, 2, 3) > Microbiology and Immunology (1st) > Flashcards

Microbiology and Immunology (1st) Flashcards

All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.

1
Q

What are microbes and micro organisms

A

Minute living things that individually are usually too small to be seen with the unaided eye. Includes bacteria, fungi, protozoa and microscopic algae and viruses

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2
Q

What do micro organisms do

A

Help maintain the balance of living organisms and chemicals in our environment

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3
Q

What do soil microbes do

A

Breakdown waste and incorporate nitrogen gas from the air into organic compounds’s

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4
Q

What does pathogenic mean

A

Disease causing

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5
Q

What are some benefits of microbes

A

Makes food, clothing

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6
Q

What’s the genus

A

The first name which is capitalized

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7
Q

What is the specific epithet

A

The species name which is not capitalized

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8
Q

What are bacteria

A

Relatively simple, single celled organisms. Unicellular

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9
Q

What are prokaryotes

A

Bacterial cells which includes bacteria and Archaea

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10
Q

What is Bacillus

A

Rod shaped bacteria

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11
Q

What is coccus

A

Spherical shaped bacteria

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12
Q

What is spirilli

A

Corkscrew shaped bacteria

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13
Q

How do bacteria reproduce

A

They reproduce by binary fission

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14
Q

How do bacteria move

A

They moved by use of their flagella and cilia

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15
Q

What are bacterial cell walls composed of

A

They are composed of peptidoglycan

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16
Q

What is archaea

A

Consists of prokaryotic cells lacking peptidoglycan

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17
Q

What is methanogens

A

Produce methane as a waste product from respiration

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18
Q

What are extreme halophiles

A

Salt loving bacteria

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19
Q

What are extreme thermophiles

A

Live-in hot, sulfurous water

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20
Q

What are fungi

A

Eukaryotes, organisms whose cells have a distinct nucleus containing the cells DNA surrounded by the nuclear membrane

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21
Q

What is the fungi cell wall composed of

A

Chitin

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22
Q

What are masses of fungi called

A

Mycelia

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23
Q

What is hyphae

A

The long filaments on fungi

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24
Q

What is Protozoa

A

Unicellular eukaryotic microbes that move by pseudopods flagella or cilia

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25
Q

How do protozoa live

A

They can live as free entities or as parasites that feed off of their host

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26
Q

What is algae

A

Photosynthetic eukaryotes that are both sexual and asexual. Their cell walls are composed of cellulose

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27
Q

What is a virus

A

Contains the core of one type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA her. Court is surrounded by a protein coat and a lipid membrane called an envelope

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28
Q

What are helminths

A

Flatworms and roundworms

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29
Q

How do you classify bacteria

A

The cell walls contain a protein carbohydrate complex called peptidoglycan

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30
Q

How do you classify Archaea

A

The cell walls, if present, lack of peptidoglycan

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31
Q

How do you classify eukarya

A

Protists are slime molds protozoa and algae. Fungi are unicellular yeast, multicellular molds and mushrooms. Plants are mosses, firms, cornifers and flowering plants. Animals are sponges, worms, insects, vertebrates

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32
Q

What is cell theory

A

All living things are composed of cells. All cells come from previous cells

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33
Q

What is biogenesis

A

Living cells can arise only from pre-existing living cells

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34
Q

What is aseptic technique’s

A

Prevent contamination by unwanted microbes

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35
Q

What is fermentation

A

Yeasts convert the sugars to alcohol in the absence of air

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36
Q

What is Pasteurization

A

Heat just enough to kill most of the bacteria that causes spoilage

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37
Q

What is the germ theory of disease

A

Micro organisms may cause disease

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38
Q

What is immunity

A

Protection from disease provided by a vaccination

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39
Q

What is vaccine

A

Cultures of avirulent microorganisms use for preventative inoculations

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40
Q

What is chemotherapy

A

Treatment of disease by using chemical substances

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41
Q

What is antibiotics

A

Chemicals produced naturally by bacteria and fungi to act against other microorganisms

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42
Q

What is synthetic drugs

A

Chemotherapeutic agents prepared from chemicals in the laboratory

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43
Q

What is bacteriology

A

The study of bacteria

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44
Q

What is mycology

A

The study of fungi

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45
Q

What is Parasitology

A

Study of protozoa and parasitic worms

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46
Q

What is genomics

A

The study of all organisms genes

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47
Q

What is immunology

A

The study of immunity

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48
Q

What is virology

A

The study of viruses

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49
Q

What is recombinant DNA

A

Fragments of human and animal DNA that codes for proteins attached to bacteria DNA. Can be used to make large quantities of desired protein

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50
Q

What is microbial genetics

A

Studies the mechanisms by which micro organisms inherit traits

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51
Q

What is molecular biology

A

Studies how genetic information is carried in molecules of DNA and how DNA directs the synthesis of proteins

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52
Q

What is microbial ecology

A

The study of the relationship between micro organisms and their environment

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53
Q

What is bioremediation

A

Using bacteria to break down pollutants

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54
Q

What is biotechnology

A

The commercial use of micro organisms to produce foods and chemicals

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55
Q

What is gene therapy

A

Inserting a missing genes or replacing the defective one in human cells

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56
Q

What is an infectious disease

A

Disease in which pathogens invade a susceptible host

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57
Q

What are the characteristics of prokaryotes

A

The DNA is not enclosed within a membrane. Their DNA is not associated with histones. Lack membrane enclosed organelles. So walls generally contain peptidoglycan and they divide by binary fission

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58
Q

What are the characteristics of eukaryotes

A

DNA is found in cells nucleus. DNA is associated with histone and non-histone proteins. Have a membrane enclosed organelles. Cell walls are chemically simple. Cell division involves mitosis

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59
Q

What are diplococci

A

Cocci that remain in Pairs after division

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60
Q

What is streptococci

A

Cocci that divide and remain in chain like patterns

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61
Q

What is tetrads

A

Divided into planes and remain in groups of four

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62
Q

What are sarcinae

A

Divided in three planes and remain in cube like groups of eight

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63
Q

What are staphylococci

A

Divide in multiple planes and form grape like clusters

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64
Q

What are single bacilli

A

Single rods of bacteria

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65
Q

What are diplobacilli

A

Appear in pairs after division

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66
Q

What is Streptobacilli

A

Occur in chains

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67
Q

What is coccobacilli

A

Oval bacteria that look like cocci

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68
Q

What is vibrios

A

Bacteria that look like curved rods

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69
Q

What is Spirilla

A

Have a corkscrew shape

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70
Q

What are sphirochetes

A

Helical, flexible spirals

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71
Q

What does monomorphic mean

A

Cells that maintain a single shape

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72
Q

What is pleomorphic

A

Cells that have many shapes

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73
Q

What is a glycocalyx

A

A substance that surrounds cells

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74
Q

What is a capsule

A

And organized substance that is firmly attached to sell walls

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75
Q

What is the slime layer

A

Unorganized and loosely attached substance to the cell wall

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76
Q

What is the extracellular Polymeric substance

A

A Glycocalyx help cells in the biofilm attached to their target environment into each other

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77
Q

What is the flagella

A

Long filamentous appendages that propel bacteria

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78
Q

What is a Atrichous

A

Bacteria lacking flagella

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79
Q

What is petritrichous

A

Flagella distributed over the entire cell

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80
Q

What is polar

A

At one or both poles or ends of the cell

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81
Q

What is monotrichous

A

A single flagella at one pole

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82
Q

What is lophotrichous

A

A tuft of flagella coming from one pole

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83
Q

What is amphitrichous

A

Flagella at both poles of the cell

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84
Q

What is motility

A

Ability of an organism to move by itself

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85
Q

What is taxis

A

Movement of bacterium toward or away from a particular stimulus

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86
Q

What is chemotaxis

A

Chemical stimuli

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87
Q

What is phototaxis

A

Light stimuli

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88
Q

What is H antigen

A

Flagellar protein

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89
Q

What is serovars

A

Variations within a species of gram negative bacteria

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90
Q

What are axial filaments

A

Bundles of fibrils that arise at the ends of the cell beneath an outer sheathe and spiral around the cell

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91
Q

What are fimbriae

A

Can occur at the poles of bacterial cell or can be evenly distributed over the entire surface of the cell

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92
Q

What is a pili

A

Usually longer that fimbriae. Pili are involved in motility and DNA transfer

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93
Q

What is twitching motility

A

Makes contact with another surface and then retracts

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94
Q

What is gliding motility

A

Smooth gliding movement of myxobacteria

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95
Q

What is conjugation pili

A

Used to bring bacteria together allowing transfer of DNA

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96
Q

What is the cell wall

A

Semi rigid structure responsible for the shape of the cell

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97
Q

What is peptidoglycan

A

Composed of a macromolecular network

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98
Q

What is Porins

A

Proteins in the membrane that form channels

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99
Q

What is a lipopolysaccharide

A

A complex molecule that has lipids and carbs and consists of three compounds. Lipid a, core polysaccharide, o polysaccharide

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100
Q

What is lipid a

A

Lipid portion of lipopolysaccharide

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101
Q

What is core polysaccharide

A

Attached to lipid a and contains unusual sugars. Provide stability

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102
Q

What is o polysaccharide

A

Functions as an antigen

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103
Q

What is mycolic acid

A

Hydrophobic waxy lipid in their cell walls

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104
Q

What is a protoplast

A

Cellular contents that remains surrounded by the plasma membrane. May remain intact if lyses does not occur

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105
Q

What is an L form

A

Proteus that loses their cell wall and swell into irregularly shaped cells

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106
Q

What is a spheroplast

A

Cellular contents, plasma membrane and remaining outer cell wall layer inside a spherical structure

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107
Q

What is osmotic lysis

A

Bursting of a cell due to osmosis

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108
Q

What is the plasma membrane

A

Thin structure lying inside the cell wall and enclosing the cytoplasm of the cell

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109
Q

What is the glycoprotein

A

Protein attached to carbohydrate

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110
Q

What is a glycolipid

A

Lipid attached to a carbohydrate

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111
Q

What is a fluid Mosaic model

A

Dynamic arrangement of phospholipids and proteins

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112
Q

What is selective permeability

A

Selective barriers through which materials can enter and exit the cell

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113
Q

What is the chromatophore or thylakoid

A

Enzymes involved in photosynthesis found in the plasma membrane and cytoplasm

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114
Q

What is a mesosome

A

Bacterial plasmid membranes having large irregular folds

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115
Q

What is simple diffusion

A

Overall movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

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116
Q

What is facilitated diffusion

A

Integral membrane proteins function as carriers that facilitate the movement of ions or large molecules across the plasma membrane

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117
Q

What is osmosis

A

Net movement of solvent molecules across a selectively permeable membrane from an area with a high concentration of solvent molecules to an area of low concentration of solvent molecules

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118
Q

What is osmotic pressure

A

Pressure required to prevent the movement of pure water into a solution containing some solutes

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119
Q

What is isotonic solution

A

Medium in which the overall concentration of solutes equal that Found inside a cell

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120
Q

What is a hypotonic solution

A

In medium in which the concentration of solutes is lower than that inside the cell

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121
Q

What is a hypertonic solution

A

Medium having a higher concentration of solutes than inside the cell has

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122
Q

What is active transport

A

Cell using energy to move substances across the plasma membrane

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123
Q

What is group translocation

A

Special form of active transport that occurs exclusively in prokaryotes, the substance is chemically altered during transport across the membrane

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124
Q

What is the cytoplasm

A

Substance of the cell inside the plasma membrane

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125
Q

What is the nucleoid region

A

The region containing DNA

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126
Q

What is bacterial chromosome

A

Circularly arranged thread of double-stranded DNA

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127
Q

What is a plasmid

A

Small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecules

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128
Q

What is a ribosome

A

The site of protein synthesis

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129
Q

What is an inclusion

A

Reserve deposits in cytoplasm in prokaryotic cells

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130
Q

What are metachromatic granules

A

Large inclusions that take their name from the fact that they can stain red with blue dyes

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131
Q

What is volutin

A

Represents a reserve of inorganic phosphate that can be used in the synthesis of ATP

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132
Q

What is a polysaccharide granule

A

Inclusion consisting of glycogen and starch

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133
Q

What is the lipid inclusion

A

And inclusion containing lipids

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134
Q

What is a carboxysome

A

Inclusions that contain the enzyme ribose 15 diphosphate carboxylase

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135
Q

What is a gas Vacuoles

A

Hollow cavity is found in many aquatic prokaryotic

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136
Q

What is a magnetosome

A

Inclusion surrounded by invagination’s of plasma membrane

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137
Q

What are endospores

A

Gram-positive bacteria forming specialized resting cells

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138
Q

What is sporulation

A

Endospore formation within a vegetative cell

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139
Q

What is germination

A

Endospore returning to a vegetative state

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140
Q

What are microtubules

A

Long, hollow tubes made up of a protein called tubulin

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141
Q

What is endocytosis

A

A segment of a membrane enclosing a particle and bringing it into the cell

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142
Q

What is cytosol

A

Fluid portion of cytoplasm

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143
Q

What is cytoskeleton

A

Provides support and shape

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144
Q

What is cytoplasmic streaming

A

Movement of eukaryotic cytoplasm from one part of the cell to another

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145
Q

What are organelles

A

Structures were specific shapes and specialized functions that are characteristic of eukaryotic cells

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146
Q

What is the nuclear envelope

A

Double membrane surrounding nucleus

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147
Q

What is a nuclear pore

A

Tiny channels in the membrane

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148
Q

What is nucleoli

A

Condensed regions of chromosomes where RNAs being synthesized

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149
Q

What are histones

A

DNA combined with several proteins

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150
Q

What is chromatin

A

Threadlike mass of protein

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151
Q

What is a chromosome

A

Chromatic and coils into shorter and thicker rodlike bodies

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152
Q

What is the endoplasmic reticulum

A

Extensive network of flattened membranous sacs called Cisternae

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153
Q

What is the golgi complex

A

First step in the transport pathways through an organelle

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154
Q

What’s a transport vesicle

A

Releases proteins into the cistern

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155
Q

What is secretory vesicles

A

Detach from the cistern and deliver the proteins to the plasma membrane

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156
Q

What is Lysosomes

A

Contain 40+ digestive enzymes

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157
Q

What are vacuoles

A

Space or cavity in the cytoplasm of a cell that is enclosed by a membrane

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158
Q

What is the mitochondria

A

Rod shaped organelles

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159
Q

What is the Cristae

A

Folds in the inner mitochondrial membrane

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160
Q

What is the matrix

A

Semi fluid substance in the center of the mitochondrion

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161
Q

What is a chloroplast

A

Membrane enclosed structure that contains both the pigment chlorophyll and the enzyme required for the light gathering phase of photosynthesis

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162
Q

What are thylakoids

A

Chlorophyll containing flat membranous sacs

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163
Q

What is peroxizomes

A

Contains enzymes

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164
Q

What is a centrosome

A

Important to cell division

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165
Q

What is an Endosymbiotic theory

A

Large bacterial cells which lost their cell walls and engulf smaller bacterial cells

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166
Q

What is a metabolism

A

The sum of all chemical reactions within a living organism

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167
Q

What is catabolism

A

Enzyme regulated chemical reactions that release energy (the breakdown of complex organic compounds into smaller compounds)

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168
Q

What is anabolism

A

Enzyme regulated energy requiring reactions (build complex organic molecules from simpler ones)

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169
Q

What are metabolic pathways

A

Sequences of chemical reactions

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170
Q

What is activation energy

A

Collision energy required for a chemical reaction

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171
Q

What is a reaction rate

A

Frequency of collisions containing sufficient energy to bring about a reaction

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172
Q

What is a catalyst

A

Substance that speed up chemical reactions

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173
Q

What is an enzyme

A

Biological catalyst

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174
Q

What is a substrate

A

Specific substrate for a specific enzyme

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175
Q

What is an enzyme-substrate complex

A

When enzyme orients the substrate into a position that increases the probability of a reaction

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176
Q

What is a turnover number

A

Maximum number of substrate molecules an enzyme molecule converts to product each second

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177
Q

What is an apoenzyme

A

Protein portion of an enzyme

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178
Q

What is a cofactors

A

A nonprotein component

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179
Q

What is a coenzyme

A

Is a cofactors is an organic molecule

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180
Q

What is a haloenzyme

A

Whole enzyme (apoenzyme + cofactor)

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181
Q

What is CoA

A

Synthesize and breakdown fats

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182
Q

What is denaturation

A

Loss of structure due to heat

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183
Q

What does saturated mean

A

All active sites are occupied

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184
Q

What are competitive inhibitors

A

Fill active site of an enzyme and competes with normal substrate

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185
Q

What is a noncompetitive inhibitor

A

Don’t compete with substrate. Interacts with another portion of the enzyme

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186
Q

What is allosteric inhibition

A

Binds to site other than the substrates binding site

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187
Q

What is feedback inhibition

A

Stops cell from making more substances than it needs

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188
Q

What is a ribozyme

A

RNA that functions like protein enzymes

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189
Q

What is oxidation

A

Removal of electrons

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190
Q

What is reduction

A

Gain of electron

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191
Q

What is dehydrogenation

A

Loss of hydrogen atoms

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192
Q

What is phosphorylation

A

Addition of phosphate group

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193
Q

What is the electron transport chain

A

Electron carrier sequences

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194
Q

What is photophosphorylation

A

Photosynthetic cells use of phosphorylation

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195
Q

What is carbohydrate catabolism

A

Breakdown of carbohydrate molecules

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196
Q

What is glycolysis

A

Oxidation of glucose to pyruvic acid

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197
Q

What is enther-doudoroff pathway

A

Produces 2 NADPH and 1 ATP

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198
Q

What is cellular respiration

A

ATP generating process

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199
Q

What is aerobe

A

Uses oxygen

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200
Q

What is an anaerobe

A

Does not use oxygen

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201
Q

What is aerobic respiration

A

Final electron receptor is O2

202
Q

What is anerobic respiration

A

Final electron acceptor is an inorganic molecule

203
Q

What is the kerbs cycle

A

Cycle where the potential chemical energy stored in acetyl CoA is released step by step

204
Q

What is decarboxylation

A

Loss of one CO2

205
Q

What is the electron transport chain

A

Carrier molecules that are capable of oxidation and reduction

206
Q

What is flavoproteins

A

Proteins containing flavin

207
Q

What is cytochromes

A

Proteins with iron containing group

208
Q

What is ubiquinones

A

Non protein carriers

209
Q

What is chemiosmosis

A

ATP synthesis using electron transport chain

210
Q

What is fermentation

A

Release of energy from sugars. Anaerobic.

211
Q

What is lactic acid fermentation

A

Glucose oxidized to two molecules of pyruvic acid

212
Q

What is alcohol fermentation

A

Glycolysis of glucose ➡️ 2 pyruvic acid and 2 ATP

213
Q

What is heterolactic

A

Produces lactic acid

214
Q

What is photosynthesis

A

Synthesis of organic compounds

215
Q

What is carbon fixation

A

Synthesis of sugars by use of CO2

216
Q

What are some of the destructive and beneficial actions of microbes

A

Breakdown waste, industrial uses, causes sickness and disease

217
Q

What is a genus and epithet

A

Genus is the first word that is capitalized. Epithet is the second word that is not capitalized.

218
Q

What groups of microbes are prokaryotic

A

Bacteria and archaea. No nucleus

219
Q

What are eukaryotic microbes

A

Protists, fungi, plants, animals. Have no nucleus

220
Q

What are the three domains

A

Bacteria, archaea, eukarya

221
Q

What is the cell theory

A

All living things are composed of cells, cells are the basic unit of life, all cells arise from pre-existing cells

222
Q

What evidence supported spontaneous generation

A

Maggots suddenly appearing on a corpse

223
Q

How was spontaneous generation disproved

A

Pasteur: 2 jars filled with rotting meat. 1 covered and one uncovered. One had maggots appeared

224
Q

What is the germ theory of disease

A

Microorganisms enter a host, cause physical and chemical change, causing malfunction of normal system function

225
Q

What is the importance of Koch postulates

A

Provided a good general guideline to identify pathogens

226
Q

What is the significance of jenners discovery

A

Explored innovations and immunity leading to the discovery of vaccines

227
Q

What was ehrlichs magic bullet

A

Synthetic cure for diseases : chemotherapy

228
Q

What is microbial genetics

A

The study of small bacteria

229
Q

What is molecular biology

A

Branch that deals with the molecular basis of biological activity

230
Q

What are beneficial uses of bacteria

A

Bacteria in herbivores that ferment fibers and industrial uses

231
Q

What is biotechnology

A

Industry and food production using microbes

232
Q

What is recombinant DNA

A

Cloning to make bacteria to find a cure

233
Q

Why are biofilms important

A

Give microbes a layer of protection

234
Q

What factors contribute to emergence of infectious disease

A

Microbial adaption, climate, intent to harm

235
Q

What is the main feature that distinguishes prokaryotes from eukaryotes

A

Prokaryotes have no nucleus

236
Q

How would you be able to identify streptococci through a microscope

A

Spherical shaped bacteria in chains

237
Q

Why are bacterial capsules medically important

A

Gives bacteria protection against the environment and impairs phagocytosis

238
Q

How do bacteria move

A

They move by flagella, cilia

239
Q

Why are drugs that target cell walls useful

A

Without a cell wall, the bacteria is susceptible to destruction by chemicals

240
Q

Why are mycoplasmas resistant to antibiotics that interfere with cell wall synthesis

A

Because they lack a cell wall

241
Q

How do protoplasts differ from L forms

A

Protoplasts need penicillin to lose it’s cell wall whereas L form can lose it spontaneously or in response to penicillin.

242
Q

Which agents can cause injury to the bacterial plasma membrane

A

Antimicrobial agents and alcohol cause subsequent cell death

243
Q

How are simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion similar. How are they different

A

Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion are similar because they are both methods of diffusion but facilitated diffusion requires a transporting molecule

244
Q

Where is the DNA located in a prokaryotic cell

A

In the cytoplasm

245
Q

What is the general function of inclusions

A

They are membrane enclosed nutrient storage structures

246
Q

Under what conditions do endospores form

A

When there is a lack of nutrients in the cell

247
Q

What is a nucleoid

A

Region in the cytoplasm where DNA is localized in prokaryotes

248
Q

What is a nucleus

A

Area containing a nuclear membrane where the nucleolus resides.

249
Q

What is smooth er

A

Synthesis of lipids/carbs

250
Q

What is a rough er

A

Site of antibody production

251
Q

What are three organelles are not associated with the Golgi complex.

A

Centrioles, mitochondria, nucleolus

252
Q

What is catabolism vs anabolism

A

Breakdown of complex organic molecules into simpler ones. Anabolism: buildup of complex organic molecules from simpler ones

253
Q

How is ATP an intermediate between catabolism and anabolism

A

Breakdown of fats, protein and carbs = catabolism ➡️ turns adp into ATP ➡️ energy released creates molecules = anabolism

254
Q

What is a coenzyme

A

A non protein compound necessary for the functioning of an enzyme

255
Q

Why is enzyme specificity important

A

Seperates all reactions

256
Q

What happens to an enzyme below it’s optimal temperature? Above it’s optimal temperature?

A

It won’t work. It denatures with heat

257
Q

Why is feedback inhibition noncompetitive inhibition

A

Both types slow enzyme activity

258
Q

Why is glucose such an important molecule for organisms

A

Helps to make ATP

259
Q

Outline the three ways that ATP is generated

A

Glycolysis, fermentation, kerbs cycle

260
Q

What is the purpose of metabolic pathways

A

Series of chemical reactions occurring within a cell

261
Q

What happens during the preparatory and energy conserving stages of glycolysis

A

Energy is conserved in the form of ATP. As part of the preparatory state, 2 ATP molecules are consumed

262
Q

What is the value of the pentose phosphate and entner-doudoroff pathways if they produce only one ATP molecule

A

Good for bacteria aerobes due to low ATP yield per glucose

263
Q

What are the products of the Krebs cycle

A

8 nadh and 2 fadh2

264
Q

How do carrier molecules function in the electron transport chain

A

Transports electrons through the electron transport chain

265
Q

Define innoculated

A

Introduced into environment

266
Q

Define contaminants

A

Unwanted microbes

267
Q

Define aseptic technique

A

Technique to exclude contaminants

268
Q

Define steralized

A

Kills all bacteria

269
Q

Define broth cultures

A

Large number of bacteria, easy to transport

270
Q

Define agar slants

A

Good growth surface, easy to store and transport

271
Q

Define agar deep

A

Used to grow bacteria who need less oxygen, also used to check motility

272
Q

What is an innoculating loop

A

Loop used to inoculate

273
Q

What is an inoculating needle

A

Needle used to inoculate agar deeps

274
Q

What is an agar slant inoculation

A

Inoculate a slant by streaking the loop back and forth on the surface of the agar

275
Q

What is agar deep innoculation

A

Innoculate an agar deep by stabbing into the agar with a needle

276
Q

How do you inoculate a broth

A

Inoculate a broth by taking a piece of the bacteria and put it into the liquid

277
Q

Why should the entire wire of the inoculating loop be red

A

For disinfection

278
Q

Why don’t we set down the cap

A

Contamination

279
Q

How many times do we flame the opening of the tube

280
Q

Why must the loop be cooled before you pick up bacteria

A

So that you don’t kill them and cause an aerosol

281
Q

What in the broth signals growth of bacteria

282
Q

Which bacteria were gram positive

283
Q

Which bacteria were gram negative

284
Q

What is a smear

A

Thin film of bacteria cells

285
Q

What is fixing

A

Kills bacteria. Coagulated proteins from the cells will cause the cells to stick to the slide

286
Q

What is heat fixing

A

Use heat to stick cells to slide

287
Q

What is chemical fixing

A

Put methanol on cells to fix it to the slide

288
Q

What is a chromophore

A

Colored ion

289
Q

What charge does a basic stain have

290
Q

What charge does an acidic stain have

291
Q

Define simple stain

A

Only one stain

292
Q

Define direct stain

A

Stains the bacteria

293
Q

Define negative stain

A

Stains the background

294
Q

Which stain was used in this lab

A

Methylene blue

295
Q

What bacteria are used in thiS lab

A

S. EpidermidisB. Megaterium

296
Q

Describe the procedure of the simple stain from a solid medium

A

place one loop fulls of water on the slide. Transfer a very small amount of the culture with the sterile loop. Mix with the water on the slide.pass the slide under the flame of a burner three times. Cover the spear with methylene blue and leave it for 30 seconds. Wash off methylene blue. Blot it dry.

297
Q

Describe the procedure of a simple stained from a liquid medium

A

Place 2 loop fulls of the Liquid culture on the slide with the sterile loop. Spread the bacteria within the circle. Pass the slide through flame three times. Cover the smear with methylene blue and leave it for 30 seconds. Wash off methylene blue, blot it dry.

298
Q

What happens if you apply too much heat

A

It distorts the cells

299
Q

Define negative stain

A

Stains the background

300
Q

What does a negative stained bacteria look like

A

Bacteria appears clear against Gray background

301
Q

What is considered a colloidal stain

A

India ink or eosin

302
Q

What stain did we use

303
Q

Do you heat fix in a negative stain ? And why

A

No. Less distortion so it shows morphology and size

304
Q

What are cocci bacilli

A

Short, oval bacilli

305
Q

What bacteria did we use in this lab

A

B. SubtilusS. Epidermidis

306
Q

Describe the procedure of a negative stain

A

Please drop of Nickerson near one end of slide. Mix new full of broth culture in drop. Draw slide across surface like blood sample. Let smear air dry.

307
Q

What is a gram stain

A

Differential stain that classifies gram - or gram +

308
Q

What is the first step of gram staining

A

Primary stain. Crystal violet which stains purple and is basic

309
Q

What is the second step in gram staining

A

Mordant. Grams iodine.

310
Q

What is the third step of gram staining

A

Decolorizing agent. Ethanol

311
Q

What is the fourth step of gram staining.

A

Secondary stain. Safranin.

312
Q

What is the color of gram negative

313
Q

What is the color of gram positive

314
Q

What are bacterial cell walls composed of

A

Peptidoglycan

315
Q

What bacteria were used in this lab

A

S. AureusE. ColiB. Subtilus

316
Q

Describe the procedure for a Gram stain

A

With a fixed smear: cover smear with crystal violet for 30 seconds. Wash. Cover smear with grams iodine for 10 seconds. Wash. Decolorize. Wash. Cover smear with safranin for 30 seconds. Wash. Blot.

317
Q

Are staphylococcus gram negative or Positive

A

Gram positive

318
Q

What are structural stains

A

Used to identify and study the structure of bacteria

319
Q

What is an endospores and how does stain penetrate it

A

Heat and chemical resistant. Formed from a lack of nutrients. Use 5 mins of steam

320
Q

What stains endospores

A

Malachite green

321
Q

What bacteria are used in this lab

A

B. MegateriumB. Subtilus

322
Q

Describe the procedure for staining endospores

A

Please a piece of absorbant paper over the smear. Cover paper with Malachite green. Steam the slide for five minutes. Wash. Cover smear with safranin for 30 seconds wash. Blot

323
Q

What is the streak plate technique

A

Do it in 4 quadrants. Each streak crosses previous quadrant twice

324
Q

What is the spread plate technique

A

Diluted specimen is spread over surface

325
Q

In the pour plate technique what is the dilution of the first bottle

326
Q

In the pour plate technique what is the dilution of the second bottle

327
Q

In the pour plate technique what is the dilution of the third bottle

A

1:1,000,000

328
Q

What is important with the agar media

A

Mixing the inoculum by rolling between your hands

329
Q

What is selective media

A

Contain chemicals that prevent growth of unwanted bacteria

330
Q

What is enrichment media

A

Chemicals enhance growth of desired bacteria

331
Q

What is differential media

A

Nutrients that allow distinguish one bacteria from another

332
Q

What nutrients are in tsa

A

0.5% peptone0.8% NaCl1.5% agar

333
Q

What is msa agar and what grows on it

A

1.0% peptone7.5% NaCl1.5% agar1.0% mannitol0.025% phenol redGram + grows

334
Q

What is in emb agar and what grows on it

A

1.0% peptone1.5% agar0.5% lactose0.5% sucrose0.04% eosin0.0065% methylene blueGram -

335
Q

What bacteria were used in this lab

A

E. ColiP. AeruginosS. AureusS. Epidermidis

336
Q

What happens when E. coli is on EMB agar

A

It turns metallic green

337
Q

What grows on mannitol salt agar and what color does it turn

A

S. Aureus and it turns yellow

338
Q

What is the fermentation tube

A

Contains phenol red. Detects acid and gas production from carbohydrates

339
Q

What is MRVP test

A

Distinguishes organisms that produce acid from glucose or neutral production = acetoin.

340
Q

What happens if it’s a positive MR test

A

It remains red. The ph = below 4.4

341
Q

If the MR test is orange red

A

The ph 4.4-6.0

342
Q

What happens if the MR test is yellow

A

Ph above 6.0

343
Q

If acetoin is present

A

The upper part: turns red Negative: light brown

344
Q

What happens to citrate agar if it’s a positive test

A

Changes to blue

345
Q

What bacteria is used in the lab

A

E. ColiE. AerogenesA. FaecalisP. Vulgaris

346
Q

P. Vulgaris ferments what?

A

Glucose and sucrose

347
Q

What is oxidizing

A

Removing electrons

348
Q

What is reducing

A

Accepts electrons

349
Q

What is respiration

A

Oxidative metabolism

350
Q

What is aerobic respiration

A

O2 is the final electron acceptor

351
Q

What is oxidase test

A

Determines presence of cytochrome c.

352
Q

What does catalase do

A

Breaks down hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen

353
Q

What is anaerobic respiration

A

Inorganic compounds is final electron acceptors.

354
Q

Which bacteria was used

A

B. SubtilusE. ColiP. AeruginosaL. Lactis

355
Q

If it is positive what happens in the oxidase test

A

Oxidase positive bacteria turn oxidase pink to purple to black.

356
Q

In the nitrate test what does it mean if the broth turns red

A

Nitrates are present

357
Q

What is p. Aeruginosa

A

Oxidase positive

358
Q

What is e. Coli

A

Oxidase negative.

359
Q

Were any bacteria catalase positive

A

All bacteria were

360
Q

What does obligate mean

A

Require something

361
Q

What does facultative mean

A

Can live both with or without something

362
Q

What does the dye in the medium change color to

A

Turns pink when oxygen is present

363
Q

What do obligate aerobes need

364
Q

What do facultative anaerobes need

A

Either oxygen or no oxygen

365
Q

What do obligate anaerobes need

366
Q

What do microaerophiles need

A

Grows best in 5%-10% carbon dioxide

367
Q

What is a co2 jar used for

A

Grows microaerophiles

368
Q

What is a reducing media

A

Reduced concentration of oxygen

369
Q

What is sodium thioglycolate

A

Used in thioglycolate broth

370
Q

What is special about a brewer anaerobic jar

A

Oxygen is excluded

371
Q

What is anaerobic incubators

A

Air is evacuated and replaced with a mixture of co2 and nitrogen

372
Q

Which bacteria is used in this lab

A

A. FaecalisC. SporogenesE. FaecalisE. Coli

373
Q

Which bacteria were strict arrives

A

P. AeruginosaC. Sporogenes

374
Q

Which bacteria is an aerotolerant anaerobe

A

E. Faecalis

375
Q

Which bacteria is a facultative anaerobe

376
Q

Why is an agar deep considered a semi solid

A

Because of less concentration of agar

377
Q

What does a capsul protect against

A

Phagocytosis

378
Q

What are the two bacteria that produce endospores

A

Bacillus and colostridum

379
Q

Why is mordant used for flagella staining

A

Makes a complex with the crystal violet that is larger than just the dye

380
Q

What is the secondary stain in the gram stain

381
Q

What does the nigrosin stain do

A

Repels bacteria. Only stains the background

382
Q

Is it a direct or indirect stain in the simple stain

A

Indirect stain

383
Q

What happened to the bacteria after the simple stain was added

A

The bacteria turned blue

384
Q

Is the stain used in the simple stain acidic or basic

385
Q

Which lenses are parfocal

A

Objective lenses

386
Q

What is deamination

A

Removal of an amino group that is later converted to ammonium ion

387
Q

What is a fermentation test

A

A test medium containing protein, a single carbohydrate, a ph indicator and an inverted Durham tube which is used to capture gas

388
Q

What are photosystems

A

When chlorophyll and other pigments are packed into the thylakoids of chloroplasts

389
Q

What is cyclic photo phosphorylation

A

Electron released from chlorophyll in photosystems 1 eventually returns to chlorophyll

390
Q

What is noncyclic photophosphorylation

A

Electrons released from the chlorophyll in photosystems 2 and 1 don’t return to chlorophyll but instead become incorporated into nadph

391
Q

What are phototrops

A

Use light as their primary energy source

392
Q

What are chemotrophs

A

Depend on oxidation and reduction reactions of inorganic or organic compounds for energy

393
Q

What are autotrophs

A

Self feeders

394
Q

What are heterotrophs

A

Feed on others

395
Q

What are photoautotrophs

A

Use light as a source of energy and carbon dioxide as their chief source of carbon

396
Q

What is oxygenic

A

Produces oxygen gas

397
Q

What is anoxygenic

A

Does not produce O2 gas

398
Q

What are photoheterotrophs

A

Use light as a source of energy but cannot convert carbon dioxide to sugar

399
Q

What are chemo autotrophs

A

Uses electrons from reduced inorganic compounds as a source of energy. Use co2 as source of carbon

400
Q

What are parasites

A

Organisms that derive nutrients from a living host

401
Q

What are psychrophiles

A

Cold loving microbes. -10-20

402
Q

What are mesophiles

A

Moderate temp loving. 10-50

403
Q

What are thermophiles

A

Heat loving 40-70

404
Q

What is a minimum growth temperature

A

Lowest temp at which a species will grow

405
Q

What is optimum growth temperature

A

Temperature at which the species grows best

406
Q

What is maximum growth temperature

A

Highest temp at which growth is possible

407
Q

What are hyperthermophiles

A

Microbes that have an optimum growth temp of 80* or higher

408
Q

What are acidophiles

A

Microbes that are tolerant of acidity

409
Q

What is plasmolysis

A

Shrinkage of a cells cytoplasm

410
Q

What are extreme halophiles

A

Adapted to high salt concentrations that they require for growth

411
Q

What are obligate halophiles

A

Require high salt concentrations for growth

412
Q

What are facultative halophiles

A

Don’t require high salt concentrations but are able to grow on them

413
Q

Nitrogen fixation

A

Use gaseous nitrogen from the atmosphere

414
Q

What are trace elements

A

Small amounts of mineral elements

415
Q

What are obligate aerobes

A

Microbes that require oxygen to live

416
Q

What are facultative Anaerobes

A

Bacteria can grow in the absence of oxygen or with oxygen

417
Q

What are obligate anaerobes

A

Bacteria that are unable to use molecular oxygen for energy yielding reactions

418
Q

What are aerotolerant anerobes

A

Cannot use oxygen for growth but they tolerate it well.

419
Q

What are microaerophiles

A

Microbes that are aerobic however they only grow in oxygen concentrations lower than those and air

420
Q

What are organic growth factors

A

Essential organic compounds an organism is unable to synthesize

421
Q

What are biofilms

A

Sticky slime layers of bacteria

422
Q

What is a culture medium

A

The nutrient material prepared for the growth of microorganisms in the laboratory

423
Q

What does sterile Mean

A

Must initially contain no living microorganisms

424
Q

What is a chemically defined medium

A

One who’s exact chemical composition is known

425
Q

What is complex media

A

The exact chemical composition very slightly from batch to batch

426
Q

What is nutrient broth

A

Liquid form of a medium

427
Q

What is nutrient agar

A

Agar added to a nutrient broth

428
Q

What is reducing media

A

Ingredients chemically combined with dissolved oxygen and deplete the oxygen in the culture medium

429
Q

What are capnofiles

A

Microbes that grow better at high CO2 concentrations

430
Q

What are selective media

A

Media designed to suppress the growth of unwanted bacteria and encourage the growth of the desired microbes

431
Q

What is differential media

A

Makes it easier to distinguish colonies of the desired organism from other colonies growing on the same plate

432
Q

What is enrichment culture

A

Provide to do trades environmental conditions that favor of the growth of a particular micro but not others.

433
Q

What is a colony

A

Bunches of microbes that arise from a single store or from a group of the same organisms attached to one another in groups of chains

434
Q

What is the streak plate method

A

Streak bacteria in 4 quadrants

435
Q

What is deep freezing

A

Pure culture of microbes is placed it is suspected liquid quick frozen temperatures ranging from -50 to -95

436
Q

What is lyophilization

A

A suspension of microbes is quickly frozen water is removed by high vacume

437
Q

How do bacteria reproduce

A

Binary fission or budding

438
Q

What is the generation time

A

Time required for a cell to divide and it’s population to double

439
Q

What is a bacterial growth curve

A

Shows the growth of cells overtime.

440
Q

What are the four basic phases of growth

A

The lag, the log, stationary and death phase

441
Q

What is the lag phase

A

Little to no cell division

442
Q

What is the log phase

A

Period of exponential growth

443
Q

What is the stationary phase

A

Period Of equilibrium

444
Q

What is the death phase

A

Please continues until the population is diminished to a tiny fraction of the number of cells in the previous phase

445
Q

What is a plate count

A

Where you count the visible colonies on a plate

446
Q

What is colony forming units

A

What plate counts are reflected as

447
Q

What is serial dilution

A

What do you dilute it to several different bottles

448
Q

What is the pour plate method

A

When you mix broth with agar

449
Q

What is the spread plate method

A

When you spread of bacteria over the surface

450
Q

What is turbidity

A

Cloudiness from cells

451
Q

What is sterilization

A

Removal or destruction of all living microorganisms

452
Q

What is a sterilant

A

Sterilizing agent

453
Q

What is commercial sterilization

A

Sterilization of food items

454
Q

What is disinfection

A

Control directed at destroyed harmful microorganisms

455
Q

What is antisepsis

A

The antiseptic disinfection of living tissue

456
Q

What is Degerming

A

Mechanical removal of most of the microbes that a limited area

457
Q

What is sanitization

A

Lowers microbial count to safe public health levels

458
Q

What does a germicide kill

459
Q

What does a fungicide kill

460
Q

What is bacteriostasis

A

Stops bacteria. Once the bacteriostatic agent is removed growth might resume

461
Q

What is sepsis

462
Q

What factors influence the effectiveness of antimicrobial treatments

A

The number of microbes, environmental influences, type of exposure, microbial characteristics

463
Q

How do microbial control agents kill cells

A

Alteration of membrane permeability, damage to proteins and nucleic acid

464
Q

What is the thermal death point

A

Lowest temperature at which all the micro organisms in a particular liquid suspension will be killed in 10 minutes

465
Q

What is the thermal death time

A

Minimal length of time for all bacteria in a particular liquid culture to be killed at a given temperature

466
Q

What is decimal reduction time

A

Time in minutes in which 90% of the population of bacteria at a given temperature will be killed

467
Q

Given example of moist heat sterilization

468
Q

What is pasteurization

A

Eliminates pathogenic microbes and lowers microbial numbers

469
Q

What are the methods of dry heat sterilization

A

Direct flaming, incineration, hot air sterilization. Kills by oxidation

470
Q

What is filtration

A

Passage of liquid or gas through filter with pores small enough to retain microbes

471
Q

What do high efficiency particulate air filters do

A

Remove all Microorganisms larger than a certain diameter

472
Q

What are membrane filters used for

A

Intended to filter bacteria

473
Q

What is desiccation

A

In the absence of water organisms cannot grow or reproduce but can remain viable for years and one water is made available to them they can resume their growth and division.

474
Q

How is osmotic pressure used to preserve foods

A

The use of high concentration of salt and sugar is based off the effects of osmotic pressure. The process resembles desiccation

475
Q

What are the two types of sterilizing radiation

A

Ionizing and nonionizing

476
Q

What is ionizing radiation

A

Short wavelength. More energy

477
Q

What is non-ionizing radiation

A

Long wavelength.

478
Q

What are the three heat methods used to control microbial growth

A

Moist heat, Pasteurization, dry heat

479
Q

In boiling what is the mechanism of action for controlling microbial growth

A

Protein denaturation

480
Q

In autoclaving what is the mechanism of action to control microbial growth

A

Protein denaturation

481
Q

In pasteurization what is the mechanism of action to control microbial growth

A

Protein denaturation

482
Q

In dry heat hot air sterilization what is the mechanism of action for control of microbial growth

483
Q

In filtration what is the mechanism of action to control microbial growth

A

Separation of bacteria from liquid

484
Q

In cold refrigeration what is the mechanism of action to control microbial growth

A

Decrease the chemical reactions and possible changes in proteins

485
Q

In deep-freeze and what is the mechanism of action to control microbial growth

A

Decreased chemical reactions and possible changes and proteins

486
Q

In high-pressure what is the mechanism of action to control microbial growth

A

Alteration of molecular structure of proteins and carbohydrates

487
Q

In desiccation what is the mechanism of action used to control microbial growth

A

Disruption of metabolism

488
Q

In osmotic pressure what is the mechanism of action used to control microbial growth

A

Plasmolysis

489
Q

In radiation what is the mechanism of action used to control microbial growth

A

Destruction of DNA.

490
Q

What is the disc diffusion method

A

Place disks on the lawn of bacteria to see which it is affected by

491
Q

What is the mechanism of action for phenol chemicals

A

Disruption of plasma membrane and denaturation of enzymes

492
Q

What is the mechanism of action for chlorhexidine to control microbial growth

A

Disruption of plasma membrane

493
Q

What is the mechanism of action for halogens

A

Inhibits protein function

494
Q

What is the mechanism of action for alcohols

A

Protein denaturation and lipid dissolution

495
Q

What is the. Mechanism of action for heavy metals and their compounds

A

Denaturation of enzymes and other proteins

496
Q

What is the method of action for surface active agents

A

Enzyme disruption

497
Q

What is the mechanism of action for chemical food preservatives

A

Metabolic inhibition

498
Q

What is the condition of action for aldehydes

A

Protein denaturation

499
Q

What is an antibiotic

A

A substance produced by micro organisms that in small amounts inhibits other microorganisms

500
Q

What does the narrow spectrum of microbial activity mean

A

The range of different microbial types it affects

BVetMed - Complete course (Years 1, 2, 3) (26 decks)

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