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BVetMed - Complete course (Years 1, 2, 3) > Anatomy and Physiology (1st) > Flashcards

Anatomy and Physiology (1st) Flashcards

All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.

1
Q

What is the median plane?

A

Divides the body into equal left and right halves

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2
Q

What is the Sagittal plane?

A

Divides the body into left and right parts that are not necessarily equal

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3
Q

What is a transverse plane?

A

Divides the body into cranial and caudal parts

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4
Q

What is the dorsal plane?

A

Divides the body into dorsal and ventral parts

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5
Q

What does cranial mean?

A

Toward the head ; or the front surface of a limb proximal to the carpus or tarsus

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6
Q

What does caudal mean

A

Toward the tail; also the back surface of a limb proximal to the carpus or tarsus

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7
Q

What does rostral mean?

A

Toward the tip of the nose

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8
Q

What does dorsal mean?

A

Toward the top surface of the body ; also the top/front surface of a limb distal to the carpus or tarsus

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9
Q

What does ventral mean?

A

Toward the bottom (belly) surface of the body

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10
Q

What does medial mean?

A

Toward the median plane

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11
Q

What does lateral mean?

A

Away from the median plane

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12
Q

What does deep mean?

A

Toward the center of the body or a body part

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13
Q

What does proximal mean?

A

Toward the body (used for appendages)

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14
Q

What does distal mean?

A

Away from the body (used for appendages)

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15
Q

What does palmar mean?

A

Ground/back surface of front limb distal to carpus

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16
Q

What does plantar mean?

A

Ground/back surface of hind limb distal to the tarsus

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17
Q

What is a cranial surface?

A

The front part of a leg (what enters the building first) above the knee

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18
Q

What is a caudal surface?

A

The “back” surface of a leg above the knee

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19
Q

What is a dorsal surface?

A

The front of leg (below knee) and top of foot

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20
Q

What is a palmar surface ?

A

(Front legs only) The “back” part of leg (below the knee) including the bottom of the foot

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21
Q

What is a plantar surface?

A

(Back legs only) The “back” part of leg (below the knee) including the bottom of the foot

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22
Q

What is a barrel?

A

The trunk of the body-formed by the rib cage and the abdomen

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23
Q

What is a flank?

A

Lateral surface of the abdomen between the last rib and the hind legs

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24
Q

What is a brisket?

A

Area of the base of the neck between the front legs that covers the cranial end of the sternum

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25
Q

What is a poll?

A

Top of the head between the bases of the ears

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26
Q

What is a muzzle

A

Rostral part of the face formed mainly by the maxillary and nasal bones

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27
Q

What is a withers?

A

Area dorsal to scapulas

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28
Q

What is a tailhead?

A

Dorsal part of the base of the tail

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29
Q

What is a hock?

A

Tarsus

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30
Q

What is a stifle?

A

Femorotibial/fenoropatellar joint-equivalent to the human knee

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31
Q

What is a fetlock?

A

Joint between cannon bone (large metacarpal/metatarsal) and the proximal phalanx of hoofed animals

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32
Q

What is a knee?

A

Carpus of hoofed animals

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33
Q

What is a cannon?

A

Large metacarpal or metatarsal bone of hoofed animals

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34
Q

What is a Pastern?

A

Area of the proximal phalanx of hoofed animals

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35
Q

What is dorsal recumbency?

A

Lying on the back (dorsal body surface) with the ventral side facing up

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36
Q

What is lateral recumbency?

A

Lying on the side

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37
Q

What is left lateral recumbency?

A

Left side down

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38
Q

What is right lateral recumbency?

A

Right side down

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39
Q

What is sternal recumbency?

A

Lying in the sternum (ventral body surface) with the dorsal surface facing up

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40
Q

What is oblique recumbency ?

A

The body is tilted between dorsal or sternal recumbency and lateral recumbency (referred to by a combination of other position terms)

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41
Q

What are the four types of tissues?

A

epithelial tissue connective tissue muscle tissue nervous tissue

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42
Q

What is the function of epithelial tissue?

A

It covers and lines

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43
Q

What is the function of connective tissue?

A

It provides support

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44
Q

What is the function of muscle tissue?

A

It enables movement

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45
Q

What is the function of nervous tissue?

A

Controls work

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46
Q

What is gross anatomy?

A

The study of anatomical structures that can be seen with the naked eye includes learning the names and locations of bones, muscles, arteries, veins, and nerves

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47
Q

What is histology?

A

The study of tissues

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48
Q

What is microanatomy?

A

The study of anatomical structures that can be seen with the use of microscope

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49
Q

What is unique about a unicellular organism?

A

It can feed itself, respire, grow and produce or find all of the biochemical substances that it needs without the assistance of other cells

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50
Q

What are tissues?

A

Cells of similar type and function that are clustered into layers, sheets, or groups

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51
Q

What is a general function of epithelial tissue

A

It is protective of underlying tissues and frequently acts as a filter of biochemical substances as well as being absorptive. It also secretes biochemical substances

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52
Q

What are glandular epithelia?

A

Epithelia that engage in the manufacturing and release of substances

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53
Q

Where are goblet cells found and what are they an example of

A

Glandular epithelial cells

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54
Q

What are the two ways glandular epithelial cells can occur

A

As individuals or as organized glands

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55
Q

Give an example of some substances that are produced by glandular epithelia

A

Hormones, enzymes, milk, sweat

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56
Q

What are excretions

A

Substances that ultimately leave the body ie. sweat, urine, feces

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57
Q

What are secretions

A

Substances that remain within the body

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58
Q

What are the six functions of epithelia

A

Protects, covers, linesFilters biochemical substancesAbsorbs nutrientsProvides sensory inputManufactures secretionsManufactures excretions

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59
Q

What are the four general characteristics of epithelia

A
  1. epithelial cells are polar 2. epithelial cells have lateral surfaces that are connected to neighboring cells by junctional complexes.3. all epithelial cells lack blood vessels or capillaries. 4. most epithelial cells are innervated and provide valuable sensory input
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60
Q

What does polar mean

A

They have a sense of direction relative to surrounding structures

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61
Q

What is an apical surface

A

The apical surface is the side of the cell that faces the lumen or body cavity

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62
Q

What is a basal surface

A

This side of the cell that faces the underlying connective tissue

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63
Q

What does avascular mean

A

Lacking blood vessels or capillaries

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64
Q

What does innervated mean

A

Containing nerves

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65
Q

What are the three major types of cellular junctions found between epithelial cells

A

Tight junctions, desmosomes, gap junctions

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66
Q

What is a tight junction

A

It is formed by the fusion of the outermost layers of the plasma membranes of adjoining cells

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67
Q

Where are tight junctions found

A

Tight junctions are found in tissues in which there can be no leaks. for example: urinary bladder, digestive tract

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68
Q

What is a desmosome

A

A strong welded plaque or thickening which connects the plasma membranes of adjacent cells

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69
Q

What is plaque

A

A thickening

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70
Q

What is a hemidesmosome

A

Junctions that look like half of a desmosome

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71
Q

What are tonofilaments

A

Thin filaments that provide the structural support for certain membrane junctions. tonal filaments are especially important in tissue that needs to flex

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72
Q

Where are desmosomes commonly found

A

They are found most commonly in tissues that undergo repeated episodes of tension and stretching such as the skin, heart, uterus.

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73
Q

What are Connexons

A

Tubular channel proteins

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74
Q

What is a transmembrane protein

A

transmembrane proteins allows the exchange and passage of ions and nutrients such as nucleotides, sugars, amino acids from one cell to the other.

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75
Q

Where are gap junctions most commonly found

A

Gap junctions are most commonly found in intestinal epithelial cells, the heart, smooth muscle tissue

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76
Q

What is the function of gap junctions and what are they commonly known for

A

The function of gap junctions is to quickly transport electrical signals from one cell to another. They’re commonly known for the contraction of cardiac and smooth muscle

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77
Q

What is a basement membrane

A

It is a non-living meshwork of fibers that cement the epithelial cells to the underlying connective tissue

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78
Q

What does the basement membrane protect the cell from

A

Being torn off by intraluminal pressures such as stretching or erosion

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79
Q

How are oxygen and nutrient molecules supplied to the epithelial cells

A

They are supplied to epithelial cells by diffusing through the basement membrane from Capillaries in the underlying connective tissue

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80
Q

What does the basement membrane act as

A

It acts as a partial barrier between epithelial cells and underlying connective tissue

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81
Q

What are microvilli

A

Fingerlike protrusions of the luminal surface of some epithelial membranes that increase the cells exposed surface area

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82
Q

What is a brush border

A

The surface of a cell covered with microvilli

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83
Q

When the surface area increases…

A

The absorptive ability increases

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84
Q

What cells do microvilli usually occur on

A

Cells involved in absorption or secretion such as ones in the intestinal and urinary tracts

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85
Q

What is Keratin

A

A tough waterproof proteins that makes scales, claws, feathers, nails, hair, horns, huffs

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86
Q

What are the three characteristics that are used to classify epithelial tissue

A
  1. Number of layers of cells2. Shape of cells3. Presence of surface specializations
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87
Q

What are simple epithelia

A

Single layer of epithelial cells that provides little protection to underlying connective tissue

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88
Q

What are stratified epithelia

A

Containing many layers of cells thicker, stronger and found in areas of the body that are subjected to mechanical and chemical stress

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89
Q

What is cuboidal epithelium

A

Epithelium composed of cube shaped cells having centrally located nuclei

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90
Q

What is columnar epithelium

A

Epithelium composed of tall, thin, epithelial cells having nuclei located at their basal end and are often ciliated

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91
Q

What are squamous epithelium

A

Epithelium composed of flat, hexagonal cells

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92
Q

What is mesothelium

A

The epithelium that lines the pleural pericardial and peritoneal cavities

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93
Q

What two cells make up the gut lining

A

Absorptive cell, goblet cell

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94
Q

What is the function of a goblet cell

A

Manufacture and store lubricating mucus that is secreted onto the luminal surfaces of the epithelia

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95
Q

What are immunoglobulins

A

Disease fighting molecules that help to protect animals from pathogens that have been inhaled

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96
Q

What is a pathogen

A

Bacteria and viruses

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97
Q

What is transitional epithelium

A

Epithelium that can expand and contract thus enabling it to hold a good deal of volume

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98
Q

Where is transitional epithelium located

A

Portions of the urinary tract: urinary bladder, ureters, urethra and kidney

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99
Q

What is a gland

A

A cell or a group of cells that have the ability to manufacture and discharge secretion

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100
Q

What are secretions

A

Specialize protein molecules that are produced in the rough endoplasmic recticulum, packaged into granules by the Golgi apparatus, discharged from the cell

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101
Q

What are the six classifying characteristics of glands

A
  1. Presence or absence of ducts (endocrine or exocrine)2. Number of cells that compose them (unicellular and multicellular)3. Shape of the secreting ducts (simple or compound)4. Complexity of the glandular structure (tubular, acinar, tubuloacinar)5. Type of secretion produced (mucoid or serous)6. Manner in which the secretion is stored and discharged ( merocrine, apocrine, holocrine)
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102
Q

What are endocrine glands

A

Glands that do not have ducts or tubules and who secretions are distributed throughout the body

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103
Q

What are hormones

A

Regulatory chemicals

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104
Q

What are exocrine glands

A

Glands that possessed ducts

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105
Q

What is the function of the endocrine glands

A

Discharge secretions via their ducts directly into nearby areas where they may for example cover cell surfaces or empty into body cavities

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106
Q

Unlike endocrine glands, exocrine glands…

A

Act locally and do not normally enter the circulation

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107
Q

What is an example of a unicellular exocrine gland

A

The ductless goblet gland

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108
Q

What do goblet cells secrete

A

Mucin: thick, stringy mixture of glycoproteins and proteoglycans that when mixed with water becomes mucus

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109
Q

What are the two distinct components of a multicellular exocrine gland

A

Secretory unit in which secretions are produced by secretory cells and a duct that carries the secretion to the deposition site

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110
Q

What is a simple gland

A

An exocrine gland with unbranched ducts

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111
Q

What is a compound gland

A

An exocrine gland with branched ducts

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112
Q

What is a tubular Gland

A

Secretory unit of exocrine glands either containing or composed of tubules

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113
Q

What is an alveolar gland

A

A gland where the secretory unit forms a rounded sack

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114
Q

What are glands with secretary units that possess both tubular and alveolar qualities called

A

Tubuloacinar

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115
Q

What are merocrine glands

A

Glands who’s secretions contain none of their own cells thus leaving the Glands cells intact. example: saliva and sweat glands

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116
Q

What is an apocrine gland

A

Gland who secretions contain some of it’s cellular material.

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117
Q

What is a holocrine gland

A

A gland who’s granular secretions contain not only that secretory product but also the cells themselves

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118
Q

What is serous secretions

A

Watery, contain a high concentration of enzymes

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119
Q

What are mucous secretions

A

Thick, viscous, composed of glycoproteins

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120
Q

What are mixed endocrine glands

A

Glands that contain both mucous And serous components

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121
Q

What is mesoderm

A

The middle layer of fetal body tissue

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122
Q

What is adipose connective tissue

A

Vascular type of connective tissue who’s general functions are to protect, insulate and provide a major source of energy to the body

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123
Q

What are extracellular fibers

A

The fibers of connective tissue located outside of the cells that perform a variety of functions depending on their degree of elasticity

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124
Q

What is the extracellular matrix

A

The mixture of fiber and ground substance

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125
Q

What are glycosaminoglycan’s

A

Unbranched chains of glycoproteins

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126
Q

What are the three type of fibers connective tissue contains

A

Collagenous, recticular, Elastic

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127
Q

What are collagenous fibers

A

Strong, thick strands composed of the structural protein collagen

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128
Q

What are reticular fibers

A

Thin fibers composed of collagen

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129
Q

What are elastic fibers composed of

A

The protein Elastin

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130
Q

What is a fibroblast

A

Large, irregularly shaped cells that manufacture and secrete both fibers and ground substance characteristic of their particular matrix

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131
Q

What fixed cell does cartilage contain

A

ChondroblSt

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132
Q

What are reticular cells

A

Cells that are flat, star shaped with long, outreaching arms that touch other cells forming net like connections with the tissue they compose

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133
Q

What are leukocytes

A

White blood cells that move into connective tissue in large numbers during times of infection

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134
Q

What is diapedesis

A

The process by which white blood cells squeeze through walls of tiny blood vessels into the surrounding tissue

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135
Q

What are mast cells

A

Oval cells that are easily identified by the large number of dark staining granules Stored in the cytoplasm

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136
Q

What does histamine do

A

Histamine increases blood flow to the area by making capillaries leaky

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137
Q

What does heparin do

A

Prevents blood from clotting and ensures the pathways for increased bloodflow remain open

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138
Q

What are microphages

A

Masses irregularly shaped phagocytizing scavengers that may be either fixed or transient in connective tissue. They engulf microbes, dead cells and debris and subsequently digest them in the lysosomes

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139
Q

What are the two subclasses of connective tissue

A

Loose connective tissue and dense connective tissue

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140
Q

What does loose connective tissue contain

A

Areolar, adipose and reticular tissue

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141
Q

What does dense connective tissue contain

A

Dense regular, dense irregular, elastic tissue

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142
Q

What is Areolar connective tissue

A

Randomly placed fibers and cells suspended in a thick, translucent ground substance

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143
Q

What is adipose tissue

A

Fat

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144
Q

What are the two main types of adipose tissue

A

White adipose tissue and brown adipose tissue

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145
Q

Where is white adipose tissue found

A

Throughout the body in deep layers of skin

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146
Q

Where is brown adipose tissue found

A

It is found in newborn animals and animals that hibernate during the winter

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147
Q

What is reticular connective tissue composed of

A

Complex, three dimensional network of thin, reticular fibers

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148
Q

What is the stroma

A

A network which constitutes the framework of several organs

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149
Q

What is dense fibrous connective tissue characterized by

A

Densely packed arrangement of collagen fibers

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150
Q

What is dense regular connective tissue composed of

A

Tightly packed, parallel collagen fibers. The fibers lie in the direction of the force that is exerted on them, thereby giving the overall tissue tremendous strength but only in one direction

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151
Q

What is a Fascia

A

A structure that can withstand forces from more than one direction

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152
Q

What is elastic connective tissue

A

Dense connective tissue that is primarily composed of elastic fibers rather than collagen fibers

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153
Q

Where are simple tubular glands found

A

Stomach, intestines

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154
Q

Where are coiled tubular glands found

A

Sweat glands

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155
Q

Where are branched tubular glands found

A

Stomach, mouth, tongue

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156
Q

Where are simple aveolar glands found

A

Sebaceous glands

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157
Q

Where are branched aveolar glands found

A

Sebaceous glands

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158
Q

Where are compound tubular glands found

A

Bulbourethral glands, mammary glands, mucous glands

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159
Q

Where are compound aveolar glands found

A

Mammary glands

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160
Q

Where are compound tubuloalveolar glands found

A

Salivary gland, pancreas, respiratory passages

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161
Q

What is cartilage

A

Tough, specialized connective tissue that is commonly known as gristle

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162
Q

What is chondrocyte and where do they live

A

Cartilage cells, lives in hollowed out pockets in the matrix called lacunae

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163
Q

What is hyaline cartilage

A

Composed of closely packed collagen fibers that make it tough but more flexible than bone

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164
Q

What is articular cartilage

A

Cartilage at the ends of long bones and joints and connection ribs to the sternum

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165
Q

What is elastic cartilage

A

Similar to hyaline cartilage but contains more elastic fibers which form dense, branching bundles that appear black microscopically

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166
Q

What is fibrocartilage

A

Contains text bundles of collagen fibers like hyaline cartilage but has fewer chondrocytes and lacks a perichondrium

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167
Q

What is bone

A

Hardest and most rigid type of connective tissue

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168
Q

What does a Haversian canal contain

A

Both a vascular and a nerve supply

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169
Q

What do osteoblast do

A

Manufacture the fibers that are part of the matrix

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170
Q

What is blood

A

Red fluid that passes through vessels and that carries nutrient molecules and gases throughout the body

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171
Q

What are Erythrocytes

A

Red blood cells

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172
Q

What are leukocytes

A

White blood cells

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173
Q

What are thrombocytes

A

Platelets

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174
Q

What are three examples of loose connective tissue

A

Areolar, adipose, recticular

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175
Q

What are three examples of dense connective tissue

A

Dense regular, dense irregular, elastic

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176
Q

What are three examples of cartilage

A

Hyalin cartilage, elastic cartilage, fibrocartilage

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177
Q

What are two examples of bones

A

Compact, cancellous

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178
Q

What are the two broad categories of connective tissue

A

Loose connective tissue, dense connective tissue

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179
Q

What are serous membranes

A

Lined the walls and cover the organs that fill closed body cavities

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180
Q

What is the portion of the membrane that lines the cavity wall called

A

Parietal layer

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181
Q

What is the portion of the membrane that covers the outer surface of organs called

A

Visceral layer

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182
Q

What is a transudate

A

Thin fluid containing small amounts of protein or no protein that has been passed through membrane

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183
Q

What is a hemothorax

A

When blood cells and fluid leak from ruptured capillaries into the pleural space

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184
Q

What is a exudate

A

When cells, protein and other solid material mixed with serous fluid

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185
Q

What is effusion

A

When an abnormally large amount of fluid enters the body cavity

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186
Q

What is ascites

A

Fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity

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187
Q

What is pleuritis

A

Inflammation of the Pleura

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188
Q

What is pericarditis

A

Inflammation of the pericardial tissue

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189
Q

What is peritonitis

A

Inflammation of the peritoneum

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190
Q

What are. Adhesions

A

Abnormal connections between Parietal and visceral layers

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191
Q

What is a membrane

A

Epithelium plus connective tissues

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192
Q

What does it mean if a tissue is regular

A

It means that it is parallel

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193
Q

What do tendons do

A

Connect muscle to bones

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194
Q

What do ligaments do

A

Connect bone to bone

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195
Q

What do fascia do

A

Surrounds muscles

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196
Q

What does reticular mean

A

A network

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197
Q

What are two cell types in connective tissues

A

Fixed cells and wandering cells

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198
Q

What do fixed cells do and given example of it

A

Fixed cells remain in connective tissue and an example is fibroblast

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199
Q

What do osteoclasts do

A

Breaks down bone

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200
Q

What are wandering cells and give an example

A

Leave connective tissue as needed and microphages

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201
Q

What are the three components of connective tissue

A
  1. cells 2. ground substance3. fibers
202
Q

What do endocrine glands to

A

Makes hormones

203
Q

What do exocrine glands do

A

Make other things

204
Q

What are the three layers of skin

A

EpidermisDermisHypodermis

205
Q

What are the characteristics specific to the epidermis

A

Primary cellularKeratinized stratified epitheliumVascularSeparated from dermis by basement membrane

206
Q

What are skins specific characteristics

A

Largest organCovers external surface of bodyComposed of all 4 tissue types

207
Q

What are the characteristics specific to the dermis

A

Has projections: dermal papillaeVascularized Contains muscle and nervous tissue

208
Q

What are the characteristics specific to the hypodermis

A

Composed mostly of adipose tissueVascularized

209
Q

What is skin composed of

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

210
Q

What is specific about stratified squamous epithelium

A

Contains keratinocytesDominant cell type in epidermisProduces keratinAlong basement membraneBasal layer divides by mitosis

211
Q

How do cells become Keratinized

A

Lose nucleus, organelles, flatten and die

212
Q

What are melanocytes

A

Produce keratin = dark pigment Have octopus like projectionsMelanin is released and absorbed by keratinocytes

213
Q

What is a langerhans cells

A

Macrophage specific to epidermisWander through epidermisPhagocytizes pathogensStimulates immune systemFormed in bone marrow and migrate to skin via blood

214
Q

What is a merkel cell

A

Epithelial cells found at base of epidermis Associated with sensory nerve endings

215
Q

What type of cells cause skin cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinomaMalignant melanomaBasal cell sarcoma

216
Q

What is specific about squamous cell carcinoma

A

Found in areas most exposed to u.v.Aggressive locally - forms lesionsSpreads rapidly to lymph nodes:deadly

217
Q

What is specific about malignant melanoma in horses

A

Very common in GretaStart as nodules on ears,perianal areaLater ulcerate and spread to rest of body

218
Q

What is specific about malignant melanoma in dogs

A

Oral cavity is the most common location and it is the most malignant

219
Q

What is specific about basal cell tumours

A

Affect basal layerNodular masses beneath skinUsually benign and don’t spreadMore common in cats than dogsFound in head + neck region

220
Q

What is the first layer of epidermis and what is specific about it

A

Stratum basale:Single row of keratinocytes on top of basement membraneActively dividingNewly forming cells are pushed upwards

221
Q

What is the second layer of epidermis and what is specific about it

A

Stratum spinosum:Several rows of keratinocytesCell layers held together by desmosomesProjections of melanocytes reach into this layer

222
Q

What is the third layer of epidermis and what is specific about it

A

Stratum granulosum:2-4 rows of cells; flattened-diamond shaped keratinocytes

223
Q

What is the fourth layer of epidermis and specific characteristics of it

A

Stratum lucidum:Found only in thick skinFew layers of Keratinized dead cells

224
Q

What is the fifth layer of epidermis and what is specific about it

A

Stratum corneum:Outermost layerMajority of epidermis thickness 20-30 rows of dead, flattened keratinocytes

225
Q

What is specific about the dermis?

A

Provides structural strength to skinHide of animal used to make leather Contain large amount of fibers: collagen, elastic, reticularCells: fibroblasts

226
Q

What are the two layers of the dermis:

A

Papillary layerReticular layer

227
Q

Describe the papillary layer

A

Thin, superficial layerBelow basement membraneComposed to Areolar connective tissue ** ground substance? Hyaluronic acid

228
Q

WhAt is special about the papillary layer

A

Often has papillae rising up into epidermis and has sensory neurons

229
Q

Describe the reticular layer

A

Thick, deep layerComposed 80% of dermisComposed of dense irregular connective tissue

230
Q

Describe the hypodermis

A

Thick layer below dermisComposed of Areolar and adipose tissueContains mostly elastic fibersHas pacinan corpuscles

231
Q

Why is the hypodermis special?

A

Location of subcutaneous injections

232
Q

What is particular about pigmentation

A

Presence of melanin in keratinocytesFormed and released in melanosomes Controlled by hormones of pituitary gland**ultimately controlled by genetics

233
Q

What are melanosomes

A

Sac where melanin is stores

234
Q

What are paw pads and what is distinct about them?

A

Toughest and thickest skin on bodyProtect against abrasion etcShock absorbers5 layers of epidermis +collagen and elastinStratum corneum has papillae which provide tractionContains sweat glands

235
Q

What is a planum nasale

A

Thin hairless region on nose3 epidermis layersNo glands in cats and dogs

236
Q

What are chestnuts

A

Found in equinesSoft horn like structuresVestigial structures Located on medial surface of carpus/tarsus

237
Q

Where are ergots found

A

Located on palmar/plantar surface of fetlock

238
Q

What is hair?

A

Mammalian characteristicKeratinized structure made by hair folliclesComposed of dead cells: with or without pigment

239
Q

What is the function of hair

A

Thermoregulation, camouflage, sensory

240
Q

Where is hair usually thickest

A

Dorsal and lateral surfaces of body

241
Q

What is a common problem associated with hairless animals

A

Difficulty with thermoregulation and skin cancer

242
Q

Describe the structure of hair

A

Shaft: part of hair where keratinization is completeRoot: keratinization occurring in epidermal cells

243
Q

Describe a hair follicle

A

Tube like structure through dermisHair bulb: invaginated by dermal cells called hair papilla - contains capillaries Matrix: rapidly dividing epithelial cells covering hair papilla

244
Q

What are the three layers of coat

A
  • primary hairssecondary Hairs tactile hairs
245
Q

Describe primary Hairs

A

Thicker longer “topcoat”

246
Q

Describe secondary hairs

A

Softer, shorter, wooly “undercoat”

247
Q

Describe tactile hairs

A

Ex: vibrissaeSensory cells at base

248
Q

What is the growth cycle of a hair

A

Anagen ➡️ early catagen ➡️ catagen ➡️ telogen ➡️ early anagen➡️ anagen

249
Q

What are the three things shedding is determined by

A

Environment, hormones, genetics

250
Q

How is shedding determined by environment:

A

Most outdoor lets usually shed undercoat in spring and fall

251
Q

How is shedding determined by hormones

A

Bitches sometimes have a large hair loss after welping

252
Q

How is shedding determined by genetics

A

Non shedding breeds have a very long anagen phase

253
Q

What 3 things are hair composed of

A

Medulla, cortex, cuticle

254
Q

What is a medulla?

A

Central core with loosely arranged cells in air or fluid; contain flexible, pigmented keratin

255
Q

What is a cortex

A

Thickest layer of hair; contains pigmented keratin

256
Q

What is a cuticle (hair)

A

Single layer of squamous cells; hard keratin

257
Q

What is coat color due to?

A

1-2 types of melanin in varying amounts

258
Q

What are the 5 gland types of the skin

A

SebaceousSweat Tail glandsAnal sacs Musk glands

259
Q

Describe sebaceous glands

A

Found all over body except pawpaws, planum nasaleSimple or branched Areolar shapeProduces and releases sebum into hair follicle

260
Q

Describe sweat glands

A

Assist in evaporative cooling of body, defensive properties to protect skin Coiled tubular shapeLocated in dermis/hypodermisContains both eccrine and apocrine sweat glands

261
Q

What do eccrine sweat glands do

A

Releases onto surface: found on paw pads

262
Q

What do apocrine sweat glands do

A

Release into hair follicle

263
Q

What are musk glands

A

Produce and release muskUsed in perfumes until modern times

264
Q

What are tail glands

A

Located on dorsal surface of tail in dogs and catsArea contains large sebaceous glands: contains pheromones Used for identificationAffected by hormones

265
Q

What are anal glands (sacs)

A

Located and 5 and 7 position inside anusContain sebaceous glands producing secretions with a strong odor. Used in identification and marking of feces Can become clogged

266
Q

What are horns

A

Keratinized horny sheath covers bony processes of skullGrows continuously and is not shedUsually removed when the animal is young

267
Q

What are claws

A

Keratinized covering of the distal phalynxCannot be removed thus requires amputationRetrActable in felines

268
Q

What are dewclaws

A

Remains of digits

269
Q

What are hooves and what are hooved animals called

270
Q

What is laminitis

A

Inflammation of laminaTissues cannot expand due to hoove wallCompresses lamina, decreased blood flow, lamina does and pulls away from the hoof wall. In severe cases p3 can penetrate the bottom of hoof

271
Q

What are the two types of bones

A

Cancellous bone and compact bone

272
Q

Describe cancellous bone

A

Light and spongy

273
Q

Describe compact bone

A

Heavy and dense

274
Q

What are long bones

A

Bones that are longer than they are wide

275
Q

What are the ends of long bones called

276
Q

What are Epiphyses

A

Cancellous bone covered with a thin layer of compact bone

277
Q

What is the long part of a long bone called

278
Q

What is the diaphysis primarily composed of

A

Compact bone

279
Q

What are growth plates composed of

280
Q

What is the name of the growth plate in the long bone

A

Epiphyseal plates

281
Q

Once an animal reaches his full-size what happens to the epiphyseal plates

A

They are replaced by solid bone through a process called ossification

282
Q

What do short bones look like

283
Q

What are short bones composed of

A

An inner core of cancellous bone covered by thin layer of compact bone

284
Q

What are the most common short bones on the body

A

Carpal and tarsal bones

285
Q

Describe flat bones

A

Mostly flat and thin resembling a bone sandwich

286
Q

Describe the structure of a flat bone

A

A central layer of cancellous bone covered on both sides by thin layers of compact bone

287
Q

Where are flat bones often found

A

The pelvic bones and the scapula are flat bones

288
Q

Describe irregular bones

A

Odd shaped and don’t fit into any of the other bone categories

289
Q

What are articular surfaces

A

Articular surfaces are smooth areas of compact bone that come in contact with smooth surfaces of another bone to form a joint

290
Q

What are articular surfaces covered with

A

Hyaline cartilage

291
Q

What is a condyle

A

A usually large round articular surface

292
Q

What bones have the most prominent condyles

A

The distal ends of the femur and humerus and the occipital bone

293
Q

What are vertebrae considered

A

Irregular bone

294
Q

What bone types does the skull contain

A

Flat bones and irregular bones

295
Q

Where is the head of a bone found

A

At the proximal end of a long bone

296
Q

How is the head joined to the rest of the bone

A

By a narrowed region called the neck

297
Q

Describe the head of a bone

A

Mostly spherical in shape

298
Q

What bones have heads

A

The proximal ends of the femur humerus and ribs

299
Q

What is a facet

A

A facet is a flat articular surface

300
Q

Where are facets found

A

It is found on carpal bones tarsal bones vertebrae and some long bones such as the radius and ulna

301
Q

What are processes

A

Processes are the lumps and bumps on bones

302
Q

What are condyles and heads on long bones considered

A

Processes but they have a specific articular function so they’re classified as articular surfaces

303
Q

What is the processes on bones used for

A

Is the place where the tendons of muscles attach to the bone. larger processes are where more powerful muscles attach

304
Q

What is the processes of the femur called

A

Trochanter

305
Q

What is the processes of the humerus called

306
Q

What is the processes of the ischium called

307
Q

What is the processes of the tibia called

308
Q

What is the processes of the ulna called

309
Q

What is the processes of the scapula called

310
Q

What is the processes of the Atlas called

311
Q

What are holes in bones called

312
Q

What is the purpose of a hole in the bone

A

It is a passageway for blood vessels or nerves to enter and leave the bone

313
Q

What is a fossa

A

A fossa is a depressed sunken area on the surface of a bone

314
Q

What are bone fossae usually occupied by

A

Muscles or tendons

315
Q

What joint is formed when the femur fits into the socket of the Pelvis

316
Q

What joint is formed when the head of the humerus goes into the glenoid cavity of the scapula

A

Shoulder joint

317
Q

What do the heads of the ribs articulate with

A

The thoracic vertebrae of the spinal column

318
Q

What is the purpose of the foreman in the pelvic bone

A

To make the pelvic bone lighter

319
Q

What is the axial skeleton composed of

A

The bones located on or near the central cranial-caudal axis of the body, the skull, hyoid bone, spinal column, ribs, sternum

320
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton made up of

A

The main appendages of the body: thoracic limbs and pelvic limbs

321
Q

What are the jagged immovable fibrous joints of the skull called

322
Q

What is the only freely movable joint of the skull

A

Temporomandibular joint

323
Q

What bones are considered the external bones of the cranium

A

Occipital bone, interparietal bone, parietal bone, temporal bones, frontal bones

324
Q

Describe the Occipital bone

A

Single bone that forms the base portion of the skull

325
Q

What is the name of the large opening in the occipital bone

A

Foramen magnum

326
Q

With what do the occipital condyles form a joint

327
Q

What is the Atlas

A

The first cervical vertebra

328
Q

What are the interparietal bones

A

Two small bones in the dorsal midline between the occipital bone and the parietal bone

329
Q

What are the parietal bones

A

Two bones that form the dorsolateral portion of the cranium

330
Q

What are the Temporal bones

A

Two bones that form the ventrolateral portion of the cranium

331
Q

What do the Temporal bones contain

A

The middle and inner ear structures

332
Q

What joint do the Temporal bones form with the mandible

A

Temporomandibular joint

333
Q

What are the frontal bones

A

Two bones that form the forehead part of the skull

334
Q

What do the frontal bones contain

A

Large frontal sinuses

335
Q

What do the frontal bones form

A

The rostral lateral part of the cranium and part of the orbit of the eye

336
Q

In horned animals where does the horn develop

A

Around the cornual processes of the frontal bone

337
Q

What bones are considered external bones of the face

A

Incisive bones, nasal bones, maxillary bones, lacrimal bones, zygomatic bones, mandible

338
Q

What are incisive bones

A

Two bones that are the most rostral skull bones

339
Q

What do the incisive bones house in most animals

A

Upper incisor teeth

340
Q

What are nasal bones

A

Two bones that form the bridge of the nose- the dorsal part of the nasal cavity

341
Q

What are the maxillary bones

A

Two bones that make up most of the upper jaw

342
Q

What do the maxillary bones house

A

Upper canine teeth and upper premolar and molar teeth

343
Q

What do the maxillary bones contain

A

The maxillary sinuses

344
Q

What are the lacrimal bones

A

Two small bones that form part of the orbit of the eye

345
Q

What do lacrimal bones contain

A

The lacrimal sacs

346
Q

What are the lacrimal sacs

A

Part of the year drainage system

347
Q

What are the zygomatic bones

A

Cheekbones. Two bones that form a portion of the orbit of the eye and a portion of the zygomatic arch

348
Q

What is the mandible

A

Lower job. Two bones united rostrally by mandibular symphysis in dogs, cats, cattle

349
Q

In what species is the mandible one solid bone

A

Swine and horses

350
Q

What is the shaft of the mandible

A

Horizontal part that houses all lower teeth

351
Q

What is a turbinate

A

Thin, scroll like bones that fill most of the space in the nasal cavities

352
Q

What is the function of turbinate

A

Condition inhaled air

353
Q

What is the function of the hyoid bone and where is it located

A

It attaches to the Temporal bones and supports the base of the tongue, the pharynx, larynx

354
Q

What is the spinal column made up of

A

Series of irregular bones called vertebrae that extend from the skull to the top of the tail

355
Q

What does a typical vertebra consist of

A

A ventral body, a dorsal arch, and a group of processes

356
Q

How are the bodies of adjacent vertebrae separated

A

By cartilaginous intervertebral discs

357
Q

What are the three kinds of processes commonly found on vertebrae

A

A single spinous process that projects dorsally, two transverse processes that project laterally, and articular processes on the cranial and caudal ends of the vertebra

358
Q

What are the five regions vertebrae are grouped into

A

Cervical vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, sacral vertebrae, coccygeal vertebrae

359
Q

What is the first cervical vertebrae called

360
Q

What does the atlas form a joint with

A

The Occipital bone

361
Q

What is the second cervical vertebrae called

362
Q

What is the number of thoracic vertebrae equal to

A

The number of pairs of ribs the animal has

363
Q

Where are the cervical vertebrae found

A

In the neck region

364
Q

Where are the thoracic vertebrae found

A

In the chest region

365
Q

Where are the lumbar vertebrae found

A

In the abdomen region

366
Q

Where are the sacral vertebrae found

A

In the pelvis region

367
Q

Where are the coccygeal vertebrae found

A

In the tail region

368
Q

What is special about the sacral vertebrae

A

They are fused into a single solid structure called the sacrum. the sacrum forms a joint with the ilium of the pelvis.

369
Q

What are ribs

A

Ribs are flat bones that form the lateral sides of the thorax

370
Q

What do ribs articulate with

A

The thoracic vertebrae dorsally

371
Q

What is the ventral part of the rib composed of

A

Costal cartilage

372
Q

What is the sternum made up of

A

Bones called the sternabrae

373
Q

What is the first sternabra called

A

The manubrium

374
Q

What is the last sternabra called

375
Q

What are the thoracic limbs

A

The front legs

376
Q

What is special about the thoracic limbs

A

In common domestic animals it has no bony connection to the axial skeleton

377
Q

How is the thoracic limb connected to the axial skeleton

A

Buy a sling like arrangement of muscles and tendons

378
Q

From proximal to distal end name the bones of the thoracic limb

A

Scapula, humorous, radius and ulna, carpal bones, metacarpal bones, phalanges

379
Q

What is the point at which the bony part of the rib meets the cartilaginous part of the rib called

A

Costochondral junction

380
Q

What is the scapula and describe its shape

A

It is the shoulder blade. It is flat and somewhat triangular in shape. Has a spine like ridge that projects laterally

381
Q

What is the name of the socket part of the ball and socket shoulder joint

A

Glenoid cavity

382
Q

What joins the glenoid cavity to the main part of the scapula bone

383
Q

What is a brachium

A

The upper arm

384
Q

What is a humerus

A

Long bone of the brachium

385
Q

What is the rounded head on the proximal end of the humerus part of

A

The ball part of the ball and socket shoulder joint

386
Q

What joins the head of the humerus to the shaft of the humerus

387
Q

To which large process on the humerus do the shoulder muscles attach

A

The greater tubercle on the proximal end of the humerus

388
Q

What is the distal articular surface of the humerus collectively called? What is the medial part and lateral part called?

A

Condyle. The medial part is the trochlea and the lateral part is the capitulum

389
Q

What is the name of the indentation on the caudal surface just proximal to the condyle on the humerus

A

The olecranon fossa

390
Q

What is the ulna

A

The long bone of the antebrachium

391
Q

What is the antebrachium

A

The forearm

392
Q

What is the purpose of the large olecranon process on the proximal end of the ulna

A

Attachment site for triceps brachii muscle

393
Q

What is the trochlear notch

A

Articular surface that wraps around the trochlea of the humeral condyle to make the elbow joint a tight secure joint

394
Q

What is the radius

A

The main weight-bearing bone of the antebrachium

395
Q

What does the head on the proximal end of the radius articulate with

A

The capitulum of the humeral condyle to form part of the elbow joint

396
Q

What does the neck on proximal end of the radius connect to

A

Next the head with the shaft of the bone

397
Q

What does the styloid process on the distal end of the radius articulate with

A

The carpus

398
Q

Where are the carpal bones located

A

Located immediately distal to the radius and the ulna

399
Q

What do the carpal bones consist of

A

Two parallel rows of short bones

400
Q

What are the carpal bones in the proximal row named

A

Radial carpal, ulnar carpal, accessory carpal and sometimes intermediate carpal

401
Q

What are the metacarpal bones

A

They extend distally from distal row of carpal bones to proximal phalange of digit

402
Q

How many metacarpal bones do dogs and cats have and how do you number them

A

Five. Number from medial (being number one) to lateral (being number five)

403
Q

What is the large metacarpal bone in ruminants called. And what is it Made of

A

The cannon bone. It is formed from two fused bones, metacarpal number three and four

404
Q

What are the phalanges

A

Individual bones that make up toes

405
Q

What is digit number one called and how many phalanges does it have

A

Is commonly called dewclaw and has two phalanges, proximal and distal

406
Q

How many phalanges does digit 2-4 contain

A

Contains three phalanges, proximal middle and distal

407
Q

What are the pelvic limbs

A

The hind legs

408
Q

How is the pelvic limb connected to the axial skeleton

A

Through the sacroiliac joint that unites the ilium of the pelvis with the sacrum of the spinal column

409
Q

From proximal to distal list the bones of the pelvic limb

A

Pelvis, femur, tibia and fibula, tarsal bones, metatarsal bones, phalanges

410
Q

How is the pelvis formed

A

From three separate bones, Ilium, ischium and pubis on each side that eventually fuse into a solid structure

411
Q

What are the names of the separate bones of the pelvis used to indicate

A

The main regions of the pelvis

412
Q

What is the ilium

A

The cranial most area of the pelvis

413
Q

What is the ischium

A

The caudal most area of the pelvis

414
Q

What is the pubis, where is it located, and what does it form

A

Pubis is located medially and forms the cranial part of the pelvic floor

415
Q

What forms the caudal part of the pelvic floor

A

The ischium

416
Q

What receives the head of the femur to form the hip joint

A

The concave acetabulum on lateral surface

417
Q

How are the two halves of the pelvis joined ventrally

A

By a cartilaginous joint, the pelvic symphysis

418
Q

What are the obturator foramina?

A

Two large holes on either side of the pelvic symphysis that serve to lighten the pelvis

419
Q

What is a femur

A

The long bones of the thigh

420
Q

What is the rounded head on the proximal end of the femur called

A

The ball part of the ball and socket hip joint

421
Q

Where is the greater trochanter located on the femur

A

On the proximal end

422
Q

What is the purpose of the greater trochanter process

A

It is the large process to which gluteal muscles attach

423
Q

What are the distal articular surfaces of the femur called

A

Rounded medial and lateral condyle’s

424
Q

What is a trochlea

A

Smooth articular surface on the cranial surface of the distal end in which the patella rides on the femur

425
Q

What is the patella

A

The kneecap

426
Q

What is special about the patella

A

It is the largest sesamoid bone in the body

427
Q

Where’s the patella located

A

In the distal tendon of the large quadriceps femoris muscle

428
Q

What is the function of the patella

A

Passes down over the trochlea of the femur to insert into the tibial crest

429
Q

What is a Fabellae

A

The medial and lateral fabellae are two small sesamoid bones in the proximal gastrocnemius muscle tendons of dogs and cats

430
Q

Where are the fabellae located

A

Just proximal to and caudal to the femoral condyles

431
Q

What is the tibia

A

Main weight-bearing bone of the lower leg

432
Q

What does the proximal end of the tibia form with the femur

A

The stifle joint

433
Q

What does the distal end of the tibia form with the Tarsus

A

The hock joint

434
Q

What do the concave tibial condyle’s on the proximal end articulate with

A

The condyles of the femur

435
Q

What is the tibial crest

A

A rigid bone that continues distantly from the tibial tuberosity

436
Q

What is the medial malleolus

A

Medial facing rounded process on distal end of the tibia (knob on medial side)

437
Q

What is a fibula

A

Thin but complete bone in dog and cat. Incomplete and horses and cattle, only proximal and distal end are present.

438
Q

What is special about the fibula

A

Does not support significant weight.

439
Q

What is the function of the fibula

A

Serves as muscle attachment site and helps form stable joint distally with Tarsus

440
Q

What is lateral malleolus?

A

Laterally facing rounded process on distal end of the fibula (lateral knob on ankle)

441
Q

What are the tarsal bones

A

The Tarsus and the hock. Located immediately distal to the tibia and fibula

442
Q

What are the tarsal bones equivalent to

A

The human ankle

443
Q

What do the tarsal bones consist of and how are they named

A

Two rows of short bones. Bones in the proximal row are named Large tibial tarsal and fibular tarsal and small central tarsal

444
Q

What does the tibia tarsal bones trochlea articulate with

A

Distal end of the tibia to form the most movable part of the hock joint

445
Q

What is the calcaneal tuberosity

A

Attachment site for the tendon of the large Gastrocnemius muscle and corresponds to our heel

446
Q

How are the bones in the distal row numbered

A

From medial to lateral in a similar fashion to the distal row of carpal bones

447
Q

What are metatarsal bones

A

Bones that extend distally from distal Row of tarsal bones to proximal phalange of digit

448
Q

How many metatarsal bones do dogs and cats have and how are they numbered

A

Four metatarsal bones and they are numbered from medial to lateral

449
Q

How many digits to dog and cat hind paws have and how are they numbered

A

Four digits numbered from medial to lateral

450
Q

How many digits do ruminants have

A

Four digitsTwo support weight and two are nonweightbearing

451
Q

What are joints

A

Joints are where bones connect with each other

452
Q

What are the three types of joints

A

Fibrous joints, cartilaginous joints, synovial joints

453
Q

What are fibrous joints

A

Also known as synarthrosesBones are firmly united by fibrous tissue and allow no movement

454
Q

What is an example of a fibrous joint

A

Sutures uniting most of the skull bones

455
Q

What is a cartilaginous joint

A

Also known as amphiarthrosesUnited by fibrocartilage. Allow slight rocking movement

456
Q

What is an example of a cartilaginous joint

A

Pelvic symphysis

457
Q

What is a synovial joint

A

Also known as diarthrosesAllow free movement

458
Q

What are the characteristics of synovial joints

A

Smooth articular surfaces covered with smooth articular cartilageJoint capsule surrounds joint cavity that contains synovial fluidLigaments may connect bones together

459
Q

What do ligaments connect

A

Bones to bones

460
Q

What did tendons connect

A

Muscles to bones

461
Q

What are the types of synovial joints

A

Hinge jointGliding jointPivot jointBall and socket joint

462
Q

Give an example of where you would find a hinge joint

A

Elbow, joints of digits

463
Q

Give an example of where you would find a gliding joint

464
Q

Given example of where you would find a pivot joint

A

Atlantoaxial joint, the joint between C1 and C2 vertebrae

465
Q

Given example of where you would find a ball and socket joint

A

Shoulder, hip

466
Q

What movements are possible with a synovial joint

A

Flexion, extension, abduction, abduction, rotation, circumduction

467
Q

What is flexion

A

Decreased angle between the bones

468
Q

What is extension

A

Increased angle between the bones

469
Q

What is adduction

A

Movement of an extremity toward the median plane, inward

470
Q

What is abduction

A

Movement of an extremity away from the median plane, outward

471
Q

What is rotation

A

Twisting, rotational movement

472
Q

What is circumduction

A

Movement of an extremity so the distal end moves in a circle

473
Q

What are the Belgian blue

A

Abraded beef cattle that have double muscling phenotype and very lean meat. Heard about condition of hyperplasia (increased number of muscle cells) rather than usual hypertrophy (increased size of cells)

474
Q

What is hyperplasia

A

Mutation is in the Myostatin gene that normally stops muscle cell division at birth. Mutation also reduces fat deposition and muscle. Had a have high muscle to body weight ratio.

475
Q

What is common in Belgium blues

A

Dystocia. Difficult births. Common due to size of calf and narrow pins of cow. C-sections are common

476
Q

What is muscle. describe its functions

A

Muscle is one of four tissue types. Cells can lengthen or shorten due to protein filaments called myofilaments which compose the cytoskeleton. The functions are movement, support body, stabilize joints, reduce heat, compose hollow organs.

477
Q

What is skeletal muscle composed of

A

Cells composed of alternating thick myosin and thin actin filaments. Give striated appearance. Contraction is the sliding of actin and myosin filaments past each other

478
Q

What is a muscle

A

Organ composed the bundles of skeletal muscle cells covered in fibers connective tissue.

479
Q

What is a muscle fiber

A

Muscle cells surrounded by endomysium

480
Q

What is a fascicle

A

Bundles of cells surrounded by perimysium

481
Q

Define muscle

A

Bundles of fascicles surrounded by epimysium and blood vessels, nerves, adipose

482
Q

Describe the anatomy of a muscle

A

Many have a thick central region called the belly. Injection site. Fascia surrounding muscle tapers into tendons and attaches the bones

483
Q

What is an origin

A

Attachment to nonremovable bone

484
Q

What is insertion

A

Attachment to a moveable bone

485
Q

What are tendons

A

Rope like extensions of the epimysium composed of dense regular fibrous connective tissue

486
Q

What is an aponeurosis

A

Very flat tendon. Sheets of fibrous connective tissue

487
Q

What is a fleshy attachment

A

Very short attendance. Give the appearance of muscle connecting directly to bone

488
Q

What is the Linea alba

A

Most prominent and surgically important aponeurosis. Contains no blood vessels or major nerve. Medially unites abdominal muscles. It is from xiphoid process to pubic bones and common site for medial incision and stitches

489
Q

What is the agonist

A

Muscle that actively produces a movement

490
Q

What is the antagonist

A

Muscle that opposes the action of the agonist

491
Q

What is a synergist

A

Muscle that assists the agonist

492
Q

What is a fixator

A

Stabilize joints allowing actions to occur.

493
Q

What is an action

A

Flexion of thoracic limb at elbow joint

494
Q

What is the origin, insertion, action of the biceps brachii muscle

A

Origin supraglenoid tubercle of scapula. Insertion: ulna and radial tuberosities. Action flexes elbow

495
Q

What is the origin, insertion, action of the brachialis

A

Origin caudalolateral aspect of the proximal humerus. Insertion ulna and radial tuberosities. Action flexes elbow

496
Q

What is the origin, insertion, action of the triceps brachii

A

Origin caudal border of scapula. Proximal border of humerus. insertion olecranon process of ulna. Action extends elbow

497
Q

What is the origin, insertion, action of the cutaneous trunci muscle

A

Origin superficial trunk fascia. Insertion superficial shoulder fascia and medial surface of humorous. Action moves the skin of the abdomen

498
Q

What is the masseter muscle used for

A

Chewing. To close mandible. Origin maxillary, zygomatic archInsertion. Mandible lateral, caudal aspect

499
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the temporalis

A

Assists in chewing. Origin Temporal bones. Insertion mandible

500
Q

What is the digastricus muscle

A

Opens the jaw. Mandible

BVetMed - Complete course (Years 1, 2, 3) (26 decks)

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