Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Pharm Quiz 2 (redo) - Werner > Flashcards

Pharm Quiz 2 (redo) - Werner Flashcards

1
Q

What protozoa drugs interfere with cytochrome mediated electron transport in mitochondria?

A

quinolones, pyrinidols (coccidial respiration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What protozoal drugs target apicoplast?

A

triazine derivatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What drugs act on protozoal membrane?

A

polyether ionophores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the MOA of polyether ionophores?

A

form complexes with sodium in cell membrane –> lowers pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do pentavalent antimonials work?

A

inhibit topoisomerase –>interefere with replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is MOA of diamidine derivatives?

A

bind to DNA, prevent replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which drugs cause clumping of heme pigments?

A

aminoquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What drugs inhibit oxidative phosphorylation?

A

guanidine derivatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What drugs bind to beta tubulin?

A

benzimidazoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 4 nitromidazole drugs?

A

metronidazole
tinidazole
ronidazole
benznidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why does metronidazole cause seizures?

A

inhibition of GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What can metronidazole treat in dogs/cats/horses/cattle?

A

dogs - giardia, balantidium, entamoeba, pentotrichomonas
cats/horses - giardia
cows - trichomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is tinidazole used for in dogs/cats?

A

dogs - giardia

cats - giardia, t. foetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Banned in the US but what drug is most effective for tritrichomonas foetus?

A

ronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which drug treats acute trypanosomiasis in dogs?

A

benznidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which is the only nitrofuran drug still in use? What can it treat?

A

nifurtimox (carcinogenic)

t.cruzi (chagas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the MOA of nifurtimox?

A

oxygen free radicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which drug binds to disulphide bridges in protozoa?

A

arsenicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 2 arsenical drugs?

A

nitarsone, roxarsone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What drug is given as feed additive to prevent histo in turkeys/chickens?

A

nitarsone (withdrawal period - 5 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What animals can nitarsone not be used?

A

ducks, pigeons, dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are aminoglycosides used for besides protozoa?

A

gram - bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can paromomycin treat in dogs/cats?

A

dogs - leishmania visceral

cats - crypto and t. foetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What can paromomycin be used for extra label in goats/cattle?

A

cattle - crypto, giardia

goats - crypto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 2 benzimidazoles used against giardia?

A

albendazole

fenbendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What advantage does benzimidazoles have?

A

no anti-bacterial activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What can treat giardia in dogs and calves but should not be used in cats or pregnant animals?

A

albendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the side effects of albendazole

A

dogs/cats - myelosuppression

pregnant - teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the drug of choice for giardia infections in dogs/cats/cattle?

A

fenbendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What form is fenbendazole administered? What can it be combined with?

A

febantel (pro drug)

given with pyrantel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What can long acting oxytetracycline treat in cattle?

A

babesia, theileria, and maybe anaplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does chlortetracycline treat in horses?

A

therileria equi (early on)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is drug of choice for babesia canis in dogs?

A

doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What nenonatal disease in dogs can clindamycin treat?

A

canine neospora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Is clindamycin coccidiostatic or coccidiocidal?

A

Both, starts as static

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What drugs are used to treat hepatozoonosis americanum in dogs?

A

clindamycin, potentiated sulfonamides and pyrimetamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What can prevent relapses of hepatazoonosis in dogs?

A

decoquinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the 2 methods for preventing resistance in poultry for coccidiosis?

A

shuttle programs

rotation programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the treatment of choice for coccidia in small animals?

A

sulfamethoxine (sulfonamide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What potentiated sulfonamide is used in poultry?

A

sulfamethoxine - ormetoprim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What potentiated sulfonamide is used in horses/dogs/cats?

A

sulfadiazine - trimethoprim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What sulfonamides are used in cattle?

A

sulfamethazine, sulfaquinoxaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What sulfonamide is used in sheep/rabbites?

A

sulfaquinoxaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the 4 drugs in the hydroquinolone/napthoquinolone group?

A

decoquinate, atovaquone, paraquone, buparvaquone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which hydroquinolones are poorly absorbed orally?

A

decoquinate, atovaquone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which hydroquinolone has no withdrawal time for meat?

A

decoquinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the restrictions of using decoquinate for the prevention of coccidiosis?

A

no laying hens

no lactating animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What drug can be used in pregnant cows to prevent crypto in calves?

A

decoquinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which drug has excellent activity against t. gondii and babesia in dogs?

A

atovaquone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What 2 drugs treat theileria in cattle?

A

parvaquone, buparvaquone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What thiamine analogue treats eimeria in birds, calves, dogs, and cats?

A

amprolium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What stages of coccidia are ionophores active against?

A

extracellular sporozoites/merozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What animals should not be given polyether ionophores?

A

horses

guinea fowl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What drugs should not be administered with ionophores?

A

tiamulin, chloramphenicol, macrolides, sulfonamides, cardiac glycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the 6 polyether ionophores?

A

lasolocid, maduramicin, monensin, narasin, semduramicin, salinomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which drug is combined with tiamulin to preven coccidiosis in chickens, turkeys, partridges and rabbits?

A

lasolocid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What drug is combined with tiamulin to prevent coccidia in broilers?

A

marduramicin and narasin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What 2 drugs should not be given to mature turkeys/guinea fowl?

A

monensin, narasin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is salinomycin only used for?

A

prevention of coccidia in broilers and bobwhite quail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the 3 triazine derivatives?

A

diclazuril, toltrazuril, ponazuril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the MOA for triazine derivatives?

A

act on apicoplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What triazine prevents coccidia in turkeys/broilers and is combined with bacitracin?

A

diclazuril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the clinical indications of toltrazuril?

A

nursing pigs - reduce coccidia signs
dogs - reduce hepatozoon CS
horses: treat EPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the treatment of choice for EPM?

A

ponazuril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What must ponazuril be combined with to reach concentration in CNS?

A

DMSO

66
Q

What is the MOA for diamidine?

A

binds to DNA

67
Q

What 2 major protozoa does diamidine treat?

A

babesia and theileria

68
Q

What is the treatment of choice for babesia in dogs?

A

imidocarb dipropionate

69
Q

What are the SE of imidocarb in horses?

A

azotemia, fetus, urinary

70
Q

What is imidocarb used for in horses?

A

babesia caballi

71
Q

What is imidocarb used for in cats?

A

cyatuxzooan felis

72
Q

What must you use with imidocarb to control parasympathetic side effects in cats?

A

atropine

73
Q

What is the MOA of fipronil?

A

non competitive block of GABA and glutamate chloride channels

74
Q

What is fipronil used for?

A

adult fleas and ticks

75
Q

What is fipronil combined with?

A

methoprene (insect growth regulator)

76
Q

What animal should fipronil not be used in?

A

young rabbits

77
Q

What drug can be used against fleas that are resistant to fipronil?

A

nitenpyram

78
Q

What is the MOA of neo nicotinoids?

A

competitive inhibition of post synaptive nicotinic receptor

79
Q

What 2 drugs are neo nicotinoids?

A

imidacloprid and nitenpyram

80
Q

What is imidacloprid used for?

A

kills fleas and prevents from biting

81
Q

How is imidacloprid administered? nitenpyram?

A

imida - topical

niten - orally

82
Q

What are SE of neo nicotinoids?

A

termors, hepatic failure

83
Q

What is the MOA of pyrethrins?

A

sodium channels in axon membrane

84
Q

What are the 2 syndromes of pyrethrins?

A

type 1 - tremors, hyperexcitability

type 2 - salivation, weakness

85
Q

What is the most widley used pyrethroid in dogs?

A

permethrin

86
Q

What is the active ingredient in ear tags for cattle?

A

fenvalerate

87
Q

What pyrethrin/oid is used as a fly repellent in horses?

A

flumethrin

88
Q

What animals are most sensitive to pyrethrins?

A

cats, aquatic animals

89
Q

What is the MOA of organophosphates?

A

irreversible inhibition of AcHE

90
Q

What is the MOA of carbamates?

A

reversible inhibition of AcHE

91
Q

What are the 3 carbamate drugs?

A

propoxur, bendiocarb and carbaryl

92
Q

What are the SE seen with organophosphates?

A

stimulation of parasympathetic nervous system, treat with atropine

93
Q

What organophosphate/carbamate are formulated as sprays/dusts/dips?

A

coumaphos, phosmet

94
Q

What is the MOA of IDI;s? (insect development inhibitors)

A

inhibit chitin synthesis

95
Q

How is lufenuron administered?

A

orally to dogs/cats

96
Q

What is the MOA of amitraz?

A

inhibits monoamine oxidase –>paralysis

97
Q

Which animals should amitraz not be given?

A

chihuahuas, pregnant animals

horse and cats are sensitive

98
Q

What drug enchances activity of topical insecticides?

A

piperonyl butoxide

99
Q

Why pyramidine antivaral looks like thymidine?

A

idoxuridine

100
Q

What drugs are analogs of guanosine?

A

acyclovir, ganciclovir

101
Q

What are the 3 anti-retro virals?

A

zidovudine
amantedine
interferon

102
Q

What are the 3 pyrimidine nucleoside anti viral drugs?

A

idoxuridine
trifluridine
sorivudine

103
Q

What are the 5 purine nucleosides for antiviral drugs?

A

Vidarabine
acyclovir
penciclovir
ganciclovir

104
Q

Famciclovir is a pro drug of what other drug?

A

penciclovir

105
Q

What is the prodrug of acyclovir?

A

valacyclovir

106
Q

Which purine nucleoside has a small spectrum?

A

ganciclovir

107
Q

What purine nucleoside is effective against RNA and DNA viruses?

A

Ribavarin

108
Q

What antiherpes drug is effective against DNA, RNA and retroviruses?

A

foscarnet

109
Q

What is the MOA of foscarnet?

A

binds at pyrophosphate site

110
Q

What are the side effects of foscarnet?

A

alterations in Ca/P homeostasis, rickets

111
Q

What are the 4 reverse transcriptase inhibitors?

A

zidovudine, lamivudine, stampidine, didanosine

112
Q

What are the SE of zidovudine in cats?

A

anemia and neutropenia,BM hypercellularity

113
Q

What drug is more safe than zidovudine because it is transported into the mitochondria?

A

lamivudine

114
Q

What virus is didanosine used for?

A

HIV

115
Q

What drug also inhibits pain by acting on NMDA receptor?

A

amantidine

116
Q

What viruses are rimantidine and amantdine good against?

A

influenza A and B

117
Q

What drug is good for equine influenza?

A

rimantidine

118
Q

Which influenza drug is eliminated unchanged?

A

amantadine

119
Q

Which influenza drug has a much larger Vd?

A

rimantidine

120
Q

What is the MOA of amantdine and rimantadine

A

inhibition of late stage assembly of virus (m2 ion channel inhibitor)

121
Q

What drug aggregates viral particles?

A

oseltamivir

122
Q

What drugs can transfer action cell to cell?

A

interferons

123
Q

What are the 2 allylamine drugs?

A

terbinafine, natifine

124
Q

What is the MOA of allylamines?

A

inhibit squalene epoxidase, inhibit ergosterol

125
Q

What are the 3 polyene antibiotics?

A

ampho B, nystatin, natamycin

126
Q

What is the spectrum and MOA of polyene antibiotics?

A

broad spectrum

binds to ergosterol –> electrolyte imbalance and death

127
Q

What can ampho B be combined with to synergize against crypto?

A

flucytosine

128
Q

What is the drug of choice for systemic fungal infections?

A

amphotericin B

129
Q

What animals can amphotericin B be not used in?

A

equine or food animals

130
Q

What are the SE of amphotericin B?

A

nephrotoxicity

131
Q

How can nystatin be administered?

A

local - topical

132
Q

How can natamycin be administered?

A

local - opthalmic

133
Q

What drug is the treatment of choice for fusarium keratomycosis in horses?

A

natamycin

134
Q

What drug can flucytosine be combined with besides ampho B?

A

ketoconazole

135
Q

What is the MOA of flucytosine?

A

production of faulty proteins (thymidylate snythase)

136
Q

What are the SE of flucytosine?

A

GI, elevated liver enzymes, BM suppression

137
Q

What is the MOA of azoles?

A

inhibit fungal CYP450 ergosterol synthesis

138
Q

Why do azoles have lots of drug to drug interaction?

A

inhibit PgP efflux pump

139
Q

What is the only topical and systemic imidazole?

A

ketoconazole

140
Q

What are the 3 topical imidazoles?

A

enilconazole, clotrimazole, miconazole

141
Q

What does miconazole treat?

A

keratomycosis and dermatophytosis in dogs/cats

142
Q

What does ketoconazole need to be absorbed from GI?

A

acidic pH

143
Q

What animals can not be given ketoconazole?

A

good animals

144
Q

What are the SE of ketoconazole?

A

GI

145
Q

What are the 4 triazole drugs?

A

fluconazole, itraconazole, voriconazole, posaconazole

146
Q

What is fluconazole good at treating since it is excreted in active form?

A

fungal cystitis

147
Q

What are the SE of fluconazole?

A

GI, CNS, skin

148
Q

What triazole is good against aspergillus and crypto meningitis?

A

itraconazole

149
Q

What are the SE of itraconazole?

A

hepatic toxicosis, GI, teratogenic

150
Q

Which traizole is similar to fluconazole but is more potent and has wider spectrum?

A

voriconazole

151
Q

Which triazole is effective against zygomycetes?

A

posaconazole

152
Q

What is the MOA of echinocandins?/

A

inhibit B glucan synthase

153
Q

What fungi are echinocandins effective against?

A

yeast, aspergillus, pneuomocystis carinii

154
Q

What drug is an echinocandin?

A

caspofungin

155
Q

What are the SE of echinocandins?

A

fever, nausea, phlebitis

156
Q

What way are echinocandins given?

A

IV formulations

157
Q

What antifungal effects the mitotic spindle and causes cell arrest in mitosis?

A

griseofulvin

158
Q

What does griseofulvin treat?

A

dermatophytosis

159
Q

What are the SE of griseofulvin?

A

Cats - leukopenia, anmia

teratogenic

160
Q

What antifungal inhibits chitin synthesis?

A

lufenuron (ectoparsiticide)

161
Q

How is lufernon administered?

A

orally

Pharmacology (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions