Pharm Quiz 4 TS Flashcards

Tricia's pharm cards Includes Werners Respiratory and Ocular

1
Q

Where may a drug distribute to after it has been topically administered to the eye?

A

iris, lens, ciliary body

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2
Q

What are the disadvantages of topical administration for solution eye drugs?

A

short contact time, dilution effects, expense, increased systemic absorption

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3
Q

What are the advantages for topical administrations of ointment on the eye?

A

longer contact time, not diluted, protects cornea from drying, less expensive

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4
Q

What drugs are administered by subconjunctival therapy?

A

antibiotics and corticosteroids

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5
Q

What determines the absorption after topical administration of eye drugs?

A

time in culdesac and precorneal tear film
nasolacrimal drainage
drug binding to tear proteins
drug metabolism in tear and tissue proteins
diffusion across cornea and conjunctiva

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6
Q

What enzymes are used to biotransform drugs in the eye?

A

esterases

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7
Q

What determines systemic distribution of topically administered drugs in the eye?

A

nasal mucosal absorption
local ocular distribution
transcorneal

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8
Q

What can bind certaind drugs in the eye?

A

melanin

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9
Q

What types of drugs cause the eye to dilate?

A

sympathomimetic

parasympatholytic

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10
Q

What types of drugs cause the eye to constrict?

A

parasympathomimetic ONLY

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11
Q

What drugs cause pinpoint pupils?

A

opiods

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12
Q

What should you do before treating the eye with antibiotics?

A

identify the agent! lots of resistance possibilites

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13
Q

What bacterial infections do dogs get in their eye?

A

staph and strep

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14
Q

What bacterial infections do cats get in their eye?

A

same as dogs plus mycoplasma felis and chlamydophila felis

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15
Q

What bacterial infections do horses get in their eye?

A

staph, strep, pseudomonas

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16
Q

What are the 2 first choice antibiotic combos for corneal ulcers and bacterial conjuctivitis?

A

BNP - neo, bac, poly

NPG - neo, poly, gramicidin

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17
Q

What antibiotic combo can cause fatalities in cats?

A

polymyxin B (BNP)

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18
Q

What is the 1st choice in small animals for antimicrobials for eye infection dependent on culture? Why should caution be taken?

A

Chloramphenicol

beware: doesnt treat pseudomonas

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19
Q

What 3 classes of drugs can be used for keratomycosis?

A

polyene antibiotics, imidazoles, nucleoside analogs

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20
Q

What combination of drugs is specific for treating corneal ulcers?

A

natamycin, tobramycin, cefazolin in serum

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21
Q

What 2 things cause collagen and glycosaminoglycans to be broken down during corneal ulceration?

A

host derived proteinases and exogenous microbial hydrolases

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22
Q

What can be used from the serum of the patient to inhibit proteinases in the eye?

A

plasma alpha2-macroglobulin

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23
Q

What chelating agent impairs epitheliazation in the eye to help it heal from the inside out?

A

EDTA

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24
Q

What chelating agent has additional mucolytic action and makes more water tears?

A

acetylcysteine

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25
Q

What antibiotic is a chelating agent and inhibits proteinases in the eye?

A

tetracyclines (doxy)

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26
Q

What proteinase inhibitor has indirect activity and impedes extravasation of leukocytes?

A

heparin

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27
Q

What proteinase inhibitor inhibits endogenous and pseudomonas proteinases?

A

ilomastat

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28
Q

What proteinase inhibitor is used in artifical tears?

A

polysulphated glycosaminoglycans

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29
Q

What signaling molecule can cause neural damage in glaucoma?

A

glutamate

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30
Q

What group of drugs acts on the trabecular outflow of the eye?

A

muscarinic agonists

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31
Q

What group of drugs act on uveoscleral outflow?

A

prostaglandin agonists

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32
Q

What group of drugs act on aqueous humor inflow?

A

beta blockers
a2 adrenergic agonists
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

33
Q

What are the 3 topical prostaglandin analogs?

A

latanoprost, bimatoprost, travoprost (all end in -prost)

34
Q

What is the MOA of prostaglandin analgos?

A

facilitate outflow thru uveoscleral pathway by IP3 and Ca+2 pathway

35
Q

What are the 3 beta adrenoreceptor antagonists?

A

timolol, metipranolol, betaxolol

36
Q

What is the MOA of beta antagonists?

A

cAMP - PKA pathway that regulates aqueous humor production

37
Q

What do alpha 2 agonists act through?

A

inhibition of adenylate cyclase

38
Q

What are the 2 local CAI drugs?

A

dorsolamide and brinzolamide

39
Q

What are the 3 oral CAI drugs?

A

methazolamide, dichlorphenamide, acetazolamide

40
Q

What is the MOA of CAI?

A

reduce bicarbonate, reduction in fluid transport

41
Q

What is a topical miotic used to treat glaucoma?

A

pilocarpine

42
Q

What is the MOA of pilocarpine?

A

increase aqueous outflow via trabecular outflow

43
Q

What calcium channel blocker can be used for neuroprotection during glaucoma?

A

amlodipine

44
Q

What NMDA channel blocker can be used for neuroprotection during glaucoma?

A

memantine

45
Q

What type of drugs should never be used on a damaged cornea?

A

glucocorticoids

46
Q

What anti inflammatory drug is highly lipophilic and used in glaucoma?

A

cyclosporin A (subconjuctival injection)

47
Q

What is the most widely used autonomic drug group used in the eye?

A

antimuscarinic

48
Q

What 3 drugs are antimuscarinic and cause dilation?

A

atropine, tropicamide, scopolamine

49
Q

What 2 sympathomimetic drugs cause dilation?

A

phenylephrine, epinephrine

50
Q

What 2 anesthetic drugs are used topically on the eye?

A

proparacaine and tetracaine

51
Q

What 2 anesthetic drugs are used as infiltrative anesthetics?

A

lidocaine and bupivacaine

52
Q

What disinfectant can be used on the eye?

A

2% povidone iodine

53
Q

What 3 drugs can be used systemically to treat nasal fungal infections?

A

ketoconazole, fluconazole, voriconazole (imidazoles)

54
Q

What are the 3 side effects of imidazoles?

A

inhibition of CY-450, GI disturbances, liver toxicity

55
Q

What drug can treat idiopathic lympho-plasmacytic rhinitis?

A

immune mediated dz –> glucocorticoids

56
Q

What causes gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

aspergillus spp

57
Q

What local drugs can treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

thiobendazole, nystatin, enilconazole

58
Q

What anti-tussive has limited SE that include vomiting and CNS depresion?

A

codeine and hydrocodone

59
Q

What anti-tussive has beneficial effects in horses for a BAL procedure?

A

butorphanol

60
Q

What anti-tussive has low potency and is used for horses and cattle?

A

dextromethorphan

61
Q

What drug breaks up mucus by disrupting disulphydryl bonds?

A

acetylcysteine

62
Q

What drugs increase mucous gland production and mucociliary clearance?

A

bromhexine, dembrexin

63
Q

Ach M3 antagonists, B2 agonists and PDE inhibitors all do what action?

A

modify airway resistance

64
Q

Crotethamide, lobeline, doxapram, etamiphylline all do what action?

A

stimulate respiration

65
Q

What are the 2 stimulating expectorants?

A

guajacol and guaifenisine

66
Q

What are the 2 reflex expectorants?

A

ammonium carbonate/chloride, potassium iodide

67
Q

What anticholinergic is used for emergency treatment and is bronchodilatory?

A

atropine

68
Q

What anticholinergic is used per inhalation and is restricted to respiratory tract?

A

ipratropium bromide

69
Q

What are the 3 drugs that act through B2 agonists and Gs coupled to modify airway resistance?

A

clenbuterol, salbutamol, and albuterol

70
Q

What is a side effect of the buterol drugs?

A

tocolytic - sperm abnormalities

71
Q

What receptor does phenylephrine act through?

A

alpha 1 adrenergic decongestant, topical vasoconstriction

72
Q

What are the 3 sympathetic amines?

A

phenylephrine, ephedrine, pseuodephedrine

73
Q

What can be a side effect of the sympathetic amines?

A

reflex vasodilation

74
Q

What is the MOA of theophylline?

A

stimulates adenosine receptors to increase cAMP –> increase mucociliary clearance

75
Q

What are the SE of theophylline?

A

adrenergic overdose

76
Q

What condition are NSAIDs contraindicated?

A

asthma

77
Q

What drug is a dual inhibitor of prostaglandins?

A

tepoxalin

78
Q

What type of drugs are sodium cromoglicate and nedocromil sodium?

A

mast cell stabalizers