Pharm Quiz 2 Flashcards
1
Q
What drugs are considered NRTIs (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors)?
(3)
A
Zidovudine
Stampidine
Lamivudine
2
Q
What viruses are affected by NRTIs?
A
HIV
FeLV
FIV
3
Q
Which drugs are viral DNA polymerase inhibitors? (5)
A
Acyclovir
Idoxuridine
Ribavirin
Trifluridine
Foscarnet
4
Q
What viruses are viral DNA polymerase inhibitors effective against?
A
Herpes
(foscarnet can also do FeLV)
5
Q
What drugs are inhibitors of coat disassembly and neuramidase inhibitors? (2)
A
Amantadine
Rimantadine
6
Q
Which viruses are effected by inhibitors of coat disassembly and neurmidase inhibitors?
A
influenza A or A/B
7
Q
What drug is in the category of biopharmaceuticals and immunomodulators?
A
interferon
8
Q
What viruses can interferon treat?
A
IBR
FeLV/FIV
CPV-2
EHV-1
9
Q
What is the MOA for NRTIs?
A
analogues of naturally occuring deoxynucleosides
10
Q
What are the veterinary applications for NRTIs?
A
FeLV
FIV
Bovine Leukemia Virus
11
Q
What are the side effects of zidovudine (NRTIs) in cats?
A
hemolysis after IV injection
12
Q
What drug is more potent than zidovudine when treating FIV and has better safety profile?
A
lamivudine
13
Q
What are the veterinary applications of acyclovir?
A
EHV-1
FHV
CHV
14
Q
Which viral DNA polymerase inhibitor is toxic to cats?
A
valacyclovir
15
Q
Who has better bioavailability of DPIs (DNA polymerase inhibitors), foals or adult horses?
A
foals
16
Q
Which DPI is for only for topical administration?
A
penciclovir
17
Q
Which DPI drug is the efficacy questionable?
A
famciclovir
18
Q
What is the M2-ion channel inhibitors MOA?
A
acidification of endosome, dissasembles viral structure
19
Q
Which M2-ion channel inhibitor is more safe and useful in equine influenza?
A
rimantidine
20
Q
What is amantidine useful for besides anti-viral? What receptor does it bind to?
A
treatment of pain
NMDA receptor antagonist (same as ketamine)
21
Q
What species is amantidine well tolerated in for pain and what other pain meds can it be combined with?
A
well tolerated in dog
can be combined with NSAIDs
22
Q
What type of drugs were used to treat the mexican swine flu?
A
Neuramidase/sialidase inhibitors
(zanamivir and oseltamivir)
23
Q
What drug inhibits both DNA and RNA viruses?
A
ribavirin
24
Q
What are the veterinary applications of ribavarin?
A
in vitro:promising
toxic in cats
not used in vivo yet in dogs and cows
25
What is the MOA for interferon omega?
promotes synthesis of enzymes that interfere with viral replication
cell-cell interaction cuts need for more drug
26
What can happen if a recombinant interferon made in one species is used to treat another?
allergies
27
What are used as adjuvants in viral vaccines?
agonists of innate immune receptors
28
What are the 3 groups of naturally occuring antifungals?
griseofulvin
polyenes (amphotericin)
echinocandins
29
What are the 2 groups of synthetic antifungals?
azoles
pyramidines
30
What is the MOA of polyenes?
binds to ergosterol in membrane - cant bind to cholesterol
ability to form pores in fungal membrane - electrolyte imbalance
31
What is the MOA of azoles?
blocks ergosterol synthesis (P450)
32
What is the MOA of flucytosine?
binds to microtubules, disrupts mitotic spindles
33
What is the MOA of echinocandins?
inhibit beta glucan synthesis
34
What is the MOA of allylamines?
inhibits squalene epoxidase to block ergosterol synthesis
35
What 3 drugs are polyene antibiotics?
Amphotericin B
Natamycin
Nystatin
36
What organisms have the least affinity for polyene antibiotics?
bacteria
37
Are polyene antibiotics broad or narrow spectrum?
broad
38
What type of infections are polyene antibiotics used for?
disseminated infections
39
Where is amphotericin B not readily absorbed?
GIT
poor tissue penetration in inflammation
40
What are the side effects of amphotericin B?
renal toxicity
hypokalemia
irritant to endothelium
liposome complex preps show less side effects
41
What are nystatin and natamycin used to treat?
localized superficial infections
42
What are the side effects of nystatin and natamycin?
vomiting and diarrhea
43
Are azole drugs fungistatic or fungicidal?
fungistatic
44
When enzyme do azole drugs inhibit and what effect does it produce?
fungal cytochrome p450 --\> inhibits conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol
45
Which imidazole drug has the first pass effect?
clotrimazole
46
What are the side effects of imidazoles?
GIT upset
decrease appetite
hepatotoxicity
inhibit CYP450
inhibit PgP
47
Which imidazole drug is highly lipophilic and highly protein bound?
ketoconazole
48
What are the 4 imidazole drugs?
ketoconazole
clotrimazole
miconazole
enilconazole
49
What imidazole drugs have low topical absorption?
miconazole and enilconazole
50
Which imidazole drug reaches minimal CNS concentrations?
ketoconazole
51
How are most imidazoles administered?
topical
52
What are the 4 triazole drugs?
fluconazole
itraconazole
voriconazole
posaconazole
53
What ways are triazoles administered?
topical and systemic use
54
Which triazole is highly lipophilic?
itraconazole
55
Which triazole has a large Vd and is water soluble?
fluconazole
56
Which triazoles are poorly water soluble?
voriconazole
posaconazole
57
What are the side effects of triazole drugs?
teratogenic
58
What are the side effects of itraconazole alone?
hepatotoxic - inhibits CYP 3A
59
What is the MOA of flucytosine?
converted by fungal cytosine deaminase to
antimetabolite selective to fungi
interferes with DNA synthesis
(mammals lack cytosine deaminase)
60
Is flucytosine broad or narrow spectrum?
narrow
61
Why should you not use flucytosine alone?
rapid emergence of resistance
62
What are the pharmacokinetics of flucytosine?
large Vd, water soluble, kidney excretion
63
What are the two groups of intracellular antifungals?
pyrimidine analogues
mitotic inhibitors
64
What are the two groups of ergosterol inhibitors?
azoles
allylamines
65
What drug is a pyrimidine analogue?
flucytosine
66
What drug is a mitotic inhibitor?
griseofulvin
67
What is the MOA of echinocandins?
inhibit fungal beta glucan synthesis
68
What is the MOA of allylamines?
inhibits squalene epoxidase to block ergosterol synthesis
69
What fungi is griseofulvin effective against?
Trychophyton, Epidermophyton and Microsporum
70
What are the clinical indications for griseofulvin?
dermatophytosis (trichophyton and microsporum)
71
What are the side effects of griseofulvin?
induces CYP450
embryotoxic
teratogenic
72
What is the MOA for echinocandins?
inhibition of Beta glucan synthesis, disruption of cell wall --\> exposes antigen
73
What fungus do echinocandins come from?
Aspergillus nidulans
74
What fungal infections are echinocandins good against?
apergillosis
candidiasis
no use in vet (not effective against yeast form)
75
What are the pharmacokinetics of allylamine?
lipophilic, absorbed from GIT, rapid diffusion to dermis
76
What are the side effects of allylamine?
very limited
77
What are the mechanisms for resistance to azole drugs?
decreased uptake
alteredd 14-demethylase
decreased affinity for CYP450
changesin other enzymes
78
What are considered disseminated fungal infections?
aspergillosis
canidiasis
79
What do nitromidazoles treat?
trichomoniasis, amebiasis, balantidium, and giardiasis
80
Can nitromidazoles be used in food producing animals?
NO
81
What can paromomycin (an aminoglycoside) treat protozoan wise?
crypto in cats
leishmaniasis in dogs
off label use in ruminants
82
What is the drug of choice to treat coccidiosis in cattle, horses, dogs and cats?
sulfonamides
83
What is the drug of choice to treat coccidiosis in chickens?
polyether ionophores
84
What is the MOA of polyether ionophores?
changes in membrane integrity and internal osmolality
85
What are the 5 different polyether ionophore classes?
monovalent
monovalent glycoside
divalent
divalent glycoside
divalent pyrole esters
86
What are the side effects of polyether ionophores? What are the susceptible species?
CV effects - calcium problems
equines and guinea fowl
87
What drugs are effective against sarcocystis neurona?
triazine derivatives
nitrothiazole derivatives
88
What are the three triazine derivatives?
diclazuril
toltrazuril
ponazuril
89
What part of the sarcocystis does triazine derivatives act on?
apicoplast - plays a role in aminoacids, fatty acids, starch storage, nitrate and sulphate
90
What increases the bioavailability of triazine?
sodium salt
91
What is the active metabolite of toltrazuril?
ponazuril
92
What protozoa cause piroplasmosis?
babesiosis
theileriosis
93
What drug is approved for canine babesiosis?
imidocarb dipropionate
94
What treats theileriosis in cattle?
naphtoquinones: parvaquone and buparvaquone
95
What are the 7 groups of drugs effective against protozoa?
nitromidazoles
nitrofurans
arsenicals
aminoglycosides
benzimidazoles
tetracyclines
lincosamides
96
What is the MOA of nitromidazoles?
production of free radicals that cause damage to protozoa DNA
97
What can dogs infected with Hepatazoon americanum infections be treated with?
combo of sulfonamides, clindamycin and pyrimethamine
98
Clindamycin can treat what protozoal infection?
Toxoplasma infection
99
What drug prevents coccidiosis in broilers?
maduramicin
100
What term is used when an ectoparasiticidal goes into the sweat gland?
transappendageal
101
Why are highly lipophilic and large molecule ectoparasiticides desirable?
lateral diffusion across skin
large molecules dont enter skin
102
What is the MOA of organophosphates?
irreversible inhibition of acetylcholine esterase -- more Ach
103
What are the most sensitive animals to organophosphate neural toxicity?
brahman cattle
greyhounds
cats
104
What are the toxic effects of organophosphates related to?
muscarinic and nicotinic effects
105
What organophosphate treats mites in horses?
diazinon
106
What drug group produces reversible inhibition of AChE?
carbamates
107
What is the clinical use of carbamates?
fleas, ticks and lice
108
What carbamate is used as a spray on dogs and cats?
carbaryl
109
What carbamate is used as a flea and tick collar for dogs and cats?
propoxur
110
Does pyrethrin or pyrethroid have greater residual activity?
pyrethroid
111
What is the MOA of pyrethrins and pyrethroids?
binding to Na+ channels
membrane depolarization
112
Are pyrethrins and pyrethroids able to use on cats?
no, toxic
113
What are the permethrin toxicities?
type 1 compound - rapid onset of hyperactivity
114
What are the fenvalerate (type 2 compound) side effects?
serious at low doses
115
What are the 2 types of macrocyclic lactones?
avermectines and milbemycins
116
What group of drugs can be administered to swine SQ for mites and lice?
macrocyclic lactones
117
What drug is a topical that causes rapid killing of fleas?
imidacloprid
118
What drug is similar to imidacloprid but can be given orally?
nitenpyram
119
What flea adulticide is not effective to prevent fleas from biting?
fipronil
120
What are the 2 larvicidal flea drugs?
methoprene - remains larvae
lufenuron - inhibits chitin synthesis
121
What drugs inhibit MAO in the insect?
formamidine, amitraz
122
What drug inhibits the MFO in the insect?
piperonyl butoxide
is a synergist - reduced breakdown of other drugs
123
What are the 5 flea adulticide drugs?
fipronil
imidacloprid
nitenpyram
spinosad b
metaflumizone
124
What is the drug of choice for giardia infections in cattle/dogs/cats?
fenbendazole
125
What is the drug of choice for treating coccidia infections in small animals?
sulfamethoxine (sulfonamide)
126
What drug is used to prevent relapses of Hepatazoon americanum in dogs?
decoquinate
127
Long acting oxytetracycline can treat what protozoal infection?
Babesia divergens
128
What drugs can potentiate the toxic effects of polyether ionophores?
tiamulin
chloramphenicol
macrolides
sulfonamides
cardiac glycosides
129
What is the MOA of amprolium?
competitive inhibition of thiamine transport
130
Which stage of coccidia are sulfonamides good against?
asexual stages
131
What is the drug of choice for EPM? (Equine protozoal meningiocephalitis)
ponazuril
132
133
