Performance Flashcards

1
Q

Does the TLR and FP revision numbers have to match?

A

No

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2
Q

What must be included on the FDP for it to be considered valid?

A

Flight number
Departure city
Departure date

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3
Q

What is the significance of the SEQ Number on the TLR?

A

None

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4
Q

If the TLR never expires why is there a date and time window?

A

The purpose of the time window is to be able to request flight deck performance. If an error message is returned, TLR time must be extended.

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5
Q

What can invalidate a TLR?

A

Decrease in temperature 10oC OR >max temperature
Decrease in pressure of more than .15 inches of mercury or 5 millibars
>10,000lbs addition ZFW addition
Performance related MEL/DDG item not listed in the RMKS section

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6
Q

Can the pilots take in to account the performance related MEL/DDG item and adjust the TLR?

A

No, invalidates TLR

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7
Q

What is the MFPTW?

A

Maximum flight plan take off weight. It is the computer taking in to account all factors for take off, and the most limiting of those factors still allow for take off up to this weight. The limiting factor is found on the FPL.

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8
Q

If the N1 on the TLR does not match the N1 displayed on the aircraft after entering the TLR N1, what do you do?

A

Decrease the assumed temperate entered in to the aircraft by 1C

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9
Q

What is R40?

A

Minimum speed permissible with flap 5

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10
Q

What is R80?

A

Minimum flap up speed

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11
Q

What powers the speed trend vector?

A

IRU

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12
Q

What does a SMRGN of 0-100 mean?

A

Balanced field

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13
Q

What is Stop Margin?

A

Amount of distance remaining after coming to complete stop in terms of Runway/stop way remaining if rejection at V1

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14
Q

What are the 3 Engine Failure Procedures?

A

Standard
Special
Complex
FCOM Vol 1 Reference: SP.20.6/17

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15
Q

Can you take off from a runway with length less than the atlas approved intersections (Distance listed on TLR)?

A

No

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16
Q

Can you take off from a runway with a length between approved intersections and max runway length (Distance listed on TLR)?

A

Yes

17
Q

What is a conditional waypoint?

A

ATC directed waypoint

18
Q

What is the unit the FRA is listed as on the TLR?

A

MSL

19
Q

What is the unit the FRA is listed as on the FDP?

A

AGL

20
Q

What does the RWY CLB VIA on the TLR mean?

A

HDG
CRS or
Immediate (means must be prepared to make turn at 50’ or upon engine failure

21
Q

Where do you find the Complex Engine Failure procedures?

A

10-7 page of the Jeppesen

22
Q

If PTOW and PMTOW (GRWT/MTOW) are close together, what are the considerations? How is it reflected on the TLR?

A

Taxi fuel burn needs to be sufficient to ensure not taking off over weight,
Balanced field length, static take off.
- Asterisk on page 3 of FDP

23
Q

If flight deck performance is unavailable where does your data come from?

A

TLR

24
Q

Can the planned max runway landing weight (PMRLW) be used for a diversion or autoland?

A

Can not be used for different airports.
Autoland can be used with the addition of 1000’ (distance on TLR is for manual landing)

25
Q

What happens when you lift up the Reverse Thrust Lever from idle reverse?

A

Disconnect the A/T

26
Q

When do A/T disconnect on landing?

A

Lifting Thrust Lever

27
Q

What is the RTO logic?

A

On the ground
>85kts
Idle Thrust
Gives 3000psi

28
Q

What is the difference between max braking and RTO?

A

RTO will give max braking at 3000psi regardless of spoiler or reverse thrust deployment.
Max Auto will give fixed rate of deceleration. Reverse and spoilers will assist in equaling fixed rate, brake pressure decreases with application of spoilers or reverse thrust to maintain fixed rate of deceleration.

29
Q

Is the QRH factored for landing distance?

A

Yes for normal
No for non normal

30
Q

What are the characteristics of a Special Engine Failure Takeoff?

A

Used when Standard can’t be used due to obstacle clearance

Turn to NAVAID or HDG required before 1000’

FRA remains 1000’ AFE unless in FLAP RETRACT box

Mandatory in IMC

Mandatory in VMC up to 1000’

If radar vectors not available, to be complied with up to 3000’ AFE then on course as applicable