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Pharmacology > Pharm Quiz 4 TS > Flashcards

Pharm Quiz 4 TS Flashcards

Tricia's pharm cards Includes Werners Respiratory and Ocular

1
Q

Where may a drug distribute to after it has been topically administered to the eye?

A

iris, lens, ciliary body

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2
Q

What are the disadvantages of topical administration for solution eye drugs?

A

short contact time, dilution effects, expense, increased systemic absorption

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3
Q

What are the advantages for topical administrations of ointment on the eye?

A

longer contact time, not diluted, protects cornea from drying, less expensive

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4
Q

What drugs are administered by subconjunctival therapy?

A

antibiotics and corticosteroids

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5
Q

What determines the absorption after topical administration of eye drugs?

A

time in culdesac and precorneal tear film
nasolacrimal drainage
drug binding to tear proteins
drug metabolism in tear and tissue proteins
diffusion across cornea and conjunctiva

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6
Q

What enzymes are used to biotransform drugs in the eye?

A

esterases

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7
Q

What determines systemic distribution of topically administered drugs in the eye?

A

nasal mucosal absorption
local ocular distribution
transcorneal

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8
Q

What can bind certaind drugs in the eye?

A

melanin

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9
Q

What types of drugs cause the eye to dilate?

A

sympathomimetic

parasympatholytic

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10
Q

What types of drugs cause the eye to constrict?

A

parasympathomimetic ONLY

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11
Q

What drugs cause pinpoint pupils?

A

opiods

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12
Q

What should you do before treating the eye with antibiotics?

A

identify the agent! lots of resistance possibilites

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13
Q

What bacterial infections do dogs get in their eye?

A

staph and strep

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14
Q

What bacterial infections do cats get in their eye?

A

same as dogs plus mycoplasma felis and chlamydophila felis

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15
Q

What bacterial infections do horses get in their eye?

A

staph, strep, pseudomonas

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16
Q

What are the 2 first choice antibiotic combos for corneal ulcers and bacterial conjuctivitis?

A

BNP - neo, bac, poly

NPG - neo, poly, gramicidin

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17
Q

What antibiotic combo can cause fatalities in cats?

A

polymyxin B (BNP)

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18
Q

What is the 1st choice in small animals for antimicrobials for eye infection dependent on culture? Why should caution be taken?

A

Chloramphenicol

beware: doesnt treat pseudomonas

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19
Q

What 3 classes of drugs can be used for keratomycosis?

A

polyene antibiotics, imidazoles, nucleoside analogs

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20
Q

What combination of drugs is specific for treating corneal ulcers?

A

natamycin, tobramycin, cefazolin in serum

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21
Q

What 2 things cause collagen and glycosaminoglycans to be broken down during corneal ulceration?

A

host derived proteinases and exogenous microbial hydrolases

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22
Q

What can be used from the serum of the patient to inhibit proteinases in the eye?

A

plasma alpha2-macroglobulin

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23
Q

What chelating agent impairs epitheliazation in the eye to help it heal from the inside out?

A

EDTA

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24
Q

What chelating agent has additional mucolytic action and makes more water tears?

A

acetylcysteine

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25
What antibiotic is a chelating agent and inhibits proteinases in the eye?
tetracyclines (doxy)
26
What proteinase inhibitor has indirect activity and impedes extravasation of leukocytes?
heparin
27
What proteinase inhibitor inhibits endogenous and pseudomonas proteinases?
ilomastat
28
What proteinase inhibitor is used in artifical tears?
polysulphated glycosaminoglycans
29
What signaling molecule can cause neural damage in glaucoma?
glutamate
30
What group of drugs acts on the trabecular outflow of the eye?
muscarinic agonists
31
What group of drugs act on uveoscleral outflow?
prostaglandin agonists
32
What group of drugs act on aqueous humor inflow?
beta blockers a2 adrenergic agonists carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
33
What are the 3 topical prostaglandin analogs?
latanoprost, bimatoprost, travoprost (all end in -prost)
34
What is the MOA of prostaglandin analgos?
facilitate outflow thru uveoscleral pathway by IP3 and Ca+2 pathway
35
What are the 3 beta adrenoreceptor antagonists?
timolol, metipranolol, betaxolol
36
What is the MOA of beta antagonists?
cAMP - PKA pathway that regulates aqueous humor production
37
What do alpha 2 agonists act through?
inhibition of adenylate cyclase
38
What are the 2 local CAI drugs?
dorsolamide and brinzolamide
39
What are the 3 oral CAI drugs?
methazolamide, dichlorphenamide, acetazolamide
40
What is the MOA of CAI?
reduce bicarbonate, reduction in fluid transport
41
What is a topical miotic used to treat glaucoma?
pilocarpine
42
What is the MOA of pilocarpine?
increase aqueous outflow via trabecular outflow
43
What calcium channel blocker can be used for neuroprotection during glaucoma?
amlodipine
44
What NMDA channel blocker can be used for neuroprotection during glaucoma?
memantine
45
What type of drugs should never be used on a damaged cornea?
glucocorticoids
46
What anti inflammatory drug is highly lipophilic and used in glaucoma?
cyclosporin A (subconjuctival injection)
47
What is the most widely used autonomic drug group used in the eye?
antimuscarinic
48
What 3 drugs are antimuscarinic and cause dilation?
atropine, tropicamide, scopolamine
49
What 2 sympathomimetic drugs cause dilation?
phenylephrine, epinephrine
50
What 2 anesthetic drugs are used topically on the eye?
proparacaine and tetracaine
51
What 2 anesthetic drugs are used as infiltrative anesthetics?
lidocaine and bupivacaine
52
What disinfectant can be used on the eye?
2% povidone iodine
53
What 3 drugs can be used systemically to treat nasal fungal infections?
ketoconazole, fluconazole, voriconazole (imidazoles)
54
What are the 3 side effects of imidazoles?
inhibition of CY-450, GI disturbances, liver toxicity
55
What drug can treat idiopathic lympho-plasmacytic rhinitis?
immune mediated dz --> glucocorticoids
56
What causes gutteral pouch mycosis?
aspergillus spp
57
What local drugs can treat gutteral pouch mycosis?
thiobendazole, nystatin, enilconazole
58
What anti-tussive has limited SE that include vomiting and CNS depresion?
codeine and hydrocodone
59
What anti-tussive has beneficial effects in horses for a BAL procedure?
butorphanol
60
What anti-tussive has low potency and is used for horses and cattle?
dextromethorphan
61
What drug breaks up mucus by disrupting disulphydryl bonds?
acetylcysteine
62
What drugs increase mucous gland production and mucociliary clearance?
bromhexine, dembrexin
63
Ach M3 antagonists, B2 agonists and PDE inhibitors all do what action?
modify airway resistance
64
Crotethamide, lobeline, doxapram, etamiphylline all do what action?
stimulate respiration
65
What are the 2 stimulating expectorants?
guajacol and guaifenisine
66
What are the 2 reflex expectorants?
ammonium carbonate/chloride, potassium iodide
67
What anticholinergic is used for emergency treatment and is bronchodilatory?
atropine
68
What anticholinergic is used per inhalation and is restricted to respiratory tract?
ipratropium bromide
69
What are the 3 drugs that act through B2 agonists and Gs coupled to modify airway resistance?
clenbuterol, salbutamol, and albuterol
70
What is a side effect of the buterol drugs?
tocolytic - sperm abnormalities
71
What receptor does phenylephrine act through?
alpha 1 adrenergic decongestant, topical vasoconstriction
72
What are the 3 sympathetic amines?
phenylephrine, ephedrine, pseuodephedrine
73
What can be a side effect of the sympathetic amines?
reflex vasodilation
74
What is the MOA of theophylline?
stimulates adenosine receptors to increase cAMP --> increase mucociliary clearance
75
What are the SE of theophylline?
adrenergic overdose
76
What condition are NSAIDs contraindicated?
asthma
77
What drug is a dual inhibitor of prostaglandins?
tepoxalin
78
What type of drugs are sodium cromoglicate and nedocromil sodium?
mast cell stabalizers

Pharmacology (21 decks)

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