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BVetMed - Complete course (Years 1, 2, 3) > Anatomy and Physiology (2nd) > Flashcards

Anatomy and Physiology (2nd) Flashcards

All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.

1
Q

What is a dental arch

A

The complete arched arrangement of upper or lower teeth. Also known as the dental arcade

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2
Q

What is a quadrant

A

The left or right half of each dental arch

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3
Q

What are incisor teeth

A

The most rostral group of teeth

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4
Q

What are canine teeth

A

The teeth located just lateral to the incisor teeth

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5
Q

What are pre-molar teeth

A

The rostral cheek Teeth

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6
Q

What are molar teeth

A

The caudal cheek teeth

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7
Q

What is a crown

A

The exposed part of a tooth above the gumline

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8
Q

What is a root

A

The hidden part of a tooth below the gum line

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9
Q

What is a Coronal

A

Toward the crown of the tooth

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10
Q

What is apical

A

Toward the tip of the root of the tooth

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11
Q

What is gingival

A

Toward the gingiva a.k.a. gum

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12
Q

What is furcation

A

The area where the roots of a multi rooted tooth join the crown

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13
Q

What is mesial

A

For canine, premolar, molar teeth, the surface or edge facing the rostral end of the mouth. For the incisor teeth, the surface or edge facing towards the center a.k.a. midline

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14
Q

What is distal

A

For canine, premolar, molar teeth the surface or edge facing toward the caudal end of the mouth. For the incisor teeth, the surface or edge farthest from the center a.k.a. midline

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15
Q

What is buccal

A

Surface of a tooth facing the cheeks

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16
Q

What is palatal

A

Surface of an upper tooth facing the hard palate

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17
Q

What is labial

A

Surface of the tooth facing the lips

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18
Q

What is lingual

A

Surface of the lower tooth facing the tongue

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19
Q

What is the incisal edge

A

The cutting edge of a sharp tooth’s crown

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20
Q

What is the occlusal surface

A

The flat grinding surface of molar teeth

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21
Q

What is interproximal space

A

Space between adjacent teeth

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22
Q

What is interproximal surface

A

The surface of the tooth that faces the adjacent tooth

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23
Q

What are the functions of the digestive system

A

Prehension, ingestion, mastication, digestive tract , Absorption of nutrients and water, elimination of waste

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24
Q

What is prehension

A

The grasping of food

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25
Q

What is ingestion

A

The taking in of food

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26
Q

What is mastication

A

Chewing of food

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27
Q

What is the digestive tract

A

Also known as G.I. tract, alimentary canal

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28
Q

List the layers of tissue that compose the wall of the G.I. tract from superficial to deep

A
  1. Serosa.2. Muscularis composed of longitudinal muscle layer and circular muscle layer3. Submucosa4. Mucosa
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29
Q

What is the serosa.

A

Serosa is a serous membrane which is the outermost layer of the wall of the G.I. tract

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30
Q

What is the serosa composed of

A

Epithelium, basement membrane, lamina propria

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31
Q

What is the function of the serosa

A

Protection and secretion, serous fluid reduces friction between layers

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32
Q

What is the muscularis externa composed of

A

Mainly composed of involuntary smooth muscle. Longitudinal and circular

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33
Q

What is the longitudinal smooth muscle do in the muscularis externa

A

Shorten tube

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34
Q

What does the circular smooth muscle layer of the muscularis externa do

A

Constricts the tube

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35
Q

What do the longitudinal and circular smooth muscle in the muscularis externa aid in

A

The aid in the propulsion of food from the esophagus to the rectum. By means of peristalsis and segmentation

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36
Q

What are sphincters

A

Thickened rings of circular smooth muscle which act like valves throughout the tract

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37
Q

Where is skeletal muscle found

A

Mouth, pharynx, cranial portion of the esophagus, and external anal sphincter

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38
Q

What is the skeletal muscle used for

A

Aids in chewing and swallowing, and defecation

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39
Q

What is peristalsis

A

Progressive contractions of smooth muscle propelling food down the G.I. tract

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40
Q

What is segmentation

A

Alternating contractions move food back-and-forth to mix and slow progress down in G.I. tract

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41
Q

What is the submucosa and what does it contain

A

The submucosa is a layer of loose connective tissue containing blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, follicles, nerves. Elastic fibers allow stretching and restoration of shape

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42
Q

What is the mucosa and what does it contain

A

The mucosa is a mucous membrane which is the innermost layer. Contains epithelium, basement membrane, lamina propria, muscularis mucosae

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43
Q

What are the functions of the mucosa

A

Secretion: mucus, digestive enzymes and hormones. Absorption of nutrients and water. Protection against disease

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44
Q

What are the two anal sphincter’s

A

Internal: internal anal sphincter that’s involuntarily controlledExternal: external anal sphincter voluntarily controlled

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45
Q

What are two serous membranes in the body

A

Parietal layer which lines the cavities. Visceral layer which covers organs

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46
Q

Where is plural membrane located

A

Thoracic cavity

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47
Q

Where is the peritoneal membrane located

A

Abdominal cavity

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48
Q

What is the mesentery

A

Bands of peritoneal tissue that suspend the digestive tract from the body wall. Contain blood and lymphatic vessels and nerves

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49
Q

What are the digestive organs

A

Oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine and, large intestine

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50
Q

What is the small intestine composed of

A

Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

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51
Q

What is the large intestine composed of

A

Colon, caecum, rectum, anus

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52
Q

What are the secondary organs

A

Salivary glands, pancreas, gallbladder, liver

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53
Q

What are the functions of the oral cavity

A

Location of prehension and ingestion. Beginning of mechanical breakdown and chemical digestion. Moistening/lubrication of food which aids in swallowing. Site of evaporative cooling a.k.a. Panting

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54
Q

What is the oral cavity lined with

A

Mucosa. Gums cover the jawbone

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55
Q

What are the structures of the oral cavity

A

Lips, tongue, salivary gland, teeth, hard palate, soft palate, oropharynx

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56
Q

What are the salivary glands

A

Paired exocrine glands with ducts that lead to oral cavity. Produces and releases saliva. Continuous production is increased or decreased by various stimuli

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57
Q

What does the saliva of non-carnivores contain

A

The enzymes amylase and lipase

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58
Q

What are the functions of the salivary glands

A

Lubricate and find food together, chemical digestion of carbs and fat, neutralization of bicarbonate stomach acid, evaporative cooling and flush away debris’s, reduce overgrowth of microbial populations

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59
Q

What are the functions of teeth

A

Grasping, tearing, mastication

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60
Q

Where is the upper arcade contained

A

Contained in the maxilla and incisive bones

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61
Q

Where is the lower arcade contained

A

Contained in the mandible

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62
Q

What is the occlusial surface

A

Where the teeth come together

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63
Q

What are the four types of teeth

A

Incisors, canines, premolars, molars

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64
Q

What is the purpose of the incisors

A

Grasping and snipping teeth. Most rostral teeth of upper and lower arcade

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65
Q

What are canines for

A

Tearing teeth located caudal to incisors. Longer than other teeth and pointed at the tip

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66
Q

What are premolars for

A

Cutting teeth known as the rostral cheek teeth. Has sharp points and surfaces in carnivores

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67
Q

What are the molars for

A

Grinding teeth known as caudal cheeks teeth. Contain longer, flatter occlusal surfaces

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68
Q

Describe the teeth shape of herbivores

A

Have flat occlusal surfaces that are good for grinding plant material

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69
Q

Describe the teeth shape of carnivores

A

More pointed at their occlusal surface, slightly curved caudally. Good for holding pray, tearing, cutting and shredding. They are also have carnassial Teeth

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70
Q

What are carnassial teeth

A

Found in carnivores, has a scissor like action. In the upper arcade it’s the last premolar. In the lower arcade it’s the first molar

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71
Q

What is the crown of the tooth

A

The top of the tooth

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72
Q

What is the apex of the tooth

A

Bottom of the tooth

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73
Q

What is the pulp of the tooth

A

Center of tooth

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74
Q

What is the Dentin

A

Surrounds and protects the tooth pulp

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75
Q

What is the cementum

A

The calcified layer covering the root of the tooth

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76
Q

What is enamel

A

Covers the crown of the tooth

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77
Q

What is the gingiva

A

The gums

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78
Q

What are brachydont

A

Low crown teeth. Carnivores and omnivores

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79
Q

What is hypsodont

A

High Crown teeth, continual growth which allows for eating of gritty abrasive material. Herbivores.

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80
Q

What is teeth floating in horses

A

Occlusal surfaces are smoothed with a file or a rasp

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81
Q

What is the pharynx

A

Divided into nasal and oral pharynx by soft palate. Tonsils located in the walls between mouth and pharynx. It carries water, food, gas. Muscles in muscularis assistant swallowing. Epiglottis directs food and water down digestive tract by covering larynx

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82
Q

What are the layers of the esophagus wall

A

Mucosa, submucosa, lumen, muscularis externa(circular/longitudinal) , adventitia.

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83
Q

What is the esophagus

A

The transport tube from the pharynx to the stomach. It is flaccid/collapsed when not transporting food. Muscularis is composed of upper one third skeletal muscle middle one third mixed and lower one third smooth

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84
Q

Describe the cardiac sphincter

A

We closure exception is rabbits and horses. Aids in diaphragm and filling of stomach. Mucous glands on both sides of sphincter to reduce damage by gastric acid

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85
Q

What are the predisposing factors of gastroesophageal reflux

A

Obesity, age, genetics, anesthesia

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86
Q

Describe gastroesophageal reflux

A

Inflammation which lead to ulcers which leads to perforation

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87
Q

What are the clinical signs of gastroesophageal reflux

A

Regurgitation, dysphasia, weight loss, evidence of pain

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88
Q

How do you diagnose gastroesophageal reflux

A

Endoscopy

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89
Q

What is the treatment for gastroesophageal reflux

A

Weight loss, drugs to reduce acid production

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90
Q

What is a hiatal hernia

A

Upper portion of stomach passes through the diaphragm. Either congenital or acquired. Esophagus does not close off when stomach fills with food

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91
Q

What is megaesophagus

A

Food accumulates in esophagus and or is regurgitated. Limited peristalsis, either congenital or acquired

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92
Q

What is the treatment for megaesophagus

A

More liquid diet, feed in the vertical position

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93
Q

What are the concerns with mega esophagus

A

Reduce nutrient intake, pneumonia due to aspirated food

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94
Q

What are cats and dogs digestive systems considered to be

A

Monogastric

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95
Q

What are rabbits pigs and horses digestive system is considered to be

A

Hindgut fermenters

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96
Q

What a goat and cows digestive system considered to be

A

Ruminant

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97
Q

What is the monogastric stomach and who has it

A

A stomach that has a single chamber. Carnivores, omnivores, equines

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98
Q

Which regions are the monogastric stomach divided into

A

Cardia, fungus, body, pyloric antrum, pylorus

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99
Q

What is the monogastric stomach lined with

A

Folds called rugae

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100
Q

Where is the lesser omentum located

A

Is anchored caudal to liver by lesser and greater Omenta

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101
Q

What is the Cardia

A

Opening from the esophagus. Has a cardiac sphincter which reduces reflux

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102
Q

What is the fundus

A

Distensible blind pouch. Expense as more food is swallowed, then changes shape closing off the esophagus

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103
Q

What is the body

A

Distensible middle section. Fundus and body contains numerous glands.

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104
Q

What do the gastric glands contain

A

Parietal cells and chief cells

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105
Q

What do parietal cells produce

A

Produced hydrochloric acid

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106
Q

What do chief cells produce

A

Produce the inactive enzyme pepsinogen

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107
Q

What happens when Pepsinogen meets hydrochloric acid

A

Pepsin is created

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108
Q

What did the mucous cells produce

A

Produce the protective mucus

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109
Q

What does the pyloric Antrum do

A

Grinds up swallowed food, regulates hydrochloric acid secretion in fundus and body

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110
Q

What do endocrine tissue in Antrum walls contain

A

G cells which secretes the hormone gastrin

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111
Q

What is the pylorus

A

Muscular sphincter which regulates the movement of chime from the stomach into the duodenum. Prevents backflow

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112
Q

What is pyloric stenosis

A

Hypertrophy of muscle reduces chime passage and causes vomiting

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113
Q

What are the motor functions of the fundus and body

A

They relax with swallowing of food to allow filling

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114
Q

What is the function of the body of the stomach

A

Contracts to mix food

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115
Q

What is the function of the pyloric Antrum

A

Increases contractions in response to swallowing

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116
Q

What is the peristalsis in the stomach and intestine controlled by

A

Controlled by parasympathetic branch. The Vegas nerve. Trigger is hormones, stretch receptors

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117
Q

What is colic in horses

A

Abdominal pain which is the leading cause of death

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118
Q

What are some causes of colic and horses

A

Stress, rapid diet change, stabling, dehydration, ulcers, parasites

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119
Q

The different forms of colic

A

Gas colic, impaction, spasmodic

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120
Q

What are the symptoms of colic

A

Discomfort, sweating, rolling, wanting to lay down, kicking flank, absence of got sounds

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121
Q

What is the treatment for colic and horses

A

Pain relief, nasogastric intubation and surgery

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122
Q

What does the hormone gastrin do

A

Inhibits muscle activity of the fundus to allow for filling

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123
Q

What is the enterogastric reflex

A

Distention of the intestine lines or increased acidity in the duodenum inhibit stomach contraction. Delays gastric emptying to allow more time for digestion

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124
Q

What does the hormone secretin do

A

Hormone released from duodenum in response to excess stomach acid in small intestine. It can cause fundus to relax and inhibit peristalsis of the body and the antrum of the stomach to slow gastric emptying

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125
Q

What does the hormone cholecystokinin do

A

Hormone released from duodenum in response to large amounts of fats or protein in the duodenum. Decreases gastric contractions to slow emptying

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126
Q

What are the different gastric secretions

A

Pepcinogen, intrinsic factor, hydrochloric acid, mucus, bicarbonate ions, gastrin

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127
Q

What is Pepcinogen

A

Secreted by chief cells. Precursor for the enzyme pepsin which hydrolyzes proteins

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128
Q

What is the intrinsic factor

A

Secreted by parietal cells, required for vitamin B12 absorption by small intestine time in some species. Vitamin B 12 is important to nervous systems development and blood formation

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129
Q

What is mucus

A

Complexes substances, mucin is a protein produced by goblet cells. Provides a coating for the stomach against acidic gastric environment. Must be secreted continuously. Reduction in mucus coat can lead to gastric ulcers

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130
Q

What is the bicarbonate ion

A

Alkalinizes the mucus

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131
Q

What is hydrochloric acid

A

Secreted by parietal cells as separate ions. Low pH inhibits gastrin release. Receptors on parietal cells for gastrin histamine and acetylcholine involved in regard in regulation of H+ and cl- secretion. Selectively blocking one of these receptors decreases the production of stomach acid

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132
Q

What are prostaglandins

A

Local regulators released by various tissues with a variety of actions. Initiation of inflammation , regulate estrous cycle, vasodilation or bronchial dilation. In initiation of inflammation and vasodilation inhibits gastric release. It stimulates the gastric glands to produce the bicarbonate ion. it enhances blood flow to the stomach and aids in repair of mucosa by regulating the activity of Macrophages and mast cells

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133
Q

What are NSAIDs

A

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

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134
Q

What do NSAIDs do

A

Reduces beneficial effects of prostaglandins on gastric mucosa. Can lead to gastritis, gastric ulcers and perforation

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135
Q

Describe the ruminant stomach

A

For chambers and three fore stomachs, reticulum, rumen, omasum. The true stomach is abomasum

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136
Q

What is rumination

A

Repeated regurgitation and swallowing of food. Adaptation for herbivorous diet

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137
Q

What is the reticulum

A

Smallest, most cranial compartment and is separated from the rumen by the ruminoreticular fold. Continuous muscular wall so compartments contract together. The lining is composed of honeycomb folds which increase surface area. Location of hardware disease

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138
Q

What is hardware disease

A

Sharp objects are consumed and become lodged in the reticulum and can pierced through stomach wall can cause pericarditis

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139
Q

What is the treatment of hardware disease

A

Oral administration of large magnets, also given product preventatively. Magnets remain in reticulum for life

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140
Q

What is the rumen

A

Large fermentation vat which is lined with finger like papilla. Series of muscular sacs partially separated by long folds of rumen walls called pillars. Pillars aid in mixing and stirring of rumen contents

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141
Q

What is reticuloruminal contractions

A

Allow partially digested plant food to be regurgitated. Allow built up carbon dioxide or methane gas to be expelled from the Rumen

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142
Q

What is the rumen

A

Site of fermentation. Anaerobic cellular respiration

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143
Q

Describe the anaerobic cellular respiration which occurs in the rumen

A

Microbes Convert cellulose into simple sugars then convert them to VFA. Proteins also digested and converted to VFA or nh3. microbes form proteins and amino acids used by ruminants. Ruminants absorbs VFA in Omasum and metabolizes them back into glucose or fats

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144
Q

What is the omasum or abomasum

A

Reticulorumen contractions move ingested material into the abomasum Muscular organ with many muscular folds. Mechanically breaks food particles down further. Absorbs VFA and water. Removes B+ carbonate ions

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145
Q

What is the Abomasum

A

True stomach which is located ventrally. Functions much the same as a monogastric stomach

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146
Q

What is a displaced abomasum

A

Abomasum is loosely anchored in abdomen. Most common after calving or if it fills with gas.

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147
Q

What is the treatment for a displaced abomasum

A

Surgery or rolling cow on her back

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148
Q

Describe newborn ruminant digestion

A

G.I. track functions primarily as a monogastric digestive system. Rumen and reticular are nonfunctional at birth. Bypassed by Reticular groove carrying material from esophagus to Abomasum. Rate of development of the rumen and reticulum are affected by type of diet. Milk versus grain

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149
Q

Describe the small intestine

A

The site of chemical digestion and nutrient absorption

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150
Q

Describe the duodenum

A

First short segment that leaves the stomach. Separated from the stomach by the pyloric sphincter

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151
Q

Describe the jejunum

A

The longest portion of the small intestine

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152
Q

Describe the ileum

A

Separated from the colon, the large intestine by the ileocecal sphincter

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153
Q

Describe the ileocecal sphincter

A

It regulates the movement of materials from the small intestine into the colon and cecum. Parasympathetic stimulation increases activity

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154
Q

Describe the small intestine mucosa

A

Lined with folds called villi. Epithelial cells, Enterocytes have a microvilli brush border that has a few days of life. It’s job is to absorb nutrients. The folds contain blood vessels and lymph lacteals which absorb fats

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155
Q

What is an intestinal crypt

A

Invagination’s of mucosa at the base of each villus, containing a variety of cell types

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156
Q

What do stem cells do in the intestinal crypts

A

They produce new cells to replace villi cells, enterocytes

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157
Q

What do goblet cells do

A

Produce and secrete mucus

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158
Q

What do Entero endocrine cells do

A

Produce and secrete hormones such as CCK or secretin

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159
Q

What do paneth cells do

A

Produce antimicrobial peptides part of innate immune system

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160
Q

What is acute diarrhea or porcine epidemic diarrhea

A

Highly contagious viral disease causes destruction of mucosal cells, death of microflora of the large intestine. Due to pathogen and sudden diet change, drug therapy. Example parvovirus, panleukopenia virus

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161
Q

What are the two methods of motility in the small intestine

A

Peristalsis and segmentation.

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162
Q

What are peristalsis and segmentation considered

A

Coordinated contractions of muscularis externa

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163
Q

What is diarrhea sometimes due to

A

Decreased segmentation, not increased peristalsis. Some antidiarrheal drugs act to increase segmentation.

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164
Q

What signals the peristalsis and segmentation to start

A

Reflexes in response to stretching. CCK and PGs may also stimulate intestinal motility

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165
Q

Describe small intestine digestion

A

Small molecules from stomach or absorbed. Electrolytes, water and vitamins. Larger molecules require chemical digestion such as carbohydrates, proteins and peptides and fats

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166
Q

What does chemical digestion involve

A

Enzymes in the lumen of the intestine. And enzymes associated with the microvilli membrane

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167
Q

Describe carbohydrate digestion for a polysaccharide

A

Enzymes released by pancreas. Amylase. Digestion occurs in lumen of duodenum

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168
Q

Describe chemical digestion for disaccharides

A

Enzymes are in microvilli cell. membrane. Monosaccharides transported into Enterocytes then into capillaries. Enzyme production is influenced by age and diet

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169
Q

Describe protein digestion in general

A

In the stomach Pepcid digest some proteins and turns them into smaller polypeptides

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170
Q

What are the pancreatic proteases in protein digestion

A

Polypeptides are turned into smaller polypeptides by five pancreatic proteases, trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase, aminopeptidase, carboxypeptidase

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171
Q

What is the peptidases in protein digestion

A

The peptidases and brush border make smaller peptides turn into tripeptides dipeptides And amino acids that are then absorbed by Enterocytes

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172
Q

What is the first step of fat digestion

A

Mechanical breakdown by agitation in pyloric Antrum, breaks down fat globules, triglycerides, into smaller droplets equals emulsification.

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173
Q

What is the second step in fat digestion

A

Bile coats the fat droplets in duodenum to preserve emulsification, and allow them to be water-soluble

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174
Q

What is the third step in fat digestion

A

Pancreatic Lipases turn triglycerides into glycerol, fatty acid, monoglyceride which is glycerol and a fatty acid. Then the small molecules called micelles are absorbed by Enterocytes. Fat soluble vitamins ADEK often incorporated into micelles and absorbed. They then enter lymph lacteals

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175
Q

What is the first step of digestion in the large intestine of herbivores

A

The caecum is a blind sac at ileocecal Junction which is the site of microbial digestion. The colon has some microbial digestion and all species. the rectum leads to the Anus. No enzymes released, all species have large microbial population, most important to nonruminant herbivores such as hindgut fermenters

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176
Q

Describe the first step of digestion in the large intestine of carnivores

A

The caecum is underdeveloped and largely nonfunctional. The colon is simple and tubular. It is the site of peristalsis and segmentation to form and move feces. Microbial flora assist in the production of vitamins.

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177
Q

Describe digestion in the large intestine of hindgut fermenters

A

Nonruminant herbivores such as horses and rabbits and omnivores such as rodents and swine. Large caecum and colon. both are hindgut. Both are the fermentation site similar to fermentation in ruminants.

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178
Q

What are bends in tracts called

A

Flexures. They’re areas of potential obstruction. Impaction colic.

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179
Q

Describe the rectum

A

Terminal portion of large intestine. Nervous system control of motility and secretions is similar to that of the colon. Numerous mucus secreting glands lubricate and aid the passage of contents. Sensory receptors detect stretching and stimulates the defecation response

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180
Q

Describe the anus

A

Composed of internal and Extertal muscular sprinters. As was the rectum distends, stretch receptors in the rectum wall cause partial relaxation of the internal sphincter. Perianal trauma can damage muscle and nerves causing fecal incontinence

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181
Q

Describe the digestive system functions of the pancreas

A

Production of pancreatic enzymes such as amylase, proteases and lipaseSecretes bicarbonate into the duodenum which helps neutralize acidity of gastric chime and maintains the pH of the duodenum needed for enzyme function. Produces insulin and glucagon which helps regulate blood glucose levels

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182
Q

Describe the digestive functions of the liver

A

Produces bile which is stored in gallbladder. In rodents and horses there’s no gallbladder. Removes and neutralizes toxins that enters the body through the G.I. tract. Stores or metabolizes nutrients absorbed by the G.I. tract. Site of glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis.

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183
Q

What is the function of the cardiovascular system

A

It carries the products of other systems

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184
Q

What is a heart in the cardiovascular system

A

It is the pump

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185
Q

What is the vessels in the cardiovascular system

A

The transport tubes

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186
Q

What is blood in the cardiovascular system

A

Carries nutrients wastes and gases and hormones, defensive proteins and cells

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187
Q

Where is the heart located

A

In the thoracic cavity in the mediastinum. Area between lungs on top of diaphragm

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188
Q

What is the mediastinum

A

The inter-plural space

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189
Q

What surrounds the heart

A

Pericardium. Fibrous outer layer and double serous layer

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190
Q

Between which ribs is the heart located in dogs and cats

A

The third and seventh rib

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191
Q

Between which ribs is the heart located for horses and ruminants

A

Between the second and sixth rib

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192
Q

What are the layers of the heart

A

Pericardium myocardium and endocardium

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193
Q

What is endocardium made up of

A

Simple squamous epithelium

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194
Q

What is pericardial effusion

A

Abnormal accumulation of serous fluid between visceral and Parietal layers. Outer fibrous layer is not elastic, thus heart cannot fully explain during contractions. Pressure is relieved by aspiration of serous fluid.

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195
Q

Describe the systemic circulation of blood

A

Blood flow between heart and body tissues

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196
Q

Describe the pulmonary circulation blood flow

A

Blood flow between heart and lungs

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197
Q

Describe blood flow through the body

A

One-way flow through the heart and blood vessels. Valves in heart and veins prevent backflow

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198
Q

What is the function of the coronary vessels

A

Service the heart tissue, located on external surface. Can be considered part of systemic circulation

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199
Q

What is a systole

A

A cardiac contraction

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200
Q

What is a diastole

A

Cardiac relaxation

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201
Q

What are auricles

A

Flaps of the atria

202
Q

What are coronary vessels

A

Vessels that service heart tissue

203
Q

What is the interval ventricular sulcus

A

It separates the ventricles

204
Q

What is the coronary sulcus

A

Separates atriums

205
Q

Which side is the tricuspid valve for the heart best auscultated on

A

The right side

206
Q

Describe the hearts location

A

The apex Curves caudally

207
Q

Describe the blood delivery system

A

The heart to the artery to the arteriole to the capillary to the venule to the vein to the heart

208
Q

What do arteries do

A

Carry blood away from the heart. Oxygenated except for pulmonary circulation and umbilical vessels of fetus

209
Q

What to capillaries do

A

Contact tissue cells. Directly serve cellular needs. Site of diffusion

210
Q

What do veins do

A

Carry deoxygenated blood toward heart

211
Q

What is the lumen (in blood vessel)

A

Central blood containing space

212
Q

How many layers does the lumen have

A

Three layers in the walls of arteries and veins. Smooth muscle, connective tissue and endothelium

213
Q

Where are the capillaries located in the lumen

A

In the endothelium only

214
Q

Describe arteries

A

Blood under higher pressure. Thicker walls more elastic fibers and smooth muscle

215
Q

Describe veins

A

Blood under lower pressure. Valves prevent backflow skeletal muscles help push blood

216
Q

Describe capillaries

A

Found in all tissue except for cartilage, epithelia, cornea and lens of Eye. ligaments and tendons are poorly vascularized. Provide direct access to almost every cell

217
Q

What are the functions of capillaries

A

Exchange of gasses, nutrients, waste, hormones, defense.

218
Q

Describe fetal circulation

A

The placenta is an organ of gas, nutrients, waste, exchange thus blood flow to the kidneys and lungs from G.I. tract is minimal

219
Q

Describe the umbilical cord

A

Vein carries oxygenated blood flow from placenta to fetus via the ductus venosus. Arteries carry deoxygenated blood from fetus to placenta. Blood entering the right atrium can bypass lungs by the foreman ovale or ductus arteriosus.

220
Q

What is pda

A

Patent ductus arteriosus. Vessel. Does not close afterbirth causing in adequate oxygenation. Most common congenital heart problem and dogs

221
Q

What are the clinical signs of PDA

A

Shortness of breath, coughing, general weakness, exercise intolerance

222
Q

How do you diagnose PDA

A

Auscultation for a murmur or an electro cardiogram

223
Q

What is the treatment for PDA

A

Surgically close the ductus arteriosus

224
Q

What are the signs of persistent right aortic arch condition

A

During normal fetal development or changes in the blood vessels. This vascular ring should’ve disappeared prior to birth it remains constricting the esophagus in the area dorsal to the heart.

225
Q

What is it called when the esophagus is constricted between the ligamentum arteriosum and the aorta

A

PRAA

226
Q

What is in atrial systole

A

The contraction of the atria. Blood moves from atria to the ventricles

227
Q

What is a Ventricular systole

A

The contraction of ventricles. Blood moves from ventricles to arteries

228
Q

What is an atrial diastole

A

The relaxation of the atria. Atria refills with blood

229
Q

What is a ventricular diastole

A

The relaxation of ventricles. Ventricles begin to refill with blood

230
Q

What is the lub sound mean

A

The closing of the AV valves. Mitral valve is best heard on the left side. Tricuspid valve is best heard on the right side

231
Q

What is the dup sound mean

A

The closing of the semilunar valve. Both pulmonary and aortic valve’s best heard on left side

232
Q

How does the heart conduct

A

Cardiac muscles able to generate its own electrical impulse to signal contraction

233
Q

What does the sinoatrial node do

A

Initiates heart beat by depolarizing the cells. Depolarization and eventual repolarization continue throughout the heart.

234
Q

What is the order of cardiac conduction

A

The SA node to the AV node to the AV bundles to the purkinje fibers

235
Q

How do you measure cardiac conduction

A

Measured by an electrocardiogram

236
Q

Why is there a delay between the depolarization of the SA node and the AV node

A

So the atrium can fill with blood

237
Q

What does an electrocardiogram do

A

It measures cardiac electrical activity to depolarization and repolarization

238
Q

What is the cardiac output

A

Amount of blood that leaves the heart. Cardiac output is equal to heart rate plus stroke volume

239
Q

What is the heart rate dependent on

A

The rate of SA node depolarization. The cardiac output is influenced by exercise, autonomic nervous system and blood pressure

240
Q

Describe digital pulses in horses

A

Normally the pulse is weak. If there’s a significant problem in the foot such as abscess or laminitis pulse will be stronger due to constriction of vessels in foot

241
Q

What does afferent mean

A

Sends signal towards an organ

242
Q

What does efferent mean

A

Sends a signal away from an organ

243
Q

What is mitral valve disease

A

Mitral valve doesn’t close properly. Causes endocarditis or endocardiosis, ruptured cordae tendinae. Endocardiosis is most common in small dogs. Can lead to pulmonary edema and congestive heart failure

244
Q

What is congestive heart failure

A

Progressive disorder due to problems with blood flow through heart. Blood backs up. Right side causes ascites and left causes pulmonary edema

245
Q

What is one function of the nasopalatine duct

A

Forms a connection between the oral cavity and the nasal passage. Allows for Flemen response. This duct is found in all mammals

246
Q

Where are rugae found

A

On the surface of the hard palate and the stomach

247
Q

What is the function of tonsils in mammals

A

Trap germs that you breathe in

248
Q

What is the dental formula for a cat

A

31313121

249
Q

How can you easily distinguish the trachea from the esophagus

A

Esau for guess is a smooth tube. The trachea is made of cartilaginous rings

250
Q

What species of animals is the cardiac sphincter more muscular and thus provides vomiting

A

Rabbits and horses

251
Q

Name two mesenteric connections of the stomach

A

Greater and lesser Omenta

252
Q

What type of tissue composes mesentery

A

Connective tissue

253
Q

What regions of the stomach have gastric glands

A

The fundus

254
Q

List three cells found in these gastric glands pits

A

Chief cells, Entero-endocrine cells and parietal cells

255
Q

What does the gastrin hormone do

A

Triggers the release of HCl and stimulates gastric muscle contractions of the Antrum region

256
Q

Where are the sphincters located

A

In the pylorus and Cardia region of stomach

257
Q

How is the proximity of the do addendum to the pancreas and liver and gallbladder advantageous

A

Less time to secrete hormones into the duodenum

258
Q

What causes the velvety appearance of the small intestine

A

The villi projecting from the mucosal and submucosal layer

259
Q

What are the small lumps in the wall of the ileum called and what is their function

A

Pyers patches and their function is part of the lymphatic system (malt)

260
Q

What does the common bile duct do

A

Carries bile from the liver and gallbladder to the small intestine

261
Q

What substances are carried in the pancreatic ducts

A

Pancreatic enzymes

262
Q

Which part of the colon is more proximal to the cecum

A

Ascending

263
Q

Between a cat, a rat and a pig which species would you expect to have the largest caecum

A

The rat due to his diet

264
Q

What are the distinguishing features of the salivary glands

A

Single layer of simple squamous white cells within

265
Q

What are the distinguishing features of the pancreas

A

Pancreatic islets

266
Q

What are the distinguishing features of the esophagus

A

Thick layer of skeletal muscle and a layer of smooth muscle

267
Q

What are the distinguishing features of the stomach Cardia

A

Fingerlike projections

268
Q

What are the distinguishing features of the duodenum

A

Branches, tubuloacinar duodenal glands in submucosa. Simple columnar folds

269
Q

Describe the distinguishing features of the jejunum

A

Cells in columnar enterocytes the purple circle. Think layer of smooth muscle

270
Q

Describe the distinguishing features of the ileum

A

Peyers patches: purple round things. Folds with simple columnar surrounding

271
Q

Describe the distinguishing features of the colon

A

Lymphatic nodules, absorptive columnar cells and goblet cells

272
Q

Describe the distinguishing features of teeth

A

Pulp, Dentin

273
Q

What is the function of the omasum

A

Absorbs the vfa

274
Q

What is the function of the Rumen

A

Fermentation vat

275
Q

Lub (s1) is the sound heard during the blank of the blank valves

A

Closing of the AV valves. Which follows ventricular systole.

276
Q

Dub (s2) is the sound heard during the blank of the blank valves

A

Closing of the semi lunar valves’s. This sound follows ventricular diastole

277
Q

How do you determine the heart rate

A

Generally you measure the heart rate for 15 seconds use that value to calculate the number of beats per minute

278
Q

What is a pulse

A

Alternating surges of pressure. Arterial expansion then recoil that occurs with each contraction and relaxation of the left ventricle. A pulse can usually be felt on any superficial artery

279
Q

What Are some arteries you can feel for a pulse

A

The femoral artery, the dorsal pedal artery, the plantar surface of the foot

280
Q

What does an electro cardiogram measure

A

An electrocardiogram measures the electrical activity depolarization and repolarization of the heart during one cardiac cycle.

281
Q

What is happening during the P-wave

A

Atrial depolarization

282
Q

What is happening during the QRS complex

A

Ventricular depolarization

283
Q

What is happening during the T-wave

A

Ventricular repolarization

284
Q

In lead two placement the RF is what

A

Negative

285
Q

In the lead two placement The LH is what

A

Positive

286
Q

In the lead two placement The LF is what

A

Neutral

287
Q

What is blood pressure and where is it measured

A

Blood pressure is defined as the pressure blood exerts against the vessels walls. Generally it is measured in the arteries. Because the heart artery alternatively contracts and relaxes the rhythmic flow of blood in the arteries causes blood pressure to rise and fall during each beat thus you can obtain two values systolic pressure and diastolic pressure. Both reported in millimeters of mercury with the systolic value appearing first.

288
Q

What is systolic pressure

A

Pressure at the peak of ventricular ejection

289
Q

What is diastolic pressure

A

Pressure during ventricular relaxation

290
Q

Does the Doppler blood pressure device measure

A

The Doppler blood pressure device measures systolic pressure only. A cuff is inflated around an animals distal limb or tail so that the inflated pressure is higher than the systolic pressure. The pressure stops circulation in the limb so that no more sounds are heard. Slowly the cuff is deflated. When the sounds of blood flow return this value is recorded as the systolic pressure

291
Q

What does and oscillometric device measure

A

Measures both the systolic and diastolic pressure

292
Q

How do you determine the proper cuff size for your patient

A

It should be 40% of the leg width

293
Q

What does the pulse oximetry machine do

A

Noninvasive method used to determine O2 saturation in the blood. Uses red and infrared light to measure O2 levels because hemoglobin with different levels of oxygenation will reflect different wavelengths of light. Oxygenated hemoglobin absorbs more infrared light and allows more red light to pass through

294
Q

Where is the SA node located

A

Where the cranial vena cava meets the right atrium

295
Q

Why do semilunar valves lack cordinae tendinae

A

Because they don’t have as much force

296
Q

What action of the heart makes the Lubs sound

A

Closing of the AV valves

297
Q

What action of the heart makes the dub sound

A

Closing of the semilunar valve’s

298
Q

What is the function of the umbilical arteries

A

Carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta

299
Q

What are two ways fetal blood can bypass the pulmonary circuit

A

Through the foreman ovale or the ductus arteriosus

300
Q

Which vertebrae group lacks a pulmonary circuit

A

Fish

301
Q

Why do amphibians have a Pulmocutaneous circuit

A

They breathe through their skin

302
Q

What is the advantage to having two ventricles

A

More efficient due to unmixed blood

303
Q

What are the distinguishing features of a vein

A

Endothelium, blood cells. some smooth muscle

304
Q

What are the distinguishing features of an artery

A

Lumen, red blood cells, membrane, endothelium. Lots of smooth muscle

305
Q

What are the distinguishing features of a capillary

A

Capillaries and purple center. Small lumen

306
Q

What are The distinguishing features of cardiac muscle

A

Striated, branched muscle with a single nucleus

307
Q

What species have carnassial teeth

A

Cats, dogs, wolves

308
Q

Why would a bears carnassial teeth be different than a cats

A

It is adapted to its diet and it doesn’t need teeth that are as pointy because they eat berries as well as meat

309
Q

What are three things charted during a dental exam

A

Number of teeth, recession and calculus and gingivitis index

310
Q

What does the line running through the teeth represent

A

The gum line

311
Q

Why are some boxes on the dental charts are blacked out for furcation

A

Because those teeth are not multirooted

312
Q

In what species would we find a peg tooth and what is it

A

Rabbits and it’s the tooth behind incisors

313
Q

Are humans brachydont or hypsodont. What does it mean

A

Brachydont, short crown

314
Q

Name three species that lack incisors

A

Deer, sheep, goats, cows and snake

315
Q

What animals have incisors that grows continuously throughout their life

A

Rodents and rabbits

316
Q

Rodent incisors only have enamel on the labial surface. How is this beneficial

A

Keep tooth strong but allows for good grinding

317
Q

What are three common venipuncture sites in cats

A

Cephalic veinJugular veinFemoral vein

318
Q

What is the name for the flap of connective tissue that makes up a heart valve

A

A cusp

319
Q

What are the little cords of connective tissue that attach the free edges of an atrioventricular valve to the walls of the ventricle

A

Chordinae tendinae

320
Q

How many cusps does the mitral valve have

A

Two

321
Q

Does the right or left ventricle of the heart have the thicker muscle? Why?

A

Left ventricle. Because it has to pump oxygenated blood to the entire body not just the lungs

322
Q

How many cusps does the tricuspid valve have

A

Three

323
Q

Which side of the heart is the tricuspid valve located on

A

Right side

324
Q

Which valves are known as the semilunar valves

A

Aortic and pulmonary

325
Q

Which valve is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery

A

Pulmonary valve

326
Q

What is the name for the wide cranial end of the heart where arteries and veins enter and exit

A

Base of the heart

327
Q

What is the name for the caudal pointed end of the heart containing the left ventricle

A

Apex of the heart

328
Q

Is a blood vessel carrying blood away from the heart an afferent or efferent blood vessel

A

Efferent

329
Q

Is a blood vessel carrying blood toward the heart an afferent or efferent blood vessel

A

Afferent

330
Q

Which side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs

A

The right side

331
Q

Which side of the heart receives blood from the body

A

Right

332
Q

What vessel carries blood from the lungs to the heart

A

Pulmonary vein

333
Q

What is the valve between the left ventricle and the largest systemic artery

A

Aortic valve

334
Q

What is the name of the largest systemic aftery

A

Aorta

335
Q

Is the vena cava an afferent or efferent blood vessel

A

Afferent

336
Q

Is the aorta an afferent or efferent blood vessel

A

Efferent

337
Q

Is the blood in the aorta oxygen rich or oxygen poor

A

Oxygen rich

338
Q

Is the blood in the vena cava oxygen rich or oxygen poor

A

Oxygen poor

339
Q

Is the blood in the pulmonary artery oxygen rich or oxygen poor

A

Oxygen poor

340
Q

What artery supplies blood to the head

A

Carotid artery

341
Q

What vessel carries blood from the heart to the lungs

A

Pulmonary vein

342
Q

What is the largest vein in the body

A

Vena cava

343
Q

What superficial vessels (artery and vein) lay on the medial surface of the inner thigh

A

Femoral artery and femoral vein

344
Q

What vein runs up the cranial surface of the forelimb below the elbow

A

Cephalic vein

345
Q

What vein is located just distal to the femoral vein on the hind limb

A

Saphenous

346
Q

What vein us normally used when drawing up a large volume of blood

A

Jugular vein

347
Q

What vein curves up the lateral surface of the hind limb just above the hock

A

Saphenous vein

348
Q

What blood vessels that supply blood to the hind limb does the abdominal aorta divide into

A

Iliac arteries

349
Q

Is the jugular vein an afferent or efferent blood vessel

A

Afferent

350
Q

Is the color of arterial blood dark or bright red? Why?

A

Bright red. Carries large amounts of oxygen

351
Q

Does venous blood spurt or ooze from a damaged vein and why

A

Ooze. Because it is carrying blood to the heart under low pressure

352
Q

Does arterial blood spurt or ooze from a damaged artery? Why?

A

Spurt. It is carrying blood from the heart under high pressure and is affected by beating rhythm of the heart. Each spurt represents a contraction of the left ventricle

353
Q

Define aorta

A

Major artery of the systemic circulation that receives blood from the left ventricle

354
Q

Define aortic arch

A

After leaving the heart and the cranial direction, the portion which the aorta turns caudally to leave to go to the abdominal cavity

355
Q

Define aortic valve

A

The valve between the left ventricle and the aorta

356
Q

Define artery

A

Blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart

357
Q

Define atrioventricular node

A

A heart valve located between an atrium and ventricle. The right AV it’s the tricuspid valve and the left AV is the mitral valve

358
Q

Define the atrium

A

Heart chamber that receives blood from the large veins. Right atrium receives blood from vena cava and left atrium receives blood from the pulmonary vein

359
Q

Define auricle

A

Externally visible part of atrium

360
Q

Define Capillary

A

Smallest blood vessel composed of rolled up tubes of simple squamous epithelium that form extensive networks all over the body. Exchange of nutrients gases and wastes

361
Q

Define caudal vena cava

A

The large vein that returns blood to the heart from the caudal part of the body

362
Q

Define Cordae tendinae

A

Find threadlike cords that connect the free edge of the atrioventricular valves to the papillary muscle in the ventricules

363
Q

Define coronary circulation

A

The blood vessels that carry blood to and from the cells and tissues of the heart

364
Q

Define cranial vena cava

A

The large vein that returns blood to the heart from the head and forelimbs

365
Q

Define diastole

A

The relaxation, filled phase of a heart chamber

366
Q

Define endocardium

A

The innermost layer of tissue that lines the heart chambers

367
Q

Define heart

A

The muscular pump that pumps blood cells and tissues of the body

368
Q

Define inter-atrial septum

A

The wall of myocardium that separates the left and right atria of the heart

369
Q

Define interventricular groove

A

The fat filled groove on the outside of the heart that corresponds to the location of the interventricular septum

370
Q

Define interventricular septum

A

The walls of myocardium that separates the left and right ventricles of the heart

371
Q

Defined mediastinum

A

The space to the thorax between the lungs that contains the trachea, esophagus, heart, nerves, lymphatic vessels and major blood vessels

372
Q

Define mitral valve

A

The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle

373
Q

Define moderator band

A

Band of connective tissue in the right ventricle that provides extra support for the ventricle plus prevents it from expanding

374
Q

Defined myocardium

A

Thick muscular layer of the heart wall

375
Q

Define pericardial sac

A

The outermost layer of the pericardium that surrounds the heart

376
Q

Define pericardium

A

Protective outer layer covering the heart

377
Q

Define pulmonary circulation

A

The blood circulating to the lungs

378
Q

Define pulmonary valve

A

The valve between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery also known as the pulmonary valve

379
Q

Define pulmonary vessels

A

Blood vessels that carry blood to and from the lungs

380
Q

Define renal artery and vein

A

Blood vessels that carry blood to and from the kidneys

381
Q

Define sinoatrial node

A

Natural pacemaker of the heart

382
Q

Define semilunar valve’s

A

Another name for the pulmonary and aortic valve’s

383
Q

Define systemic circulation

A

The blood circulation to and from all parts of the body except for the lungs

384
Q

Define Systole

A

The contract and pumping phase of the heart chamber

385
Q

Define tricuspid valve

A

The valve between the right atrium and the right ventricle

386
Q

Define vein

A

A blood vessel that carries blood towards the heart

387
Q

Define ventricle

A

The heart chamber that pumps blood out through the large arteries the left ventricle pumps blood out through the aorta and the right ventricle pumps blood through the pulmonary artery

388
Q

What is the Cardia and what does it do

A

It is the opening from the esophagus. Has a cardiac sphincter which helps reduce reflux

389
Q

What is the Antrum and what is it do

A

It grinds up swallowed food and also regulates HCL secretion in fundus and body

390
Q

What is the fundus and what is it do

A

The distensible blind poach which expands as more food is swallowed, then changes shape to close off esophagus

391
Q

What is the body and what is it do

A

Distensible middle section containing numerous gastric glands

392
Q

What is the pylorus and what is it do

A

Muscular sphincter which regulates the movement of chime from the stomach and the duodenum

393
Q

What is the function of the reticulum

A

Most cranial compartment, continuous muscular wall so compartments contract together

394
Q

What is the function of the omasum

A

Muscular organ that mechanically breaks food down

395
Q

What is the function of the rumen

A

Site of fermentation and anaerobic cellular respiration. Fermentation vat lined with finger like papilla

396
Q

What is the function of the abomasum

A

The true stomach that functions like a monogastric stomach

397
Q

Explain the process of emulsification. How do bile acids from the liver aid in fat digestion

A

Agitation in pyloric Antrum grinds fat globules into small droplets.bile coats fat droplets in duodenum. Lipases breakdown triglycerides into glycerol and fatty acids

398
Q

What are the building blocks of molecules derived from the digestion of fat

A

Glycerol, fatty acid, micelles and fat-soluble vitamins

399
Q

Describe three functions of the liver

A

Produce bile acid that is stored in gallbladder. Remove and neutralize toxins that enter the body through the G.I. tract. Stores and metabolizes nutrients absorbed by the G.I. tract

400
Q

Describe the difference between a herbivore, carnivore, omnivore

A

A developed caecum versus a nonfunctional caecum

401
Q

What are the five key functions of the gastrointestinal tract

A

Absorption, excretion, mastication, prehension, ingestion

402
Q

Which part of the ruminant digestive system most closely resembles the monogastric stomach

A

The abomasum

403
Q

What are the components of the small intestine

A

The duodenum, jejunum, ileum

404
Q

What are the components of the large intestine

A

Caecum, colon, rectum, anus

405
Q

Which digestive related organ has both exocrine and endocrine function

A

The pancreas

406
Q

What is an inflammation of the gingiva called

A

Gingivitis

407
Q

What are the muscular folds that divide the sacs of the rumen called

A

Rumenoreticular folds

408
Q

What does the P-wave signify in the contractions of the heart

A

Depolarization of atria in response to SA node

409
Q

What does the PR interval represent in the contractions of the heart

A

Delay of the AV node to allow filling the ventricles

410
Q

What does the QRS complex signify in the contractions of the heart

A

Depolarization of ventricles, triggers pumping contractions

411
Q

What is the ST segment signify in the contractions of the heart

A

The beginning of ventricle repolarization

412
Q

What does the T-wave signify and the contractions of the heart

A

Ventricular repolarization

413
Q

Trace blood through the systemic circulation

A

Pulmonary veins➡️left atrium➡️bicuspid valve➡️left ventricle ➡️aortic semilunar valve➡️aorta➡️arteries➡️arterials➡️capillaries➡️venules➡️caudal/cranial vena cava➡️right atrium

414
Q

Trace the blood through the pulmonary circulation

A

Right atrium➡️tricuspid valve➡️right ventricle➡️pulmonary semilunar valve ➡️pulmonary artery➡️lungs➡️systemic circulation

415
Q

What is the dental formula for a dog

A

31423143

416
Q

What is the dental formula for a horse

A

31433133

417
Q

What is the dental formula for a pig

A

31433143

418
Q

What is the dental formula for a cow

A

00333133

419
Q

Where does incisor naming start

A

1

420
Q

Where does canine naming start

A

4

421
Q

Where does premolar naming start

A

5-8

422
Q

Where does molar naming start

A

9-11

423
Q

What is blood

A

Connective tissue with a plasma matrix. The protein fibers are only visible when the blood clots.

424
Q

What is blood mostly composed of

A

Rbc, wbc and platelets.

425
Q

What are three functions of blood

A

TransportRegulation (body temp, water balance, ph balance)Defense (against pathogens, blood clotting)

426
Q

What is plasma composed of

A

Water, proteins and other solutes

427
Q

What are the formed elements composed of

A

Platelets, leukocytes and erythrocytes

428
Q

Describe plasma

A

Fluid portion with dissolved substances: plasma proteins (albumin, globulins, clotting factors) and gases, nutrients, waste and hormones

429
Q

What is % of blood volume dependant on

A

Species and amount of hydration. Cats have smaller rbc than dogs and a higher % of plasma in blood. Hemoconcentration vs. hemodilution

430
Q

What is the normal yellow color in plasma due to

A

Bilirubin

431
Q

Why can blood plasma appear cloudy

A

Due to postprandial lipemia. (Fat in blood after eating)

432
Q

How do you avoid postprandial lipemia

A

Fast before taking a blood sample

433
Q

What is the difference between serum and plasma

A

Serum is the same as plasma except it lacks clotting factors

434
Q

What does supernatant mean

A

Serum

435
Q

What is the intrinsic blood coagulation pathway

A

Surface contactHageman factor(Active) hageman factorChristmas factor(Active) christmas factor Stable factorPlatelet membranePhospholipidCalcium ions(Active) stable factorP.M.PCalcium ions

436
Q

Describe the extrinsic blood coagulation pathway

A

Tissue damageTissue factor: stable factorStable factor Platelet membrane phospholipid Calcium ions

437
Q

Describe the common coagulation pathway

A

V, platelet membrane, phospholipidProthrombinThrombinFibrin stabilizing factor OR fibrogenFibrinStable fibrin clot

438
Q

What is an anticoagulant

A

Used to prevent blood clotting (coagulation) in vitro or in vivo. Substance blocks one of clotting factors in pathway

439
Q

What does edta coagulation do

A

Binds ca++, used in lab (lavender top)

440
Q

What does heparin anticoagulant do

A

Naturally occurring. Used to prevent thrombosis and embolism

441
Q

What does warfarin anticoagulant do

A

In 1940: used as rat poisonIn 1950: used medicinally as an oral anticoagulant

442
Q

What are the three formed elements in blood

A

ErythrocytesLeukocytes Thrombocytes

443
Q

How much percent of blood does plasma compose

A

55% of blood

444
Q

What is a Buffy coat and what is it part of

A

It is leukocytes and thrombocytes, it’s part of the formed elements and its it greater than 1% of whole blood

445
Q

What is an erythrocyte and what is it part of

A

It is red blood cells and it composed 45% of whole blood

446
Q

Wbc are considered what

A

Complete cells

447
Q

Describe the physiology of a rbc

A

Have no nuclei or most other organelles

448
Q

What are platelets considered

A

Cell fragments

449
Q

How long do formed elements last in blood

A

Survive in bloodstream for a few days with the exception of wbc

450
Q

Where do blood cells originate

A

Originate in red bone marrow and do not divide (exception: some wbc)

451
Q

What is hematopoiesis

A

The formation of blood cells. It is a continual process: stem cells formed element cells

452
Q

How long does it take a stem cell to turn into a rbc

A

15 days

453
Q

How long do red blood cells survive

A

100-120 days

454
Q

What is step 3 in the stem cell conversion to rbc

A

Proerythroblast turns into basophilic erythroblast

455
Q

What is the 4th step in the conversion from stem cells to rbc

A

From a basophilic erythroblast to polychromatic erythroblast.

456
Q

What is the 7th step of the conversion from stem cell to rbc

A

From orthochromatic erythroblast to reticulocyte

457
Q

Describe phase 1 of the development pathway

A

Ribosome synthesis

458
Q

What is phase 2 of the development pathway

A

Hemoglobin accumulation

459
Q

What is phase 3 in the development pathway

A

Ejection of nucleus

460
Q

What is polychromasia

A

Lavender cytoplasm. Hemoglobin production begins

461
Q

What does the erythropoietin hormone

A

Stimulates erythropoiesis, always have a small amount in blood. High rbc or O2 levels depress production. Released by kidneys in response to hypoxia

462
Q

What are the causes of hypoxia

A

Decreased rbc numbers due to hemorrhage or increase destruction. Insufficient hemoglobin per rbc (iron deficiency) or reduced availability of o2 (high altitudes)

463
Q

In early fetus, what organs are responsible for hematopoiesis

A

Liver and spleen

464
Q

When fetus ages, what becomes more prominent

A

Red bone marrow

465
Q

As an animal ages what happens to red bone marrow

A

Red bone marrow is reduced to epiphyses and replaced by yellow bone marrow in diaphyses

466
Q

What does anucleation mean in terms of erythrocytes

A

Making more space for hemoglobin

467
Q

What are the benefits of having biconcave disks (erythrocytes)

A

Higher surface area to transport gases across membrane. Flexible; can squeeze through small capillaries

468
Q

What type of respiration do erythrocytes have

A

Anaerobic

469
Q

Do erythrocytes have mitochondria ?

A

No

470
Q

Do erythrocytes have a nucleus?

A

Only in non mammalian species

471
Q

What do red blood cell size and color vary on

A

Species

472
Q

How much of the cell does hemoglobin compose

A

35%

473
Q

What is hemoglobin composed of

A

Globular proteins (4 polypeptides) + heme groups (containing iron )

474
Q

How many O2 can each hemoglobin carry

A

4 O2

475
Q

How many hemoglobin. Do we have in our body

A

250 million hb/rbc

476
Q

Animals with smaller cells have

A

More rbc

477
Q

What are the three types of hemoglobin

A

Embryonic hemoglobin (HBe)Fetal hemoglobin (HbF)Adult hemoglobin (Hb)

478
Q

What’s the difference between fetal hemoglobin and adult hemoglobin.

A

Fetal has a higher affinity to O2 than adult Hb. Very good in low O2 environment

479
Q

Describe O2 loading in lungs

A

Produces oxyhemoglobulin (ruby red)Hb+O2 ➡️ HbO2

480
Q

Describe O2 unloading in tissues

A

Produces deoxyhemoglobin or empty hemoglobin (dark red)Hb+o2➡️HbO2

481
Q

Describe CO2 loading in tissues

A

20% of CO2 in blood binds to HbHb + CO2 ➡️ HbCO2

482
Q

What does the lifespan of red blood cells depend on

A

Varies by species. Large animals have longer living rbc

483
Q

What does senesce mean

A

Age

484
Q

As red blood cells age what happens

A

Become rounder with less surface area and get trapped in spleen

485
Q

What happens to old rbc when they get trapped in the spleen

A

Most are phagocytized by macrophages (wbc) in spleen, some destroyed in blood vessels.

486
Q

What happens when rbc die

A

Replaced by young cells from red bone marrow

487
Q

What happens to globins when they’re separated from heme

A

Globins are metabolized into amino acids which are sent to liver for production of new proteins

488
Q

What happens to iron when it’s Seperated from heme and globin

A

Iron salvaged for reuse; sent to red bone marrow

489
Q

What happens to heme when it’s Seperated from globin

A

Heme is degraded to yellow pigment called bilirubin. Sent to liver to be used in bile which is secreted into the small intestine

490
Q

What happens if liver is unable to process all the bilirubin,

A

it can collect in the tissues which is jaundice

491
Q

What is anemia ?

A

Blood has abnormally low O2 carrying capacity. Low O2 levels cannot support metabolism.

492
Q

What are the symptoms of anemia

A

Fatigue, pallor

493
Q

What is the cause of anemia

A

Blood loss, decreased erythropoiesis, decreased hemoglobin production

494
Q

What is polycythemia

A

Abnormally high number of rbc

495
Q

What are the three types of polycythemia

A

Relative polycythemiaCompensatory polycythemia Polycythemia ruba Vera

496
Q

Define relative polycythemia

A

Hemoconcentration (loss of plasma) due to dehydration

497
Q

Define compensatory polycythemia

A

Increased erythropoiesis due to hypoxia

498
Q

Define polycythemia ruba Vera

A

Rare idiopathic bone marrow disorder

499
Q

How do you determine amount of cells in blood

A

❤️Manually count with the hematocytometer slide❤️Hematocrit or packed cell volume

500
Q

What does a hematocrit do

A

Calculate % of rbc (+ Buffy coat plasma)

BVetMed - Complete course (Years 1, 2, 3) (26 decks)

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