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Pharmacology > Pharm Quiz 2 > Flashcards

Pharm Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What drugs are considered NRTIs (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors)?

(3)

A

Zidovudine

Stampidine

Lamivudine

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2
Q

What viruses are affected by NRTIs?

A

HIV

FeLV

FIV

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3
Q

Which drugs are viral DNA polymerase inhibitors? (5)

A

Acyclovir

Idoxuridine

Ribavirin

Trifluridine

Foscarnet

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4
Q

What viruses are viral DNA polymerase inhibitors effective against?

A

Herpes

(foscarnet can also do FeLV)

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5
Q

What drugs are inhibitors of coat disassembly and neuramidase inhibitors? (2)

A

Amantadine

Rimantadine

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6
Q

Which viruses are effected by inhibitors of coat disassembly and neurmidase inhibitors?

A

influenza A or A/B

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7
Q

What drug is in the category of biopharmaceuticals and immunomodulators?

A

interferon

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8
Q

What viruses can interferon treat?

A

IBR

FeLV/FIV

CPV-2

EHV-1

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9
Q

What is the MOA for NRTIs?

A

analogues of naturally occuring deoxynucleosides

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10
Q

What are the veterinary applications for NRTIs?

A

FeLV

FIV

Bovine Leukemia Virus

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11
Q

What are the side effects of zidovudine (NRTIs) in cats?

A

hemolysis after IV injection

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12
Q

What drug is more potent than zidovudine when treating FIV and has better safety profile?

A

lamivudine

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13
Q

What are the veterinary applications of acyclovir?

A

EHV-1

FHV

CHV

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14
Q

Which viral DNA polymerase inhibitor is toxic to cats?

A

valacyclovir

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15
Q

Who has better bioavailability of DPIs (DNA polymerase inhibitors), foals or adult horses?

A

foals

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16
Q

Which DPI is for only for topical administration?

A

penciclovir

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17
Q

Which DPI drug is the efficacy questionable?

A

famciclovir

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18
Q

What is the M2-ion channel inhibitors MOA?

A

acidification of endosome, dissasembles viral structure

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19
Q

Which M2-ion channel inhibitor is more safe and useful in equine influenza?

A

rimantidine

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20
Q

What is amantidine useful for besides anti-viral? What receptor does it bind to?

A

treatment of pain

NMDA receptor antagonist (same as ketamine)

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21
Q

What species is amantidine well tolerated in for pain and what other pain meds can it be combined with?

A

well tolerated in dog

can be combined with NSAIDs

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22
Q

What type of drugs were used to treat the mexican swine flu?

A

Neuramidase/sialidase inhibitors

(zanamivir and oseltamivir)

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23
Q

What drug inhibits both DNA and RNA viruses?

A

ribavirin

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24
Q

What are the veterinary applications of ribavarin?

A

in vitro:promising

toxic in cats

not used in vivo yet in dogs and cows

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25
Q

What is the MOA for interferon omega?

A

promotes synthesis of enzymes that interfere with viral replication

cell-cell interaction cuts need for more drug

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26
Q

What can happen if a recombinant interferon made in one species is used to treat another?

A

allergies

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27
Q

What are used as adjuvants in viral vaccines?

A

agonists of innate immune receptors

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28
Q

What are the 3 groups of naturally occuring antifungals?

A

griseofulvin

polyenes (amphotericin)

echinocandins

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29
Q

What are the 2 groups of synthetic antifungals?

A

azoles

pyramidines

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30
Q

What is the MOA of polyenes?

A

binds to ergosterol in membrane - cant bind to cholesterol

ability to form pores in fungal membrane - electrolyte imbalance

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31
Q

What is the MOA of azoles?

A

blocks ergosterol synthesis (P450)

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32
Q

What is the MOA of flucytosine?

A

binds to microtubules, disrupts mitotic spindles

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33
Q

What is the MOA of echinocandins?

A

inhibit beta glucan synthesis

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34
Q

What is the MOA of allylamines?

A

inhibits squalene epoxidase to block ergosterol synthesis

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35
Q

What 3 drugs are polyene antibiotics?

A

Amphotericin B

Natamycin

Nystatin

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36
Q

What organisms have the least affinity for polyene antibiotics?

A

bacteria

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37
Q

Are polyene antibiotics broad or narrow spectrum?

A

broad

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38
Q

What type of infections are polyene antibiotics used for?

A

disseminated infections

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39
Q

Where is amphotericin B not readily absorbed?

A

GIT

poor tissue penetration in inflammation

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40
Q

What are the side effects of amphotericin B?

A

renal toxicity

hypokalemia

irritant to endothelium

liposome complex preps show less side effects

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41
Q

What are nystatin and natamycin used to treat?

A

localized superficial infections

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42
Q

What are the side effects of nystatin and natamycin?

A

vomiting and diarrhea

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43
Q

Are azole drugs fungistatic or fungicidal?

A

fungistatic

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44
Q

When enzyme do azole drugs inhibit and what effect does it produce?

A

fungal cytochrome p450 –> inhibits conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol

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45
Q

Which imidazole drug has the first pass effect?

A

clotrimazole

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46
Q

What are the side effects of imidazoles?

A

GIT upset

decrease appetite

hepatotoxicity

inhibit CYP450

inhibit PgP

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47
Q

Which imidazole drug is highly lipophilic and highly protein bound?

A

ketoconazole

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48
Q

What are the 4 imidazole drugs?

A

ketoconazole

clotrimazole

miconazole

enilconazole

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49
Q

What imidazole drugs have low topical absorption?

A

miconazole and enilconazole

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50
Q

Which imidazole drug reaches minimal CNS concentrations?

A

ketoconazole

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51
Q

How are most imidazoles administered?

A

topical

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52
Q

What are the 4 triazole drugs?

A

fluconazole

itraconazole

voriconazole

posaconazole

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53
Q

What ways are triazoles administered?

A

topical and systemic use

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54
Q

Which triazole is highly lipophilic?

A

itraconazole

55
Q

Which triazole has a large Vd and is water soluble?

A

fluconazole

56
Q

Which triazoles are poorly water soluble?

A

voriconazole

posaconazole

57
Q

What are the side effects of triazole drugs?

A

teratogenic

58
Q

What are the side effects of itraconazole alone?

A

hepatotoxic - inhibits CYP 3A

59
Q

What is the MOA of flucytosine?

A

converted by fungal cytosine deaminase to

antimetabolite selective to fungi

interferes with DNA synthesis

(mammals lack cytosine deaminase)

60
Q

Is flucytosine broad or narrow spectrum?

61
Q

Why should you not use flucytosine alone?

A

rapid emergence of resistance

62
Q

What are the pharmacokinetics of flucytosine?

A

large Vd, water soluble, kidney excretion

63
Q

What are the two groups of intracellular antifungals?

A

pyrimidine analogues

mitotic inhibitors

64
Q

What are the two groups of ergosterol inhibitors?

A

azoles

allylamines

65
Q

What drug is a pyrimidine analogue?

A

flucytosine

66
Q

What drug is a mitotic inhibitor?

A

griseofulvin

67
Q

What is the MOA of echinocandins?

A

inhibit fungal beta glucan synthesis

68
Q

What is the MOA of allylamines?

A

inhibits squalene epoxidase to block ergosterol synthesis

69
Q

What fungi is griseofulvin effective against?

A

Trychophyton, Epidermophyton and Microsporum

70
Q

What are the clinical indications for griseofulvin?

A

dermatophytosis (trichophyton and microsporum)

71
Q

What are the side effects of griseofulvin?

A

induces CYP450

embryotoxic

teratogenic

72
Q

What is the MOA for echinocandins?

A

inhibition of Beta glucan synthesis, disruption of cell wall –> exposes antigen

73
Q

What fungus do echinocandins come from?

A

Aspergillus nidulans

74
Q

What fungal infections are echinocandins good against?

A

apergillosis

candidiasis

no use in vet (not effective against yeast form)

75
Q

What are the pharmacokinetics of allylamine?

A

lipophilic, absorbed from GIT, rapid diffusion to dermis

76
Q

What are the side effects of allylamine?

A

very limited

77
Q

What are the mechanisms for resistance to azole drugs?

A

decreased uptake

alteredd 14-demethylase

decreased affinity for CYP450

changesin other enzymes

78
Q

What are considered disseminated fungal infections?

A

aspergillosis

canidiasis

79
Q

What do nitromidazoles treat?

A

trichomoniasis, amebiasis, balantidium, and giardiasis

80
Q

Can nitromidazoles be used in food producing animals?

81
Q

What can paromomycin (an aminoglycoside) treat protozoan wise?

A

crypto in cats

leishmaniasis in dogs

off label use in ruminants

82
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat coccidiosis in cattle, horses, dogs and cats?

A

sulfonamides

83
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat coccidiosis in chickens?

A

polyether ionophores

84
Q

What is the MOA of polyether ionophores?

A

changes in membrane integrity and internal osmolality

85
Q

What are the 5 different polyether ionophore classes?

A

monovalent

monovalent glycoside

divalent

divalent glycoside

divalent pyrole esters

86
Q

What are the side effects of polyether ionophores? What are the susceptible species?

A

CV effects - calcium problems

equines and guinea fowl

87
Q

What drugs are effective against sarcocystis neurona?

A

triazine derivatives

nitrothiazole derivatives

88
Q

What are the three triazine derivatives?

A

diclazuril

toltrazuril

ponazuril

89
Q

What part of the sarcocystis does triazine derivatives act on?

A

apicoplast - plays a role in aminoacids, fatty acids, starch storage, nitrate and sulphate

90
Q

What increases the bioavailability of triazine?

A

sodium salt

91
Q

What is the active metabolite of toltrazuril?

92
Q

What protozoa cause piroplasmosis?

A

babesiosis

theileriosis

93
Q

What drug is approved for canine babesiosis?

A

imidocarb dipropionate

94
Q

What treats theileriosis in cattle?

A

naphtoquinones: parvaquone and buparvaquone

95
Q

What are the 7 groups of drugs effective against protozoa?

A

nitromidazoles

nitrofurans

arsenicals

aminoglycosides

benzimidazoles

tetracyclines

lincosamides

96
Q

What is the MOA of nitromidazoles?

A

production of free radicals that cause damage to protozoa DNA

97
Q

What can dogs infected with Hepatazoon americanum infections be treated with?

A

combo of sulfonamides, clindamycin and pyrimethamine

98
Q

Clindamycin can treat what protozoal infection?

A

Toxoplasma infection

99
Q

What drug prevents coccidiosis in broilers?

A

maduramicin

100
Q

What term is used when an ectoparasiticidal goes into the sweat gland?

A

transappendageal

101
Q

Why are highly lipophilic and large molecule ectoparasiticides desirable?

A

lateral diffusion across skin

large molecules dont enter skin

102
Q

What is the MOA of organophosphates?

A

irreversible inhibition of acetylcholine esterase – more Ach

103
Q

What are the most sensitive animals to organophosphate neural toxicity?

A

brahman cattle

greyhounds

cats

104
Q

What are the toxic effects of organophosphates related to?

A

muscarinic and nicotinic effects

105
Q

What organophosphate treats mites in horses?

106
Q

What drug group produces reversible inhibition of AChE?

A

carbamates

107
Q

What is the clinical use of carbamates?

A

fleas, ticks and lice

108
Q

What carbamate is used as a spray on dogs and cats?

109
Q

What carbamate is used as a flea and tick collar for dogs and cats?

110
Q

Does pyrethrin or pyrethroid have greater residual activity?

A

pyrethroid

111
Q

What is the MOA of pyrethrins and pyrethroids?

A

binding to Na+ channels

membrane depolarization

112
Q

Are pyrethrins and pyrethroids able to use on cats?

113
Q

What are the permethrin toxicities?

A

type 1 compound - rapid onset of hyperactivity

114
Q

What are the fenvalerate (type 2 compound) side effects?

A

serious at low doses

115
Q

What are the 2 types of macrocyclic lactones?

A

avermectines and milbemycins

116
Q

What group of drugs can be administered to swine SQ for mites and lice?

A

macrocyclic lactones

117
Q

What drug is a topical that causes rapid killing of fleas?

A

imidacloprid

118
Q

What drug is similar to imidacloprid but can be given orally?

A

nitenpyram

119
Q

What flea adulticide is not effective to prevent fleas from biting?

120
Q

What are the 2 larvicidal flea drugs?

A

methoprene - remains larvae

lufenuron - inhibits chitin synthesis

121
Q

What drugs inhibit MAO in the insect?

A

formamidine, amitraz

122
Q

What drug inhibits the MFO in the insect?

A

piperonyl butoxide

is a synergist - reduced breakdown of other drugs

123
Q

What are the 5 flea adulticide drugs?

A

fipronil

imidacloprid

nitenpyram

spinosad b

metaflumizone

124
Q

What is the drug of choice for giardia infections in cattle/dogs/cats?

A

fenbendazole

125
Q

What is the drug of choice for treating coccidia infections in small animals?

A

sulfamethoxine (sulfonamide)

126
Q

What drug is used to prevent relapses of Hepatazoon americanum in dogs?

A

decoquinate

127
Q

Long acting oxytetracycline can treat what protozoal infection?

A

Babesia divergens

128
Q

What drugs can potentiate the toxic effects of polyether ionophores?

A

tiamulin

chloramphenicol

macrolides

sulfonamides

cardiac glycosides

129
Q

What is the MOA of amprolium?

A

competitive inhibition of thiamine transport

130
Q

Which stage of coccidia are sulfonamides good against?

A

asexual stages

131
Q

What is the drug of choice for EPM? (Equine protozoal meningiocephalitis)

Pharmacology (21 decks)

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