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Pharmacology > FINAL - TS > Flashcards

FINAL - TS Flashcards

A big thanks to Kelly, Linde, and Miranda! All the stuff that I don't think ill remember but are important.

1
Q

What antiviral is used for pain?

A

Amantadine (m2 ion channel inhibitor)

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2
Q

What antifungal is used for respiratory infections?

A

ketoconazole (imidazole)

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3
Q

Which 2 antifungals do not act on membrane or cell wall?

A 
Griseofulvine (mitotic spindles)
Pyramidine analog (DNA synthesis)
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4
Q

What are the SE of polyene mycotics (amphotericin B)?

A

renal, endothelial irritant, hypokalemia

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5
Q

What anti-fungal inhibits squalene epoxidase?

A

allylamines

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6
Q

What antiprotozoal has CV effects in horses and guinea fowl?

A

polyether ionophores

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7
Q

What anti-protozoal binds disulphide bridges?

A

arsenicals (roxarsone)

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8
Q

What is the MOA of organophosphates?

A

irreversible inhibition of AChE

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9
Q

What is the MOA of carbamates?

A

reversibile inhibition of AChE

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10
Q

What receptors do pyrethrins and pyrethroids act on?

A

sodium channels, GABA, nicotinic

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11
Q

What are the SE of pyrethrins and pyrethroids?

A

nerve and muscular disorders, dont use in cats

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12
Q

How is resistance acquired against pyrethroids?

A

decrease in sensitivity of target site

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13
Q

What receptors do macrocyclic lactones act on? (according to werner)

A

Glutamate, GABA, glycine

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14
Q

What is the MOA of fipronil?

A

GABA and glutamate

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15
Q

What ectoparasiticide inhibits chitin synthesis?

A

lufernon

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16
Q

What is the MOA of amitraz? (formamidine)

A

inhibits MAO (also alpha 2 receptors?)

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17
Q

Which diuretic has the least amount of bone loss?

A

thiazide diuretics

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18
Q

What are the extra-renal effects of thiazide diuretics?

A

hyperglyemia, vasodilation

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19
Q

What drug blocks AT1 receptor and is used for chronic renal failure?

A

Telmisartin

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20
Q

What drugs can be used for the prostate?

A

basic and lipophilic drugs, erythromycins

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21
Q

What drugs are used for incontinence on the bladder?

A

parasympathicolytics

sympathicomimetics (clenbuterol)

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22
Q

What drugs are used for incontinence on the sphincter?

A

sympathomimetics

estrogens

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23
Q

What drugs cause dilation of the pupil?

A

sympathomimetic, parasympatholytic

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24
Q

What drugs cause constriction of pupil?

A

just parasympathomimetic

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25
Q

What antifungal does not penetrate cornea?

A

polyene antibiotics (amphotericin B)

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26
Q

What drugs are combined with plasma serum to put on eye?

A

EDTA or acetylcysteine

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27
Q

What drugs act on trabecular ouflow?

A

muscarinic agonists

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28
Q

What drugs act on uveoscleral outlfow?

A

prostaglandin agonists

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29
Q

What drugs act on aqueous humor inflow?

A

beta 2 blockers
alpha 2 agonists
CAIs

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30
Q

What antimycotic is used for aspergillosis?

A

enilconazole

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31
Q

What is the effect of bromhexine and dembrexin?

A

increase mucous gland evacuation

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32
Q

What 4 drug groups modify airway resistance?

A

anticholinergics, beta 2 agonists, sympathetic amines, phosphodiesterase inhibitors

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33
Q

What alkylating chemotherapy drug has low BM toxicity?

A

cisplatin

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34
Q

What is the MOA of alkylating drugs?

A

carbonium ion –> dna synthesis

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35
Q

What is the MOA of plant derivative chemo drugs?

A

microtubule fxn

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36
Q

What are the SE of prostaglandin alpha 2 analogs?

A

colic, increased muscle tone, GI signs, retained placenta

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37
Q

What sulfonamide is for opthalmic use?

A

sulfacetamide

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38
Q

What are the SE of sulfonamides?

A

KCS, hepatic necrosis, thyroid

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39
Q

How are sulfonamides metabolized?

A

acetylation

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40
Q

What are the extended spectrum/anti-pseudomonal beta lactams?

A

ticarcillin, carbenicillin, piperacillin, mezlocillin, azlocillin

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41
Q

What cephalosporin is distributed to CSF fluid?

A

Cefuroxime

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42
Q

What beta lactam has low immunogenic profile?

A

aztreonam (a monobactam)

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43
Q

What antibiotic drug group has neuromuscular blockade for SE?

A

aminoglycosides

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44
Q

What is the drug of choice for equine ehrlichia?

A

oxytetracycline

45
Q

How are chloramphenicols metabolized?

A

glucoronidation

46
Q

What is the drug of choice for campylobacter jejuni?

A

erythromycin

47
Q

What antibiotic group inhibits translocation at the 50s subunit?

A

macrolides

48
Q

What is the drug of choice for mycoplasma?

A

tiamulin

49
Q

What antibiotic causes overgrowth in hind gut fermenters and is fatal?

A

lincosamide

50
Q

What antibiotic group accumulates in macrophages?

A

fluoroquinolones

51
Q

What are the SE of fluoroquinolones?

A

arthropathy, ocular, inhibits GABA

52
Q

What antibiotic group results in histamine release?

A

vancomycin

53
Q

What antibiotic group inhibits energy metabolism by blocking oxidative decarboxylation of coA?

A

nitrofurans

54
Q

What drugs can methenamine not be used with?

A

sulfonamides

55
Q

What antibiotic drug group is good for giardia and anaerobic bacteria?

A

metronidazole

56
Q

What is the centrally acting emetic for dogs? cats?

A

dogs - apomorphine

cats - xylazine

57
Q

What drug antagonizes apomorphine emesis?

A

metoclopramide

58
Q

What drug blocks substance P emesis?

A

maripotant citrate

59
Q

What is the contraindication of maripotant citrate?

A

puppies less than 11 weeks, BM

60
Q

What is the most potent H2 receptor antagonist of antisecretory drugs?

A

famotidine

61
Q

What antisecretory drug can be used in patients with acute hepatic problems?

A

nizatidine

62
Q

What is the broadest prokinetic agent?

A

cisapride

63
Q

What are the opiods that decrease motility?

A

morphine, fentanyl, meperidine, diphenoxylate, difenoxin, loperamide, paragoric

64
Q

What is used for sand colic?

A

psyllium granules

65
Q

What is lactulose used for?

A

saline/osmotic purgative

66
Q

What contracts gall bladder by increasing SO4?

A

cholagogues

67
Q

What is the MOA of digitalis?

A

Na/K ATPase

68
Q

What inotropic drug increases binding of muscle to calcium?

A

pimobendan (also a vasodilator)

69
Q

What are the characteristics of pimobendan?

A

antiarrythmic, inotropic, vasodilator, no effect on oxygen consumption

70
Q

What vasodilator has minimal reflex tachycardia?

A

prazosin

71
Q

What drugs are contraindicated with ace inhibitors?

A

NSAIDs

72
Q

What do class IA antiarrythmics do?

A

prolong refractory
shorten phase 0
also prolong AP

73
Q

What is the most broad spectrum anti-arrythmic drug?

A

aprindine

74
Q

What 2 classes prolong AP?

A

class 1 and 3

75
Q

What class can not be used with beta blockers?

A

class 4 (calcium antagonists)

76
Q

What kind of drug is dilitiazem?

A

calcium antagonist

77
Q

What antiarrythmic should not be given to halogenetade anesthetics?

A

bretylium

78
Q

What antiarrythmic drugs are used for high levels of catecholamines?

A

beta blockers (propranolol and metoprolol)

79
Q

What is dopamine used for in the cardiovascular system?

A

oliguric renal failure

80
Q

What is netobimin a prodrug of?

A

albendazole

81
Q

What is the MOA of benzimidazoles?

A

irreversible binding to microtubulin

82
Q

What antinematodal drug is a immune stimulant?

A

levimasole

83
Q

What is anoplocephela perfoliata treated with?

A

pyrantel

84
Q

What treats pinworms in horses?

A

pyrantel pamoate salt

85
Q

What treats whipworms such as trichuris sp?

A

dichlorvos - pellets!

86
Q

What is the MOA of macrocyclic lactones?

A

glutamate gated chloride channels - paralysis

87
Q

What drug is used for screwworms?

A

doramectin

88
Q

What is the contraindication of piperazine?

A

intestinal impaction of dead worms

89
Q

What is the MOA of piperazine?

A

GABA agonist - paralysis

90
Q

What drug for rumen flukes?

A

resorantel

91
Q

What is the MOA of praziquantel?

A

calcium ion flux - vacuoles

92
Q

What does rafoxanide treat?

A

immature flukes and adult flukes

93
Q

What antitrematodal is injectable?

A

nitroxynil

94
Q

What drug is effective against haemonchus contortus?

A

closantel

95
Q

What antitrematodals are extensively PP bound?

A

rafoxanide and closantel

96
Q

What is the MOA of diamphenethide?

A

amine metabolite 100% against immature flukes

97
Q

What is the MOA of hydralazine and minoxidil?

A

opening of K+ channels in artery muscle

98
Q

What vessels does nitroglycerin relax?

A

mostly large veins

99
Q

What is the MOA of Isoxsuprine?

A

beta 2 agonist - dilates skeletal muscle BV

100
Q

What drug is used for canine pulmonary hypertension and what is MOA?

A

sildenafil,, phosphodiesterase V inhibitor, inhibit cGMP degredation, relax pulmonary BV

101
Q

What is the MOA of enalapril?

A

inhibit peptidyl dipeptidase to convert angiotension, also inhibit bradykinin degredation

102
Q

What is the MOA of isoproterenol?

A

beta 1 and 2 agonist, emergency heart block

103
Q

What is the alpha glusidase inhibitor?

A

acarbose

104
Q

What is the gila monster drug?

A

xanalatide

105
Q

What insulin has no peak?

A

glarginine

106
Q

What is the MOA of azoles?

A

block ergosterol

107
Q

What is the MOA of piperonyl butoxide?

A

inhibits MFO of insect

108
Q

What is the MOA of thiazide diuretics?

A

inhibit Na/Cl symport

109
Q

What is the MOA of distal diuretics?

A

inhibit Na/K exchange

Pharmacology (21 decks)

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