Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Pharm Quiz 4 TS > Flashcards

Pharm Quiz 4 TS Flashcards

Tricia's pharm cards Includes Werners Respiratory and Ocular

1
Q

Where may a drug distribute to after it has been topically administered to the eye?

A

iris, lens, ciliary body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the disadvantages of topical administration for solution eye drugs?

A

short contact time, dilution effects, expense, increased systemic absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the advantages for topical administrations of ointment on the eye?

A

longer contact time, not diluted, protects cornea from drying, less expensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What drugs are administered by subconjunctival therapy?

A

antibiotics and corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What determines the absorption after topical administration of eye drugs?

A

time in culdesac and precorneal tear film
nasolacrimal drainage
drug binding to tear proteins
drug metabolism in tear and tissue proteins
diffusion across cornea and conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What enzymes are used to biotransform drugs in the eye?

A

esterases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What determines systemic distribution of topically administered drugs in the eye?

A

nasal mucosal absorption
local ocular distribution
transcorneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can bind certaind drugs in the eye?

A

melanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What types of drugs cause the eye to dilate?

A

sympathomimetic

parasympatholytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What types of drugs cause the eye to constrict?

A

parasympathomimetic ONLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What drugs cause pinpoint pupils?

A

opiods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should you do before treating the eye with antibiotics?

A

identify the agent! lots of resistance possibilites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What bacterial infections do dogs get in their eye?

A

staph and strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What bacterial infections do cats get in their eye?

A

same as dogs plus mycoplasma felis and chlamydophila felis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What bacterial infections do horses get in their eye?

A

staph, strep, pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 2 first choice antibiotic combos for corneal ulcers and bacterial conjuctivitis?

A

BNP - neo, bac, poly

NPG - neo, poly, gramicidin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What antibiotic combo can cause fatalities in cats?

A

polymyxin B (BNP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the 1st choice in small animals for antimicrobials for eye infection dependent on culture? Why should caution be taken?

A

Chloramphenicol

beware: doesnt treat pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What 3 classes of drugs can be used for keratomycosis?

A

polyene antibiotics, imidazoles, nucleoside analogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What combination of drugs is specific for treating corneal ulcers?

A

natamycin, tobramycin, cefazolin in serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What 2 things cause collagen and glycosaminoglycans to be broken down during corneal ulceration?

A

host derived proteinases and exogenous microbial hydrolases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What can be used from the serum of the patient to inhibit proteinases in the eye?

A

plasma alpha2-macroglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What chelating agent impairs epitheliazation in the eye to help it heal from the inside out?

A

EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What chelating agent has additional mucolytic action and makes more water tears?

A

acetylcysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What antibiotic is a chelating agent and inhibits proteinases in the eye?

A

tetracyclines (doxy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What proteinase inhibitor has indirect activity and impedes extravasation of leukocytes?

A

heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What proteinase inhibitor inhibits endogenous and pseudomonas proteinases?

A

ilomastat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What proteinase inhibitor is used in artifical tears?

A

polysulphated glycosaminoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What signaling molecule can cause neural damage in glaucoma?

A

glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What group of drugs acts on the trabecular outflow of the eye?

A

muscarinic agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What group of drugs act on uveoscleral outflow?

A

prostaglandin agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What group of drugs act on aqueous humor inflow?

A

beta blockers
a2 adrenergic agonists
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

33
Q

What are the 3 topical prostaglandin analogs?

A

latanoprost, bimatoprost, travoprost (all end in -prost)

34
Q

What is the MOA of prostaglandin analgos?

A

facilitate outflow thru uveoscleral pathway by IP3 and Ca+2 pathway

35
Q

What are the 3 beta adrenoreceptor antagonists?

A

timolol, metipranolol, betaxolol

36
Q

What is the MOA of beta antagonists?

A

cAMP - PKA pathway that regulates aqueous humor production

37
Q

What do alpha 2 agonists act through?

A

inhibition of adenylate cyclase

38
Q

What are the 2 local CAI drugs?

A

dorsolamide and brinzolamide

39
Q

What are the 3 oral CAI drugs?

A

methazolamide, dichlorphenamide, acetazolamide

40
Q

What is the MOA of CAI?

A

reduce bicarbonate, reduction in fluid transport

41
Q

What is a topical miotic used to treat glaucoma?

A

pilocarpine

42
Q

What is the MOA of pilocarpine?

A

increase aqueous outflow via trabecular outflow

43
Q

What calcium channel blocker can be used for neuroprotection during glaucoma?

A

amlodipine

44
Q

What NMDA channel blocker can be used for neuroprotection during glaucoma?

45
Q

What type of drugs should never be used on a damaged cornea?

A

glucocorticoids

46
Q

What anti inflammatory drug is highly lipophilic and used in glaucoma?

A

cyclosporin A (subconjuctival injection)

47
Q

What is the most widely used autonomic drug group used in the eye?

A

antimuscarinic

48
Q

What 3 drugs are antimuscarinic and cause dilation?

A

atropine, tropicamide, scopolamine

49
Q

What 2 sympathomimetic drugs cause dilation?

A

phenylephrine, epinephrine

50
Q

What 2 anesthetic drugs are used topically on the eye?

A

proparacaine and tetracaine

51
Q

What 2 anesthetic drugs are used as infiltrative anesthetics?

A

lidocaine and bupivacaine

52
Q

What disinfectant can be used on the eye?

A

2% povidone iodine

53
Q

What 3 drugs can be used systemically to treat nasal fungal infections?

A

ketoconazole, fluconazole, voriconazole (imidazoles)

54
Q

What are the 3 side effects of imidazoles?

A

inhibition of CY-450, GI disturbances, liver toxicity

55
Q

What drug can treat idiopathic lympho-plasmacytic rhinitis?

A

immune mediated dz –> glucocorticoids

56
Q

What causes gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

aspergillus spp

57
Q

What local drugs can treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

thiobendazole, nystatin, enilconazole

58
Q

What anti-tussive has limited SE that include vomiting and CNS depresion?

A

codeine and hydrocodone

59
Q

What anti-tussive has beneficial effects in horses for a BAL procedure?

A

butorphanol

60
Q

What anti-tussive has low potency and is used for horses and cattle?

A

dextromethorphan

61
Q

What drug breaks up mucus by disrupting disulphydryl bonds?

A

acetylcysteine

62
Q

What drugs increase mucous gland production and mucociliary clearance?

A

bromhexine, dembrexin

63
Q

Ach M3 antagonists, B2 agonists and PDE inhibitors all do what action?

A

modify airway resistance

64
Q

Crotethamide, lobeline, doxapram, etamiphylline all do what action?

A

stimulate respiration

65
Q

What are the 2 stimulating expectorants?

A

guajacol and guaifenisine

66
Q

What are the 2 reflex expectorants?

A

ammonium carbonate/chloride, potassium iodide

67
Q

What anticholinergic is used for emergency treatment and is bronchodilatory?

68
Q

What anticholinergic is used per inhalation and is restricted to respiratory tract?

A

ipratropium bromide

69
Q

What are the 3 drugs that act through B2 agonists and Gs coupled to modify airway resistance?

A

clenbuterol, salbutamol, and albuterol

70
Q

What is a side effect of the buterol drugs?

A

tocolytic - sperm abnormalities

71
Q

What receptor does phenylephrine act through?

A

alpha 1 adrenergic decongestant, topical vasoconstriction

72
Q

What are the 3 sympathetic amines?

A

phenylephrine, ephedrine, pseuodephedrine

73
Q

What can be a side effect of the sympathetic amines?

A

reflex vasodilation

74
Q

What is the MOA of theophylline?

A

stimulates adenosine receptors to increase cAMP –> increase mucociliary clearance

75
Q

What are the SE of theophylline?

A

adrenergic overdose

76
Q

What condition are NSAIDs contraindicated?

77
Q

What drug is a dual inhibitor of prostaglandins?

78
Q

What type of drugs are sodium cromoglicate and nedocromil sodium?

A

mast cell stabalizers

Pharmacology (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions