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PCOL (VIOLET) Flashcards

PACOP

1
Q

Mechanism of action of local anesthetics.

A. Block sodium channel thereby stopping axonal conduction
B. Block alpha and beta receptor
C. Block neuronal firing by decreasing Ach in the neuromuscular junction
D. Inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase enzyme
E. Inhibition of enzyme responsible for pain response

A

A.

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2
Q

The following are factors that affect the absorption of drug from the gastrointestinal(GI)
track except.
A. Surface area of absorption
B. Blood flow to the site of absorption
C. Physical state of the drug
D. Concentration of the drug at the site of absorption
E. Protein binding

A

E.

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3
Q

Continued stimulation of cells with agonists generally results in which of the following?
A. Desensitization
B. UP-regulation
C. Down-regulation
D. A and B
E. A and C

A

E.

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4
Q

Drug that lacks intrinsic efficacy but retains affinity and competes with the agonist for the
binding sites of the receptor.
A. Competitive antagonist
B. Full agonist
C. Non-competitive antagonist
D. Partial antagonist
E. Partial agonist

A

A.

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5
Q

This type of drug produce its effect by binding a site on the receptor distinct from that of the primary agonist and thereby changing the affinity of the receptor for the agonist.
A. Competitive antagonist
B. Full agonist
C. Non-competitive antagonist
D. Partial antagonist
E. Partial agonist

A

C

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6
Q

In this type of study, participants are blinded to treatment assignment, investigator are not.
A. Double blind study
B. Single blind study
C. Masking
D. Open-label
E. Un-blinded study

A

B

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7
Q

The neurotransmitter of all preganglionic autonomic fibers, and all postganglionic
parasympathetic fibers.
A. Norepinephrine
B. Noradrenaline
C. Acetylcholine
D. A and B
E. A and C

A

C

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8
Q

The release of ach and other neurotransmitters by exocytosis is inhibited by:
A. Acetylcholinesterase
B. Botulinum toxin
C. Reserpine
D. Me tyrosine
E. Guanethidine

A

B

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9
Q

All of the following are enzymes involved in the biosynthesis of epinephrine from tyrosine
EXCEPT:
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
B. Aromatic L amino acid decarboxylase
C. Dopamine Beta-hydroxylase
D. Phenyl ethanolamine-N-Methyl transferase
E. Monoamine oxidase

A

E

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10
Q

Rate limiting enzyme in the synthesis of catecholamines
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
B. Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
C. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
D. Phenyl ethanolamine-N-Methyl transferase
E. COMT

A

A

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11
Q

All of the following are effects of activating beta 2 receptor EXCEPT:
A. Bronchoconstriction
B. Uterine Relaxation
C. Glycogenolysis
D. Gluconeogenesis
E. Bronchodilation

A

A

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12
Q

All of the following are effects of activating alpha 1 receptor EXCEPT:
A. Vascular smooth muscle relaxation
B. Intestinal smooth muscle relaxation
C. Increase contractive force of the heart
D. Glycogenolysis in the liver
E. Vascular smooth muscle constriction

A

A

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13
Q

Which of the following is a pharmacological effect of muscarinic stimulation in the
cardiovascular system?
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Decrease in cardiac rate
C. Positive chronotropic effect
D. Positive dromotropic effect
E. Positive inotropic effect

A

B

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14
Q

All of the following are naturally occurring chromonematic Alkaid EXCEPT:
A. Pilocarpine
B. Muscarine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Arecoline
E. None of these

A

C

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15
Q

Which of the following is/are effects of cholinomimetic drugs?
I. Stimulation of GI smooth muscle
II. Stimulation of secretion of exocrine gland
III. Bronchoconstriction
IV. Tachycardia
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and IV
E. I, II, III and IV

A

C

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16
Q

Major contraindication to the use of muscarinic agonist are the following EXCETP:
A. Asthma
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Coronary insufficiency
D. Acid-peptic disease
E. Hypertension

A

E

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17
Q

Used in the treatment of glaucoma where it is instilled into the eye usually as a 0.5-4%
solution.
A. Epinephrine
B. Eye-mo
C. Pilocarpine
D. Bethanecole
E. Atropine

A

C

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18
Q

Most effective prophylactic agent for short (4-6 hrs) exposure to severe motion also
available as transdermal patch.
A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine
C. Ipratropium
D. Tiotropium
E. Varenicline

A

B

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19
Q

Which of the following drugs is/are classified an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
I. Pilocarpine
II. Edrophonium
III. Tacrine
IV. Atropine
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
E. IV only

A

C

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20
Q

Which of the following is not an effect of anti-cholinesterase agents?
A. Stimulation of muscarinic receptor responses at autonomic effector organs
B. Stimulation followed by depression or paralysis of all autonomic ganglia and skeletal
muscle
C. Stimulation with occasional subsequent depression of cholinergic receptor sites in the
CNS
D. All of these
E. None of these

A

E

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21
Q

. Intoxication with an organophosphorus anti-cholinesterase agent can be treated with:
A. Atropine
B. Pralidoxime
C. Malathion
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

D

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22
Q

This agent is used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.
A. Edrophonium
B. Atropine
C. Neostigmine
D. Pralidoxime
E. Acetylcholine

A

A

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23
Q

All are standard anti-cholinesterase drugs used in the symptomatic treatment of myasthenia
gravis EXCPT:
A. Pyridostigmine
B. Neostigmine
C. Atropine
D. Ambenonium
E. Edrophonium

A

C

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24
Q

Mechanism of action of indirect acting sympathomimetics drugs:
A. Agents act directly on one or more of the adrenergic receptors thereby producing an
effect
B. Increase the availability of norepinephrine (NE) or epinephrine (Epi) to stimulate
adrenergic receptors
C. Releasing or displacing NE from sympathetic nerve varicosities
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

E

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25
Q

Metabolic precursor of NE and EPI and is also a neutransmitter particularly important in the
regulation movement.
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Oxytocin
D. Norepinephrine
E. Noradrenaline

A

A

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26
Q

These drugs play a major role only in the treatment of bronchoconstriction in patients with
asthma (reversible airway obstruction) or chorionic obstructive pulmonary disease(COPD)’
A. Beta 1 adrenergic agonist
B. Beta 2 adrenergic agonist
C. Beta 1 adrenergic antagonist
D. Beta 2 adrenergic antagonist
E. Non-selective beta agonist

A

B

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27
Q

Potent non-selective beta receptor agonist with very low affinity for alpha receptors
A. Ipratropium
B. Terbutaline
C. Isoproterenol
D. Prazosin
E. Phenylephrine

A

C

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28
Q

This sympathomimetic drug is indicated for the short term treatment of cardiac
decomperisation post cardiac surgery or in patients with congestive heart failure or acute myocardial infraction.
A. Dobutamine
B. Isoproterenol
C. Metaproterenol
D. Albuterol
E. Isoetharine

A

A

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29
Q

Selective beta 2 agonist originally developed as a uterine relaxant.
A. Terbutaline
B. Ritodrine
C. Oxytocin
D. Prazosin
E. Salmeterol

A

B

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30
Q

Life-threatening condition characterized by inadequate perfusion of tissues, hypotension
and ultimately failure of organ systems.
A. Coma
B. Shock
C. Arrhythmia
D. Heart Failure
E. Kidney Failure

A

B

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31
Q

. Structurally related to amphetamine, this drug is a mild CNS stimulant with more prominenteffects on mental than on motor activities. This drug is also effective in the treatment of narcolepsy and ADHD.
A. Methamphetamine
B. Ephedrine
C. Clonidine
D. Methylphenidate
E. Phenobarbital

A

D

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32
Q

Classified as alpha 2 selective antagonist.
A. Phenoxybenzamine
B. Prazosin
C. Yohimbine
D. Nadolol
E. Metoprolol

A

C

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33
Q

Classified as beta 1 selective antagonist.
A. Phenoxybenzamine
B. Prazosin
C. Yohimbine
D. Nadolol
E. Metoprolol

A

E

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34
Q

Used in the treatment of pheochromocytoma tumor of the adrenal medulla and
sympathetic neurons that secretes enormous quantities of catecholamines.
A. Phenoxybenzamine
B. Epinephrine
C. Metoprolol
D. Dopamine
E. Isoxuprine

A

A

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35
Q

Which of the following is NOT correct?
A. Alpha agonist cause miosis
B. Alpha agonist cause vasoconstriction
C. Beta antagonist decrease the formation of aqueous humor
D. Beta 2 agonist cause bronchodilation
E. Beta 3 agonist cause lipolysis

A

A

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36
Q

Beta 2 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects EXCEPT:
A. Stimulation of renin secretion
B. Fall of potassium concentration is plasma
C. Relaxation of bladder uterus
D. Uterine muscle contraction
E. Skeletal muscle relaxation

A

E

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37
Q

Which of the following effects is associated with beta 3-receptor stimulation?
A. Lipolysis
B. Decrease in platelet aggregation
C. Bronchodilation
D. Tachycardia
E. Pilomotor smooth muscle contraction

A

A

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38
Q

Which of the following hypnotic drug is benzodiazepine derivative?
A. Zolpidem
B. Flurazepam
C. Secobarbital
D. Ramelteon
E. Buspirone

A

B

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39
Q

Which of the following hypnotic drug increase the activity of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzyme systems?
A. Phenobarbital
B. Zolpidem
C. Flurazepam
D. Secobarbital
E. Ramelteon

A

A

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40
Q

Which of the following is the mechanism of Barbiturates action?
A. Increasing the duration of the GABA-gated Cl-channel openings
B. Directly activating the chloride channel
C. Increasing the frequency of Cl-channel openings events.
D. Antagonist at benzodiazepine bindings sites on the GABA receptor
E. Partial agonist at 5-HT receptor but also affinity for D2 receptor

A

A

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41
Q

The usual cause of adverse effect/death due to overdose of hypnoticis due to:
A. Depression of the CNS
B. Heart attack
C. Hypothemia
D. Cerebral edema
E. Status epilepticus

A

A

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42
Q

Which of the following antiseizure drugs produces a voltage-dependent inactivation of sodium channels?
I. Phenytoin
II. Carbamazepine
III. Vigabatrin
IV. Gabapentin
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and IV
D. IV only

A

B

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43
Q

Mechanism of action of Phenytoin?
A. Block high-frequency firing of neurons through action on voltage-gated Na channel
B. It binds to an allosteric regulatory site on the GABA-BZ receptor and prolongs the
opening of the Cl-channel
C. It effects on the Ca currents, reducing the low-threshold (T-type) current
D. It inhibits GABA-transaminase, which catalyzes the breakdown of GABA
E. Decreases the excitatory transmission by acting on the VG Ca channels presynaptically

A

A

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44
Q

The pathophysiologic basis for antiparkinsonism therapy is:
A. The loss of dopaminergic neurons
B. The loss of some cholinergic neurons
C. The loss of the GABAergic cells
D. The loss of glutaminergic neurons
E. Abnormal firing of neurons from the CNS

A

A

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45
Q

Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of parkinsonian disorders?
A. Phenytoin
B. Selegeline
C. Haloperidol
D. Fluoxetine
E. Aspirin

A

B

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46
Q

The mechanism of action of carbidopa is:
A. Stimulating the synthesis release, Or reuptake of dopamine
B. Inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase enzyme
C. Stimulating dopamine receptors
D. Inhibition of COMT
E. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor

A

B

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47
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
A. MAO-A metabolizes dopamine MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
B. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine, MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
C. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin, MAO-B metabolizes dopamine
D. MAO-A metabolizes dopamine, MAO-B metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin
E. MAO-A metabolizes metabolizes dopamine, MAO-B metabolizes epinephrine

A

C

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48
Q

A catechol O-methyl transferase inhibitor, which prolongs the action of levodopa by
diminishing its peripheral metabolism:
A. Carbidopa
B. Clozapine
C. Tolcapone
D. Rasagiline
E. Selegiline

A

C

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49
Q

Mu receptors are associated with:
A. Supraspinal and spinal analgesia sedation respiratory depression and slowed GI transit
B. Spinal analgesia, mydriasis sedation physical dependence
C. Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor stimulation
D. Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical dependence
E. CNS stimulation and respiratory stimulation

A

A

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50
Q

Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?
A. Morphine
B. Pentazocine
C. Buprenorphine
D. Naloxone
E. Propoxyphene

A

A

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51
Q

Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?
A. Meperidine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Naloxone
D. Butorphanol
E. Morphine

A

C

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52
Q

The diagnostic triad of opioid overdosage is:
A. Mydriasis, coma and hyperventilation
B. Coma, depressed respiration and miosis
C. Mydriasis, chills and abdominal crampd
D. Miosis, tremor and vomiting
E. Mydriasis, diarrhea, increase urination

A

B

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53
Q

Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative?
A. Phenylbutazone
B. Ketamine
C. Aspirin
D. Tramadol
E. Diclofenac

A

C

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54
Q

Correct statements concerning aspirin include all of the following except:
A. Irreversibly inhibits platelet COX
B. Main adverse effects at antithrombotic doses are gastric upset (intolerance) and gastric
and duodenal ulcers
C. It inhibits platelet aggregation
D. Safe to use in patients with hemophilia
E. Epidemiologic studies suggest that long term use of aspirin at low dosage is associated
with a lower incidence of colon cancer

A

D

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55
Q

A drug that inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, it also reduces cholesterol synthesis and up regulate low density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on hepatocytes
A. Fenofibrates
B. Colestipol
C. Ezetimibe
D. Atorvastatin
E. Niacin

A

D

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56
Q

A vasodilator that also inhibits plates function by inhibiting adenosine uptake and cGMP phosphodiesterase activity.
A. Dypiridamine
B. Abciximab
C. Clostazol
D. Anistreplase
E. Streptokinase

A

A

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57
Q

The mathematical product of peripheral vascular resistance(PVR) and cardiac output(CO).
A. Hypertension
B. Blood Pressure
C. Hypotension
D. Vascular pressure
E. Afterload

A

B

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58
Q

Recommendation on dietary approaches to stop hypertension (DASH).
A. High intake of fruits
B. Low fats dairy products along with reduced content of dietary cholesterol saturated fat
and total fat
C. The diet is rich on potassium and calcium and low in sodium
D. High intake of vegetables
E. All of these

A

E

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59
Q

Recommend Blood Pressure targets for patient with heart failure
A. <150 / <90
B. <140 / <90
C. <140 / <80
D. <160 / <90
E. <130 / <80

A

E

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60
Q

Increase the excretion of Na, CI and H20 by inhibiting Na/Cr ion exchange in the early part of the distal tubule:
A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Loop diuretic
C. Potassium Sparring diuretics
D. Aldosterone Antagonists
E. Osmotic diuretics

A

A

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61
Q

Drug that antagonize angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor subtype, which decrease systemic vascular resistance.
A. Furosemide
B. Amiloride
C. Metoprolol
D. Captopril
E. Losartan

A

E

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62
Q

Reduce both resting and exercise heart rate, cardiac output and both systolic and diastolic blood pressure
A. Furosemide
B. Amiloride
C. Metoprolol
D. Captopril
E. Losartan

A

C

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63
Q

Block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II by interfering with angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) activity
A. Furosemide
B. Amiloride
C. Metoprolol
D. Captopril
E. Losartan

A

D

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64
Q

A condition of chronic excess total body iron caused either by an inherited abnormality of iron, Absorption or by frequent transfusion to treat certain types of hemolytic disorders.
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia

A

A

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65
Q

A Deficiency in serum hemoglobin and erythrocytes in which the erythrocytes are
abnormally large results from either folate or vitamin B deficiency
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia

A

B

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66
Q

A deficiency in serum hemoglobin and erythrocytes in which the erythrocytes are
abnormally small often caused by iron deficiency
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia

A

C

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67
Q

An abnormally low number of neutrophils in the blood patients with this condition are
susceptible to serious infection
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia

A

D

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68
Q

A form of megaloblastic anemia resulting from deficiency of intrinsic factor, a protein
produced by gastric mucosal cell and required for intestinal absorption of vitamin B
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia

A

E

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69
Q

Required for biosynthesis of heme and heme-containing proteins, including hemoglobin and
myoglobin
A. Deferoxamine
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic Acid
D. Ferrous sulfate
E. Filgrastim

A

D

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70
Q

Stimulates G-CSF receptors expressed on mature neutrophils and their progenitors for the treatment of neutropenia
A. Deferoxamine
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic acid
D. Ferrous sulfate’
E. Filgrastim

A

E

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71
Q

An endogenous anticlotting protein that irreversibly inactivates thrombin and factor Xa. Its enzymatic action is markedly accelerated by the heparins
A. Antithrombin III
B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
C. Clotting cascade
D. Prothrombin
E. A and B

A

A

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72
Q

A protein complex on the surface of platelets. When activated it aggregates platelets primarily by binding to fibrin.
A. Antithrombin III
B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
C. Clotting cascade
D. Prothrombin
E. A and C

A

B

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73
Q

Laboratory test used to monitor the
anticoagulant effect of unfractionated
heparin and direct thrombin inhibitors;
prolonged when drug effect is adequate
A. Activated partial thromboplastin
time (aptt) test
B. Clotting cascade
C. Prothrombin time (PT) test
D. Platelet test
E. Coagulase test

A

A

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74
Q
  1. Laboratory test used to monitor the
    anticoagulant effect of warfarin; prolonged
    when drug effect is adequate
    A. Activated partial thromboplastin
    time (aptt) test
    B. Clotting cascade
    C. Prothrombin time (PT) test
    D. Platelet test
    E. Coagulase test
A

C

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75
Q
  1. Which of the following are classified as
    thrombolytic agents?
    I. Streptokinase
    II. Warfarin
    III. T-PA derivatives
    IV. Heparins
    A. I and II
    B. II and III
    C. I and III
    D. II and IV
    E. IV only
A

C

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76
Q

What is the bactericidal concentration
of ethanol and isopropanol by volume in
water?
A.) 60-90 %
B.) 30-50%
C.) 70-99%
D.) 80-100%
E.) 10-20%

A

A

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77
Q

It is a destructive or marked reduction
in number of activity of microorganism.
A.) antisepsis
B.) decontamination
C.) disinfection
E.) pasteurization

A

B

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78
Q

It contains 2% iodine and 2.4% Nal in
alcohol and is the most active antiseptic for
intact skin.
A.) iodophors
B.) povidone iodine
C.) tincture of iodine USP
D.) iodine solution
E.) both A and B

A

C

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79
Q

A phenolic disinfectant that causes
cerebral edema and convulsions in
premature infants.
A.) O-phenylphenol
B.) P-Amylphenol
C.) O-benzyl-P-Chlorophenol
D.) Heptachlorophene
E.) Hexachlorophene

A

E

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80
Q

The following has an excellen efficacy
on infection caused by Pneumocystic jiroveci
pneumonia, except
A.) Penicillin
B.) Dapsone
C.)Atrovaquone
D.) Trimetoprim-sulfamethoxazole
E.) None of these

A

A

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81
Q

First line drug in treating early stage of infection caused by West African
trypanosomiasis.
A.) Pentamidine
B.) Melasoprol
C.) Metronidazole
D.) Iodoquinol
E.) Tetracycline

A

A

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82
Q

It inhibits topoisomerase II and has a
side effect of alopecia and elosuppression.
A.) Irinotecan
B.) Etoposide
C.)Pacltaxel
D.) Vinblastine
E.) Vincristine

A

B

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83
Q

The FDA approved a novel, oral and
highly selective small molecule inhibitor of BRAFV600E last August 2011 and has a highly promising activity in metastatic
melanoma. What drug is this?

A.) Lomustine
B.) Camustine
C.) Cyslophosphamide
D.) Vemurafenib
E.) Etoposide

A

D

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84
Q

It is an immunosuppressant macrolide
antibiotic produced by Stretomyces
tsukabaensis.
A.) Cyclosporine
B.) Tacrolimus
C.) Temsirolimus
D.) cycloserine
E.) Sirolimus

A

B

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85
Q

What class of gastrointestinal drugs are
most effective agents for the treatment of
non-erosive and erosive reflux disease and
extra-esophageal manifestations of reflux
disease?
A.) NSAID
B.) H2 receptor antagonist
C.) Proton pump inhibitor
D.) Prostaglandin analogs
E.) H2 receptor antagonist

A

C

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86
Q

The ff. are common preparations of
natural plant products which are bulk forming laxatives except.

A.) Psyllium
B.) Methylcellulose
C.) Polycarbophil
D.) A and B
E.) None of these

A

C

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86
Q

) It is the most commonly used osmotic
laxative and should not be used for
prolonged periods for patient with renal
insufficiency due to the risk of
hypermagnesemia.
A.) Magnesium hydroxide
B.) Milk of magnesia
C.) Furosemide
D.) A and B
E.) Mannitol

A

D

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87
Q

It is effective in reducing nocturnal acid
but is less effective against stimulated
secretion.
A.) H2 receptor antagonist
B.) PPI
C.) Sucralfate
D.) Laxative
E.) Diuretic

A

A

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88
Q

Ondasetron and Granisetron block
which receptor site.
A.) 5HT3
B.) 5HT1A
C.) 5HT1B
D.) 5HT1c
E.) 5HT4

A

A

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89
Q

These are examples of amides:
I. Lidocaine
II. Bupivacaine
III. Cocaine
IV. Prilocaine
A.) I and II
B.) I, II and III
C.) I, II and IV
D.) II, III and IV
E.) I, II, III and IV

A

C

Cocaine is an ESTER

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90
Q

High plasma concentrations of local
anesthetics result from rapid absorption,
thus causing;
I. Sedation
II. Light headedness
III. Auditory disturbances
IV. Restlessness
A.) I and II
B.) I, II and III
C.) I, II and IV
D.) I and IV
E.) I, II, III and IV

A

E

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91
Q

Selective Serotonin-Norepinephrine
Reuptake Inhibitor include;
I. Venlafaxine
II. Sertraline
III. Duloxetine
IV. Citalopram
A.) I only
B.) I, II and III
C.) I, II and IV
D.) I and III
E.) II and III

A

(no answer yet)

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92
Q

Which pair is a mismatch?
I. Butyrophenone-Haloperidol
II. Atypical antipsychotics-Clozapine
III. Thioxanthene-Thiothixene
IV. Phenothazine-Chlorpromazine
A.) I only
B.) II only
C.) III only
D.) IV only
E.) None of these

A

(no answer yet)

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93
Q

Which of the following is NOT true
about opiods?
I. Opioids analgesics may prolong
labor
II. Opioids contract biliary smooth
muscle
III. Opioids analgesics stimulates
release of ADH, Prolactin and
somatropin
IV. Opioids causes mydriasis
A.) I, II, III and IV
B.) IV only
C.) III only
D.) I only
E.) II only

A

B

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94
Q

Which of the following is a mismatch?
I. Factor I- Fibrinogen
II.Factor XIII-Fibrin-stabilizing factor
III. Factor XII- Prothrombin
IV. Factor X- Stuart power factor
A.) III only
B.) IV only
C.) I and II
D.) II, III and IV
E.) I, II, III and IV

A

A

Factor II - Prothrombin

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95
Q

The deficiency of factor IX can cause
hemophilia B and Christmas disease.
Hemophilia A is also known as Christmas
Disease.
A.) Only the 1st statement is correct
B.) Only the 2nd statement is correct
C.) Both statements are correct
D.) Both statements are wrong

A

A

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96
Q

The following are non-selective COX
inhibitor, EXCEPT:
I. Diclofenac
II. Celecoxib
III. Meloxicam
IV. Ibuprofen
A.) I and II
B.) II and III
C.) III and IV
D.) I and IV
E.) IV only

A

B

Celecoxib & Meloxicam are selective COX 2 inhibitor

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97
Q

It is a peptide antibiotic and is
considered as a non-biologic DMARD.
A.) Cycloserine
B.)Cyclosporine
C.) Chloroquine
D.) Abatacept
E.) Azathioprine

A

B

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98
Q

It is the active metabolite of phenacetin
I. Acetaminophen
II. N-acetyl-p-aminophenol
III. N-acetylcysteine
IV. ASA
A.) IV only
B.) I only
C.) I and II
D.) III only
E.) I, II, III and IV

A

C

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99
Q

It is the most common form of
hyperthyroidism
A.) Myxedema
B.) Subacute thyroiditis
C.) Ophthalmopathy
D.) Grave’s disease
E.) None of these

A

D

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100
Q

This is the sudden acute exacerbation
of all of the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis
presenting as a life threatening syndrome.
I. Myxedema coma
II. Grave’s disease
III. Thyroid Storm
IV. Thyrotoxic crisis

A.) I only D.) I and II
B.) II only E.) III and IV
C.) III only

A

E

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101
Q

A syndrome of thyroid enlargement
without excessive thyroid hormone
production
A.) Non-toxic goiter
B.) Thyroid neoplasms
C.) Neonatal Grave’s disease
D.) Myxedema coma
E.) Thyroidiis

A

A

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102
Q

What is the route of administration of methyltestosterone?
I. IM
II. IV
III. Oral
IV. Transdermal
A.) I and II D.) III only
B.) III and IV E.) None of these
C.) I only

A

D

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103
Q

It is a chemotherapeutic drug which is
a folic acid analog that binds with high
affinity to the active catalytic site of
dihydrofolate reductase:
A.) Cisplatin
B.) Dacarbazine
C.) Methotrexate
D.) Vincristine
E.) Gemcitabine

A

C

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104
Q

The combination of these the most
effective regimen for H. Pylori associated
ulcers;
I. Antibiotic
II. PPI
III. H2 receptor blocker
IV. Prostaglandin analogs

A.) Antibiotic and PPI
B.) PPI and H2 receptor blocker
C.) H2 receptor blocker and prostaglandin
analogs
D.) Antibiotic and H2 receptor blocker
E.) Antibiotic and prostaglandin analogs

A

A

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105
Q

This is the main form of leukemia in
childhood, and it is the most common form
of cancer in children.
A.) Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
B.) Acute Myelogenous
C.) Hodgkin’s Leukemia
D.) Non-Hodgkin’s Leukemia
E.) None of theses

A

A

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106
Q

It is the most common leukemia in
adults
A.) Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
B.) Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
C.) Hodgkin’s Leukemia
D.) Non-Hodgkin’s Leukemia
E.) None of these

A

B

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107
Q

The hallmark of this type of diabetes is
selective beta cell destruction and severe or
absolute insulin deficiency
A.) Type 1
B.) Type 2
C.) Type 3
D.) Type 4
E.) All of these

A

A

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108
Q

What type of organ transplant
rejection occurs within hours and cannot be
stopped with immunosuppressive dugs and
occurs due to performed antibodies against
the donor organ
A.) Acute
B.) Accelerated
C.) Hyperacute
D.) Chronic
E.) superficia

A

C

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109
Q

Its generic name is imiquimod and it is
used in the treatment of external genital
and perianal warts in adults. Available as 5%
cream.
A.) Protopic
B.) Aldara
C.) Elidel
D.) Zovirax
E.) Denavir

A

B

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110
Q

Podophyllium resin, an alcoholic
extract of mandrake root or May apple is
used in the treatment of
A.) Condyloma acuminatum
B.) Psoriasis
C.) Photophobia
D.) Lichen simplex Chronicus
E.) Cushing’s syndrome

A

A

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111
Q

This vitamin enhance the extracerebral
metabolism of levodopa
A.) Vitamin A
B.) Vitamin B9
C.) Vitamin B6
D.) Vitamin E
E.) Vitamin D

A

C

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112
Q

A combination of levodopa and MAOA inhibitors could lead to this condition:
A.) Hypertensive crisis
B.) Alopecia
C.) Memory loss
D.) Hyperactivity
E.) GI bleeding

A

A

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113
Q

A catechol-o-methyltransferase
inhibitor
A.) Seleginine
B.) Entacapone
C.) Pergolide
D.) Ropinirole
E.) Rotigotine

A

B

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114
Q

Which of the following is an example
of piperidine type of phenothiazines?
I. Thioridazine
II. Piperacetazine
III. Mesoridazine
IV.) Carphenazine
A.) I and II
B.) III and IV
C.) I, II and III
D.) II, III and IV
E.) I, II, III and IV

A

C

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115
Q

This is also known as manic-depressive
illness
A.) Anxiety
B.) Bipolar Disorder
C.) Obstructive-Compulsive disorder
D.) ADHD
E.) None of these

A

B

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116
Q

PGE1 analog used as treatment and
prophylaxis of NSAID-induced gastric ulcer
and is also an abortifacient drug
A.) Alprostadil
B.) Misoprostol
C.) Dinoprostol
D.) Epoprostenol
E.) Prostin E2asth

A

B

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117
Q

PGE1 analog used to treat erectile
dysfunction:
A.) Alprostadil
B.) Misoprostol
C.) Dinoprostone
D.) Epoprostenol
E.) Prostin E2

A

A

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118
Q

) Drug for the treatment of gout which
blocks xanthine oxidase thereby decreasing
the production of uric acid:
A.) Indomethacin
B.) Colchicine
C.) Allopurinol
D.) Febuxosat
E.) C and D

A

E

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119
Q

Drug for gout which increases
excretion of uric acid (inhibits reabsorption
of uric acid in the proximal tubule):
A.) Indomethacin
B.) Colchicine
C.) Allopurinol
D.) Febuxosat
E.) Probenecid

A

E

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120
Q

Drug for the treatment of gout that
disrupts the inflammatory cycle, which
inhibits leukocyte migration and
phagocytosis of uric acid crystals:
A.) Indomethacin
B.) Colchicine
C.) Allopurinol
D.) Febuxosat
E.) Probenecid

A

B

121
Q

NSAID that inhibits COX enzyme
thereby reducing the production of
protaglandins. May cause cholestatic
hepatitis, thrombocytopenia and
leukopenia.
A.) Indomethacin
B.) Colchicine
C.) Allopurinol
D.) Febuxosat
E.) Probenecid

A

A

122
Q

Medium to large vessel vasculitis seen
in children; symptoms include conjunctivitis,
rash, erythema of the palms and soles,
aneurysms, and strawberry tongue:
A.) Aplastic anemia
B.) Erythema Nodosum Leprosum
C.) Kawasaki Disease
D.) hirsutism
E.) Malignant Osteoporosis

A

C

123
Q

Painful erythematous subcutaneous
nodules seen in patients with a high level of
mycobacterial antigens.
A.) Aplastic anemia
B.) Erythema Nodosum Leprosum
C.) Kawasaki Disease
D.) hirsutism
E.) Malignant Osteoporosis

A

B

124
Q

Which of the following drugs listed
below are classified as immunostimulants?
I. Filgastrim
II. Cyclosperine
III. Aldesleukin
IV. Interferon alfacon-1
V. Prednisone
A.) I, II and III
B.) I, III and IV
C.) II, III and IV
D.) II and V
E.) II and III

A

B

125
Q

Which of the following drugs listed
below are classified as immunosuppresants?
I. Filgastrim
II. Cyclosperine
III. Aldesleukin
IV. Interferon alfacon-1
V. Prednisone
A.) I, II and III D.) II and V
B.) I, III and IV E.) II and III
C.) II, III and IV

A

D

126
Q

Immunosuppresant drug that binds to F-binding protein and forms a complex that
inhibits calcineurin.
A.) Tacrolimus
B.) Methotrexate
C.) Thalidomide
D.) Azithromycin
E.) Cyclophosphamide

A

A

127
Q

Chemotherapeutic drug that inhibits
dihydrofolate reductase, blocking synthesis
of nucleoside phosphates inhibiting DNA
synthesis
A.) Tacrolimus
B.) Methotrexate
C.) Thalidomide
D.) Azithromycin
E.) Cyclophosphamide

A

B

128
Q

Drug that inhibits DNA and RNA
synthesis via cross-linking of these molecules. Used as chemotherapy for solid
tumor malignancies
A.) Tacrolimus
B.) Methotrexate
C.) Thalidomide
D.) AzithTUBER
E.) Cyclophosphamide

A

E

129
Q

A syndrome characterized by polyuria,
and hypernatremia and is caused by
inadequate production of vasopressin
A.) Acromegaly
B.) Central diabetes insipidus
C.) Gigantism
D.) Prolactenoma
E.) Aplastic anemia

A

B

130
Q

A rare syndrome of growth hormone
(GH) excess in adults characterized by
abnormal growth of tissues (particularly
connective tissue), metabolic abnormalities,
and cardiac dysfunction
A.) Acromegaly
B.) Central diabetes insipidus
C.) Gigantism
D.) Prolactenoma
E.) Aplastic anemia

A
131
Q

A syndrome of GH excess in children
and adolescents with open long bone
epiphyses that results in excessive height
A.) Acromegaly
B.) Central diabetes insipidus
C.) Gigantism
D.) Prolactenoma
E.) Aplastic anemia

A

C

132
Q

)Pituitary tumor that secretes excessive
amounts of prolactin and is associated with
a syndrome of infertility and galactorrhea
A.) Acromegaly
B.) Central diabetes insipidus
C.) Gigantism
D.) Prolactenoma
E.) Aplastic anemia

A

C

133
Q

Somatostatin receptor agonist used in the treatment of acromegaly and several
other hormone secreting tumors
A.) Ocreotide
B.) Pegvisomant
C.) Somatostatin
D.) Leuprolide
E.) Bromocriptine

A

A

134
Q

Dopamine D2 receptor agonist used in
the treatment of Hyperprolactinemia and
Parkinson’s disease
A.) Ocreotide
B.) Pegvisomant
C.) Somatostatin
D.) Leuprolide
E.) Bromocriptine

A

E

135
Q

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
(GnRH) analogs for ovarian suppression:
A.) Ocreotide
B.) Pegvisomant
C.) Somatostatin
D.) Leuprolide
E.) Bromocriptine

A

D

136
Q

Antagonist of vasopressin V1a and V2 receptors used as a treatment of
hypotension in hospitalized patients:
A.) Desmopressin
B.) Conivaptan
C.) Atosiban
D.) Oxytocin
E.) Ganirelix

A

B

137
Q

Agonist of vasopressin V2 receptors for
the treatment of pituitary diabetes insipidus:
A.) Desmopressin
B.) Conivaptan
C.) Atosiban
D.) Oxytocin
E.) Ganirelix

A

A

138
Q

Antagonist of oxytocin receptor:
A.) Desmopressin
B.) Conivaptan
C.) Atosiban
D.) Oxytocin
E.) Ganirelix

A

C

139
Q

Protein synthesized in the liver that
transports thyroid hormone in the blood
A.) Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
B.) Thyroglobulin
C.) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D.) Thyroid hormone
E.) Thyroxine

A

A

140
Q

A protein synthesized in the tyrosine
residues are used to synthesize thyroid
hormones:
A.) Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
B.) Thyroglobulin
C.) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D.) Thyroid hormone
E.) Thyroxine

A

B

141
Q

The anterior pituitary hormone that
regulates thyroid gland growth, uptake of
iodine and synthesis of thyroid hormone:
A.) Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
B.) Thyroglobulin
C.) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D.) Thyroid hormone
E.) Thyroxine

A

C

142
Q

Which of the following listed below are
key features of hypothyroidism?
I. Sensation of being cold
II. Reduced appetite
III. Weight loss
IV. Tachycardia
V. Drooping of eyelids
A.) I, II and III D.) II and III
B.) I, II and IV E.) III and IV
C.) I, II and V

A

C

143
Q

Which of following listed below are key
features of thyrotoxicosis?

I. Sensation of being cold
II. Reduced appetite
III. Weight loss
IV. Tachycardia
V. Drooping of eyelids
A.) I, II and III D.) II and III
B.) I, II and IV E.) III and IV
C.) I, II and V

A

E

144
Q

Drug that inhibits thyroid peroxidase
reactions, iodine organification, and
peripheral conversion of T4 to T3:
A.) Methimazole
B.) Propanolol
C.) Lugol’s solution
D.) Potassium iodide
E.) Levothyroxine

A

A

145
Q

Inhibition of beta receptor and
inhibition of T4 to T3. Used in the
management of thyroid storm.
A.) Methimazole
B.) Propanolol
C.) Lugol’s solution
D.) Potassium iodide
E.) Levothyroxine

A

B

146
Q

Partial or complete loss of
adrenocortical function, including loss of
glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid
function
A.) Addison’s disease
B.) Adrenal suppression
C.) Cushing’s syndrome
D.) Phenochromocytoma
E.) Adrenocorticoids

A

A

147
Q

A metabolic disorder caused by excess
secretion of adrenocorticoid steroids, which
is most commonly due to increased amounts
of ACTH
A.) Addison’s disease
B.) Adrenal suppression
C.) Cushing’s syndrome
D.) Phenochromocytoma
E.) Adrenocorticoids

A

C

148
Q

Strong against at mineralocorticoid
receptors and moderate activation of glucocorticoid receptors. Used to manage adrenal insufficiency in Addison’s disease
A.) Prednisone
B.) Fludrocortisone
C.) Mifepristone
D.) Spironolactone
E.) Ketoconazole

A

B

149
Q

Pharmacologic antagonist of
mineralocorticoid receptor and weak
antagonist of androgen receptors. May cause
gynecomastia.
A.) Prednisone
B.) Fludrocortisone
C.) Mifepristone
D.) Spironolactone
E.) Ketoconazole

A

D

150
Q

All of the following are true about CNS drugs, EXCEPT:
I. Water solubility is an important
characteristics of most CNS drugs
II. CNS drugs readily cross the
placental barrier and enter the fetal
circulation
III. Almost all CNS drugs require
metabolism to more water soluble form to
their elimination
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III

A

D

151
Q

Which of the following drugs are
classified as benzodiazepine?
I. Alprazolam
II. Clonazepam
III. Diazepam
IV. Thiopental
V. Phenobarbital
A. I, II, and III
B. II, III, and IV
C. IV and V
D. I and II
E. II and V

A

A

152
Q

. Which of the following drugs are
classified as barbiturates?
I. Alprazolam
II. Clonazepam
III. Diazepam
IV. Thiopental
V. Phenobarbital
A. I, II and III
B. II, III, and IV
C. IV and V
D. I and II
E. II and V

A

C

153
Q

Binds to GabaA receptor subunits to
facilitate chloride channel opening and increase frequency
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Barbiturates
C. TCA
D. Antipyschotics
E. Seizures

A

A

154
Q

Binds to GabaA receptor (distinct to
benzodiazepines) subunits to facilitate
chloride channel opening and increase
duration
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Barbiturates
C. TCA
D. Antipyschotics
E. Seizures

A

B

155
Q

Antagonist at benzodiazepines sites on
GABAa receptor
A. Ramelteon
B. Buspirone
C. Secobarbital
D. Flumazenil
E. Phenytoin

A

B

156
Q

Activates MT1 and MT2 receptors in
suprachiasmatic nucleus used for the
treatment of sleep disorder.
A. Ramelteon
B. Buspirone
C. Secobarbital
D. Flumazenil
E. Phenytoin

A

D

157
Q

Partial agonist at 5-HT receptors and
possibly D2 receptors used for generalized
anxiety states:
A. Ramelteon
B. Buspirone
C. Secobarbital
D. Flumazenil
E. Phenytoin

A

B

158
Q

NAD+ - dependent enzymes, found in liver and gut which accounts for the metabolism of low to moderate doses of ethanol.

A

A. Alcohol dehydrogenase
B. Microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system
C. Monoamine oxidase
D. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
E. Catechol-o-methyltransferase

159
Q

Severe form of alcohol withdrawal
whose main symptoms are sweating, tremor,
confusion and hallucinations
A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B. Delirium tremens
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
E. Acute alcohol toxicity

A

B

160
Q

A syndrome of craniofacial dysmorphia,
heart defects and mental retardation caused
by teratogenic effects of ethanol
consumption during pregnancy.
A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B. Delirium tremens
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
E. Acute alcohol toxicity

A

C

161
Q

The characteristic syndrome of
insomnia, tremor, agitation, seizures and
autonomic instability engendered by
deprivation in an individual who is physical
dependent on ethanol:
A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
E. Acute alcohol toxicity

A

(NO ANSWER YET)

162
Q

A syndrome of ataxia, confusion, and
paralysis of the extraocular muscles that is
associated with chronic alcoholism and
thiamine deficiency.
A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
E. Acute alcohol toxicity

A

E

163
Q

the most common medical
complication of chronic alcohol abuse:
A. Hypertension
B. Diabetes
C. Lung disease
D. Liver disease
E. Cancer

A

D

164
Q

NMDA glutamate receptor antagonist
that is also US-FDA approved for treatment
of alcoholism.
A. Naltrexone
B. Acomprosate
C. Disulfiram
D. Methanol
E. Ethylene glycol

A

D

165
Q

. Aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor used
adjunctively in some treatment program for
alcoholics. If ethanol is consumed by a
patient who has take this drug, acetaldehyde
accumulation leads to nausea, headache,
flushing and hypotension:
A. Naltrexone
B. Acomprosate
C. Disulfiram
D. Methanol
E. Ethylene glycol

A

C

166
Q

Poisoning of this substance result in
toxic levels of formate, which causes
characteristic visual disturbance plus coma,
seizures, acidosis, and death due to
respiratory failure.
A. Ethanol
B. Methanol
C. Ethylene glycol
D. Diazepam
E. Thiamine

A

B

167
Q

BDZ receptor agonist that facilitates
GABA-mediated activation of GABA,
receptors used in the prevention and
treatment of acute ethanol withdrawal
syndrome:
A. Ethanol
B. Methanol
C. Ethylene glycol
D. Diazepam
E. Thiamine

A

D

168
Q

Vitamin administered to patients
suspected of alcohol dependence to prevent
the Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome:
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Riboflavin
C. Thiamine
D. Folic acid
E. Niacin

A

C

169
Q

Nonselective competitive antagonist of
opioid receptors used to reduced risk of
relapse in individuals with alcohol-use
disorder:
A. Acomprosate
B. Disulfiram
C. Fomepizole
D. Ethanol
E. Naltrexone

A

E

170
Q

Inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase and
prevents conversion of methanol and
ethylene glycol to toxic metabolites. Used as
an antidote for methanol and ethylene
glycol poisoning:
A. Acomprosate
B. Disulfiram
C. Fomepizole
D. Ethanol
E. Naltrexone

A

C

171
Q

. Tonic phase (less than 1 min) involves
abrupt loss of consciousness, muscle rigidity
and respiration arrest; clonic phase (2-3 min)
involves jerking of body muscles, with lip or
tongue biting, and fecal and urinary
incontinence; formerly called grand mal
A. Partial seizures, simple
B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
C. Absence seizures, generalized
D. Myoclonic seizures
E. Status epilepticus

A

B

172
Q

. Impaired consciousness (often abrupt
onset and brief), sometimes with
automatisms, loss of postural tone, or
enuresis; begin in childhood (formerly, petit
mal) and usually cease by age 20 years:
A. Partial seizures, simple
B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
C. Absence seizures, generalized
D. Myoclonic seizures
E. Status epilepticus

A

C

173
Q

A series of seizures (usually tonicclonic) without recovery of consciousness
between attacks; it is a life-threatening
emergency:
A. Partial seizures, simple
B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
C. Absence seizures, generalized
D. Myoclonic seizures
E. Status epilepticus

A

E

174
Q

Which of the following is not a
mechanism of action of an antiseizure drug?
I. Sodium channel blockade
II. GABA- related mechanism
III. Calcium channel blockade
IV. Alpha receptor blockade
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. IV only
E. III and IV

A

D

175
Q

. Which of the following is a preferred
drug for the treatment of absence seizures?
A. Phenytoin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Ethosuximide
D. Diazepam
E. Clonazepam

A

C

176
Q

Stage if anesthesia where the patient
has decreased awareness of pain,
sometimes with amnesia. Consciousness
may be impaired but is not lost.
A. Stage 1: Analgesia
B. Stage 2: Disinhibition
C. Stage 3: Surgical anesthesia
D. Stage 4: Medullary Depression
E. Stage 5: delirium

A

A

177
Q

Stage of anesthesia where the patient
develops severe respiratory and
cardiovascular depression that requires
mechanical and pharmacologic support.
A. Stage 1: Analgesia
B. Stage 2: Disinhibition
C. Stage 3: Surgical anesthesia
D. Stage 4: Medullary Depression
E. Stage 5: delirium

A

D

178
Q

Stage of anesthesia where the patient
appears to be delirious and excited. Amnesia
occurs, reflexes are enhanced, and
respiration is typically irregular, retching and
incontinence may occur.

A. Stage 1: Analgesia
B. Stage 2: Disinhibition
C. Stage 3: Surgical anesthesia
D. Stage 4: Medullary Depression
E. Stage 5: delirium

A

B

179
Q

Anesthesia produced by a mixture of
drugs, often including both inhaled and
intravenous agents
A. Maximum anesthesia
B. Balanced anesthesia
C. General anesthesia
D. Inhalation anesthesia
E. Optimal anesthesia

A

B

180
Q

The alveolar concentration of an
inhaled anesthetic that is required to
prevent a response to a standardized painful
stimulus in 50% of patients
A. Maximum alveolar concentration
B. Optimal anesthetic dose
C. Minimum alveolar concentration
D. Standard alveolar concentration
E. Anesthetic alveolar concentration

A

C

181
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs listed
    below is classified as inhaled anesthetics?
    I. Halothane
    II. Thiopental
    III. Ketamine
    IV. Enflurane
    A. I and II
    B. II and III
    C. I and IV
    D. III and IV
    E. I and V
A

C

182
Q

. Which of the following drugs listed
below is classified as intravenous
anesthetic?
I. Halothane
II. Thiopental
III. Ketamine
IV. Enflurane
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and IV
D. III and IV
E. I and V

A

B

183
Q

This drug produces a state of
“dissociative anesthesia” in which the
patient remains conscious but has marked
catatonia, analgesia and amnesia.
A. Midazolam
B. Thiopental
C. Ketamine
D. Morphine
E. Etomidate

A

C

184
Q

Centrally acting α2-adrenergic agonist
that has analgesic and hypnotic actions
when used intravenously
A. Phenylephrine
B. Dexmetomidine
C. Prazosin
D. Clondine
E. Minoxidil

A

B

185
Q

Barbiturate that is used for the
induction of anesthesia and for short
surgical procedure
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Thiopental
C. Halothane
D. Midazolam
E. Ketamine

A

B

186
Q

Long acting ester local anesthethic
A. Tetracaine
B. Procaine
C. Benzocaine
D. Bupivacaine
E. Lidocaine

A

A

187
Q

All of the following are clinical use of
local anesthetic, EXCEPT:
A. Used for minor surgical procedures often
in combination with vasoconstrictors
such as epinephrine
B. Used in spinal anesthesia and to produce
autonomic blockade in ischemic
conditions
C. Slow epidural infusion at low
concentrations has been used
successfully for postoperative analgesia
D. Oral and parenteral forms of local
anesthetics are sometimes used
adjunctively in neuropathic pain states
E. Used as component of balance
anesthesia

A

E

188
Q

Neuromuscular paralysis that results
from pharmacologic antagonism at the
acetylcholine receptor of the end plate:
A. Depolarizing blockade
B. Nondepolarizing blockade
C. Stabilizing blockade
D. A or C
E. B or C

A

E

189
Q

Neuromuscular paralysis that results
from persistent depolarization of the end
plate:
A. Depolarizing blockade
B. Nondepolarizing blockade
C. Stabilizing blockade
A. A or C
B. B or C

A

A

190
Q

Which of the following drug can reverse
the blockade brought about by nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers:
A. Neostigmine
B. Succinylcholine
C. Tubocurarine
D. Atropine
E. Acetylcholine

A

E

191
Q

Which of the following drugs can be
used in the treatment of malignant
hyperthermia?
A. Tubocurarine
B. Baclofen
C. Cyclobenzapine
D. Dantrolene
E. Diazepam

A

D

192
Q

Which of the following listed bellows
are signs of Parkinsonism?
I. Rigidity of skeletal muscle
II. Akinesia
III. Flat facies
IV. Tremor at rest
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II, and III
E. All of these

A

E

193
Q

A progressive neurologic disease
characterized by shuffling gait, stooped
posture, resting tremor, speech
impediments, movement difficulties, and an
eventual slowing of mental processes and
dementia:
A. Parkinsonism
B. Huntington disease
C. Tourette’s syndrome
D. Wilson’s disease
E. Athetosis

A

A

194
Q

An inherited adult-onset neurologic
disease characterized by dementia and
bizarre involuntary movements:
A. Parkinsonism
B. Huntington disease
C. Tourette’s syndrome
D. Wilson’s disease
E. Athetosis

A

B

195
Q

A neurologic disease of unknown cause
that presents with multiple tics associated
with snorting, sniffing, and involuntary
vocalizations
A. Parkinsonism
B. Huntington disease
C. Tourette’s syndrome
D. Wilson’s disease
E. Athetosis

A

C

196
Q

An inherited (autosomal recessive)
disorder of copper accumulation in liver,
brain, kidneys, and eyes; symptoms include
jaundice, vomiting, tremors, muscle
weakness, stiff movements, liver failure and
dementia.
A. Parkinsonism
B. Huntington disease
C. Tourette’s syndrome
D. Wilson’s disease
E. Athetosis

A

D

197
Q

Strategies of drug treatment of
parkinsonism involve which of the following:
I. Increasing dopamine activity in the
brain
II. Decreasing muscarinic cholinergic
activity
III. Neuromuscular blockade
IV. Increasing acetylcholine activity
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. III only
E. III and IV

A

B

198
Q

Drug that does not cross the blood
brain barrier but inhibits dopa decarboxylase
in peripheral tissues used in combination
with levodopa for the treatment of
parkinsonism

A. Reserpine
B. Selegeline
C. Carbidopa
D. Pramipexole
E. Ropinirole

A

C

199
Q

Non ergot which as high affinity for
Dopamine D3 receptor which is effective as
monotherapy in mild parkinsonism and can
be used together with levodopa in more
advanced disease
A. Reserpine
B. Selegeline
C. Carbidopa
D. Pramipexole
E. Ropinirole

A

D

200
Q

Dummy medicine containing no active
(or alternatively, a dummy surgical
procedure, diet or other kind of therapeutic
intervention), which the patient believes is
(or could be, in the context of a controlled
tiral) the real thing
A. Prodrug
B. Orphan drug
C. Lead drug
D. Placebo
E. Experimental drug

A

D

201
Q

. To avoid bias, clinical trials are
performed using the following study design,
EXCEPT:
A. Un-blinded study
B. Controlled
C. Randomized
D. Double blind
E. B and C

A

A & C

202
Q

Lethal dose for 50% of the population
divided by effective dose for 50% of
population is called:
A. Meta-analysis
B. Therapeutic range
C. Therapeutic index
D. Potency
E. Efficacy

A

C

203
Q

All of the following are true drug
therapeutic index, EXCEPT:
A. Unsatisfactory as a measure of drug
safety
B. Based on animal toxicity data, which may
not reflect forms of toxicity or adverse
reactions that are important clinically
C. It takes no account of idiosyncratic toxic
reactions
D. Provide a measure of the margin of
safety of a drug, by drawing attention to
the relationship between the effective
and toxic doses.
E. None of these

A

E

204
Q

Refers to an electric group of drugs that
are used for non-medical purposes. It
includes drugs of abuse, drugs used to
enhance athletic or other performance, as
well as those taken for cosmetic puposes or
for purely social reasons
A. Recreational drugs
B. Non-medical drugs
C. Prescriptiondrugs
D. Lifestyle drugs
E. Performance drugs

A

D

205
Q

Which of the following belongs to
medicines approved for specific indications
but can also be used for other ‘lifestyle
purpose?
A. Orlistat
B. Minoxidil
C. Alcohol
D. Caffeine
E. Cannabis

A

A

206
Q

Which of the following belongs to
medicines approved for specific indications
that can also be used to satisfy ‘lifestyle
changes’ or to treat ‘lifestyle diseases’
A. Orlistat
B. Minoxidil
C. Alcohol
D. Caffeine
E. Cannabis

A

B

207
Q

Used mainly to achieve rapid weight
loss before weighing in and also to mask
presence of other agents in urine by dilution
A. Anabolic agents
B. Hormones and related agents
C. Diuretics
D. Praziquantel
E. Benzimidazoles

A

C

208
Q

Anthelminthic drug that acts by
inhibiting the polymerization of helminth βtubuli, thus interfering with microtubuledependent functions such as glucose uptake:
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivemectine
C. Niclosamide
D. Praziquantel
E. Benzimidazoles

A

E

209
Q

Anthelmintic drug acts by changing the
parasite such that it becomes susceptible to
the host’s normal immune response. It may
also interfere with helminth arachidonate
metabolism.
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivemectine
C. Niclosamide
D. Praziquantel
E. Benzimidazoles

A

A

210
Q

These class of fungal agents inhibit the
fungal cytochrome P450 3A enzyme,
lonosine 14α
-demethylase, which is
responsible for converting lanosterol to
ergosterol, the main sterol in the fungal
membrane:
A. Echinocandins
B. Amphotericin
C. Flucytosine
D. Azoles
E. Griseofulvin

A

D

211
Q

These class of fungal agents inhibit the
synthesis of 1,3-β-glucan, a glucose polymer
that is necessary for maintaining the
structure of fungal cell walls. In the absence
of this polymer, fungal cells lose integrity
and lyse.
A. Echinocandins
B. Amphotericin
C. Flucytosine
D. Azoles
E. Griseofulvin

A

A

212
Q

Potential and actual clinical
use/indications of cannabinoids antagonist
include which of the following?
I. Obesity
II. Tobacco independence
III. Drug addiction
IV. Alcoholism
V. Parkinson’s disease
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
E. IV and V

A

D

213
Q

. Potential and actual clinical
uses/indications of cannabinoids agonists
include which of the following?
I. Neuropathic pain
II. Glaucoma
III. Drug addiction
IV. Alcoholism
V. Head injury
A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and V
C. II, III, and IV
D. II, IV, and V
E. V only

A

B

214
Q

. Primary autonomic mechanism for
blood pressure homeostasis; involves
sensory input from carotid sinus and aorta
to the vasomotor center and output via the
parasympathetic and sympathetic motor
nerves:
A. Stepped care
B. Baroreceptor reflex
C. Positive feedback
D. Negative feedback
E. RAAS

A

B

215
Q

. Hypertension caused by a diagnosable
abnormality, e.g, aortic coarctation, renal
artery stenosis, adrenal tumor, etc.
A. Primary hypertension
B. Essential hypertension
C. Secondary hypertension
D. A or B
E. A or C

A

C

216
Q

An accelerated form of severe
hypertension associated with rising blood
pressure and rapidly progressing damage to
vessels and end organs. Often signaled by
renal damage, encephalopathy and retinal
hemorrhages or by angina, stroke or MI.
Also called malignant hypertension
A. Hypertensive hypertension
B. Essential hypertension
C. Orthostatic hypertension
D. Rebound hypertension
E. Secondary hypertension

A

E

217
Q

8.Elevated blood pressure (usually above
pretreatment levels) resulting from loss of
antihypertensive drug effect:
A. Hypertensive emergency
B. Essential hypertension
C. Orthostatic hypertension
D. Rebound hypertension
E. Secondary hypertension

A

D

218
Q

Important diuretic usually used in
severe hypertension and hypertensive
emergencies:
A. Loop diuretics
B. Thiazide diuretics
C. Osmotic diuretics
D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
E. ACE inhibitors

A

A

219
Q

Blockade of calcium channels, release
of nitric oxide, opening of potassium
channels (which leads to hyperpolarization)
and activation of D1 dopamine receptors are
the major mechanism of action of what class
of antihypertensive drugs?
A. Diuretics
B. Angiotensin antagonists
C. Vasodilators
D. Sympathoplegics
E. ACE inhibitors

A

C

220
Q

Newer drug in the antihypertensive
group and inhibits renin’s action on its
substrate, angiotensinogen. It reduces the
formation of the angiotensin I and in
consequence, angiotensin II.
A. Captopril
B. Losartan
C. Aliskerin
D. Enalapril
E. Minoxidil

A

C

221
Q

Industrial disease caused by chronic
exposure to vasodilating concentrations of
organic nitrates in the workplace,
characterized by headache, dizziness and
tachycardia on return to work after 2 days
absence.
A. Sunday disease
B. Monday disease
C. Angina
D. Nitrate disease
E. Worker’s disease

A

B

222
Q

Rapidly progressing increase in
frequency and severity of angina attacks; an
acute coronary syndrome that often heralds
imminent myocardial infarction.
A. Classic angina
B. Prinzmetal angina
C. Angina of effort
D. Atherosclerotic angina
E. Unstable angina

A

E

223
Q

Angina precipitated by reversible spasm
of coronary vessels, often at rest:
A. Classic angina
B. Prinzmetal angina
C. Angina of effort
D. Atherosclerotic angina
E. Unstable angina

A

B

224
Q

Filling pressure of the heart, dependent
on venous tone and blood volume;
determines end-diastolic fiber length and
tension
A. Preload
B. Afterload
C. Intramyocardial fiber tension
D. Myocardial revascularization
E. Coronary pressure

A

A

225
Q

Force excreted by myocardial fibers,
especially ventricular fibers at any given time which also serves as a primary
determinant of myocardial oxygen
requirement.
A.) Preload
B.) Afterload
C.) Intramyocardial fiber tension
D.) Myocardial revascularization
E.) Coronary pressure

A

C

226
Q

Which of the following is the
fundamental physiological defect seen on
patients with heart failure?
A.) Irregular heartbeat
B.) Increase cardiac output
C.) Decrease cardiac output
D.) Tachycardia
E.) Bradycardia

A

C

227
Q

Cardiac glycoside were formerly
considered as the 1st line drug in the
treatment of heart failure. What is the
mechanism of action of cardiac glycoside?
A.) Inhibition of angiotensin converting
enzyme
B.) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
C.) Inhibition of renal sodium transporter
D.) Inhibition of Na+/K+ ATPase
E.) Proton pump inhibitor

A

D

228
Q

Which of the following class of drug is not use in the treatment of heart failure?
A.) ACE inhibitor
B.) Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
C.) Beta blockers
D.) Vasodilators
E.) Calcium channel blocker

A

E

229
Q

Which of the following drug belongs to phosphodiesterase inhibitors?
A.) Nitroglycerin D.) Losartan
B.) Milrinone E.) Captopril
C.) Furosemide

A

B

230
Q

Hormone that stimulates insulin
secretion and inhibit gastric secretion and
motility

A.) Gastrin D.) GIP
B.) Secretin E.) Motilin
C.) Cholecystokinin

A

D

231
Q

Hormone that stimulates pancreatic
ductal cell H2O and HCO2 secretion:
A.) Gastrin D.) GIP
B.) Secretin E.) Motilin

A

B

232
Q

The drug block mast cell degradation
by suppressing release of mediators of
immediate bronchoconstriction (early
response) and reducing eosinophil
recruitment causing airway inflammation:
A.) Albuterol D.) Cromolyn
B.) IgE antibody E.)
Theophylline
C.) Theobromine

A

D

233
Q

An acute or chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by presence of 1 or more areas pruritis (severe itching), erythema (redness), scaling (dry exfoliative shedding), macules (discoloration), papules
(pimples) or vesicles (blister-like-sacs)
A.) Alopecia D.) Scabies
B.) Eczema E.) Urticaria
C.) Psoriasis

A

B

234
Q

The drugs can worsen psoriasis and
should be avoided by the patients:
I. Beta blockers
II. Topical steroids
III. Systemic steroids
IV. Vit D analogs
A.) I and II D.) III and IV
B.) I and III E.) I and IV
C.) II and IV

A

B

235
Q

The mainstay of pharmacologic
therapy for scabies is the use of topical
scabicides. Example of topical scabicides
includes which of the following?
A.) Ivermectin D.) Permethrin
B.) Tacrolimus
C.) Dapsone E.) Sulfasalazine

A

D

236
Q

) Deficiency of water soluble niacin
(nicotinic acid) or its amide (nicotamide) will
result in which of the following?
A.) Ophthalmoplegia
B.) Swollen, congested and bleeding gums
C.) Cyanosis
D.) Dietary deficiency or impairment
absorption
E.)Multiple perifollicular hemorrhages

A

D

237
Q

Absorption of this vitamin is impaired
by mineral oil, neomycin and
cholestyramine.
A.) Vit A D.) Vit D
B.) Vit B E.) VIt E
C.) Vit C

A

A

238
Q

Carbenicillin, pipercillin and ticacillin
display improved activity against gram(-) organisms and are usually used in combination with aminoglycosides in patients with febrile neutropenia and those
with hard to treat nosocomial infections caused by strains of Enterobacter, Klebsiella,
Citrobacter, Serratia, Bacteroides fragilis and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This drugs
belongs to which class of antibiotic?
A.) Aminopenicillin
B.) Antipseudomonal penicillin
C.) Beta lactamase inhibitor
D.) Beta lactamase resistant penicillins
E.) Cephalosporins

A

B

239
Q

Clavulanate, sulbactam, tazobactam
are Beta lactamase inhibitors and are used
only in combination with Beta lactam
antibiotic, which creates a product that has
extended activity against Beta lactamaseproducing strains. Which of these beta
lactamase inhibitors is usually used in combination with the anti bacterial drug
Piperacillin?
A.) Sulbactma D.) A or B
B.) Clavulanate E.) B or C
C.) Tazobactam

A

C

240
Q

Common adverse effect experienced
in Beta lactamase resistant penicillins:
A.) Hepatoxicity
B.) Maculopapular rash
C.) Acute interstitial nephritis
D.) Jarish-Herxheimer reaction
E.) Bleeding, hyperkalemia and
hypernatremia

A

A

241
Q

Common adverse effect experienced in
taking extended-spectrum penicillins (high
doses)
A.) Hepatoxicity
B.) Maculopapular rash
C.) Acute interstitial nephritis
D.) Jarish-Herxheimer reaction
E.) Bleeding, hyperkalemia and
hypernatremia

A

E

242
Q

Which of the following are the
broadest spectrum Beta lactam antibiotics?
A.) Penicillins D.) Aminoglycosides
B.) Cephalosporins E.) Monobactam
C.) Carbapenem

A

C

243
Q

A monobactam antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis and is resistant to most Beta lactamase
A.) Gentamicin
B.) Tetracylcine
C.) Climdamycin
D.) Aztreonam
E.) Vancomycim

A

D

244
Q

A glycopeptide antibiotic that inhibit
bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to cell
wall phospholipids and inhibiting
polymerase and transpeptidation, which
leads to cell wall lysis
A.) Gentamicin
B.) Tetracylcine
C.) Climdamycin
D.) Aztreonam
E.) Vancomycim

A

E

245
Q

Broad spectrum antibiotics that inhibit DNA gyrase or topoisomerase IV (essential
for duplication, transcription and repair of bacterial DNA), target various aerobic gram(+) (eg, methicillin-resistant and beta
lactamase producing staphylococcus
species, S. Pneumonia) and gram(-) (eg, H.
Influenzae, M. catarrhalis, P. Aeruginosa,
Leigonella, Chlamydia) organisms
A.) Tetracycline
B.) Quinolones
C.) Aminoglycosides
D.) Sulfonamides
E.) Cephalosporins

A

B

246
Q

An oxazolidinone derivatives that binds
to ribosomal subunits and interferes with
bacterial protein synthesis. The drug is
intended of multi drug resistant gram(+)
cocci, particularly as an alternative in
infections caused by vancomycin resistant
Enterococcus, multi drug resistant S.
Pneumonia (including vancomycinceftriaxone resistant) and MRSA or
methicillin resistant S. Epidermis
A.) Doxycycline D.)
Ciprofoxacin
B.) Linezolid E.) Sulfasalazine
C.) Dalfopristin

A

B

247
Q

A polyene antifungal agent that binds
to ergosterol in fungal plasma membranes,
interferes with membrane function and
causes cell death
A.) Amphotericin B D.) Caspofungin
B.) Flucytosine E.) Ketoconazole
C.) Griseofulvin

A

A

248
Q

All of the followimg are true regarding
combination chemotherapy, EXCEPT:
A.) Provides higher and more durable
response rates
B.) Only agents with demonstrated activity
as monotherapy agonist the specific type of
tumor should be selected
C.) All agents within the regimen should
have same mechanisms of action (which
often has additive or synergistic effects.)
D.) To minimize unacceptable toxicity,
agents should not have overlapping adverse
effects
E.) To optimize efficacy resistance, the
optimal dose and schedule of drugs should
be used

A

C

249
Q

One of the oldest and most studied
antineoplastic drug related to folic acid that
acts by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase
A.) Mecaptopurine
B.) 5-Fluorouracil
C.) Methotrexate
D.) Cytarabine
E.) Gemcitabine

A

C

250
Q

Combination oral contraceptives
contain both estrogen and progestin and
prevent pregnancy through the following
mechanism, EXCEPT
A.)They inhibit ovulation via a negative
feedback mechanism on the hypothalamus
which alters the normal pattern of FSH and
LH secretion by the anterior pituitary
B.) Alteration of the tubal transport of the
sperm, egg and fertilized ovum through the
fallopian tubes.
C.) Inducing an environment in the
endometrium that is unfavourable for
implantation
D.) Changing the cervical mucus and
rendering it unfavourable for sperm
penetration even if ovulation occurs
E.) Inhibition of binding of estrogen receptor
that leads to a disruption in the negative
feedback of estrogens on the hypothalamus
and pituitary, a subsequent increases in
secretion of GnRH and gonadotropins

A

E

251
Q

Drug for parkinsonism that acts by
binding to dopamine receptors and mimic
the action of dopamine
A.) Amantadine
B.) Selegiline
C.) Biperiden
D.) Bromocriptine
E.) Levedopa

A

D

252
Q

Drug for parkinsonism that acts by
increasing the dopamine release and
reduces dopamine reuptake into
dopaminergic nerve terminals of substantia
nigra neurons
A.) Amantadine
B.) Selegiline
C.) Biperiden
D.) Bromocriptine
E.) Levedopa

A

A

253
Q

A neurodegenerative disorder
characterized by progressive impairment of
short term memory and other memory,
language and thought processes
A.) Parkinsonism D.)
Alzheimer’s disease
B.) Huntington disease E.) Stroke
C.) Tourette syndrome

A

D

254
Q

Which of the following class of drugs
listed below is/are included in
pharmacologic management options in
alzheimer’s disease?
I. Cholinesterase inhibitors
II. Muscarinic agonist
III. Beta blockers
IV. Dopamine agonist
A.) I only D.) I and III
B.) I and II E.) II and IV
C.) II and III

A

B

255
Q

Primary treatment options for patients
with hyperthyroidism induce which of the
following?
I. Thioamides
II. Radioactive iodine
III. Surgery
IV. Adregenergic antagonists
V. Iodides
A.) I only D.) II, III and IV
B.) I and II E.) IV and V
C.) I, II and III

A

C

256
Q

Adjunct to primary treatment options
for patients with hyperthyroidism include
which of the following?
I. Thioamides
II. Radioactive iodine
III. Surgery
IV. Adregenergic antagonists
V. Iodides
A.) I only D.) II, III and IV
B.) I and II E.) IV and V
C.) I, II and III

A

E

257
Q

. Preffered treatment option for
children, pregnant woman and young adults
with uncomplicated Grave’s disease
A.) Thioamides D.) Adrenergic
antagonists
B.) Radioactive iodine E.) Iodides
C.) Surgery

A

A

258
Q

This drug is used to treat Cushing
syndrome when dose limiting side effects occurs with ketoconazole and it can be used in combination with other agents. It reduces cortisol production by inhibiting 11-Betahydroxylation, the final step in
glucocorticoid synthesis
A.) Metyrapone
B.) Aminogluthetamide
C.) Progesterone
D.) Aldosterone
E.) Estradiol

A

A

259
Q

Oral antihyperlipidemic agents which is contraindicated with Type 1 DM, pregnancy
or breast feeding, severe hepatic or renal
dysfunctions and severe acute comorbidities
or surgery
A.) 1st gen sulfonylureas
B.) 2nd gen sulfonylureas
C.) Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
D.) Biguanides
E.) Meglitinides

A

A

260
Q

Which of the following drugs is a
meglitinide?
I. Glimepiride
II. Repaglinide
III. Acarbose
IV. Nateglinide
A.) I only D.) I and III
B.) I and II E.) II and IV
C.) II and III

A

E

261
Q

The historical mainstay therapy in type
II DM, used as monotherapy or with insulin
or other oral agents, act mainly by
stimulating insulin secretion from pancreatic
beta cells, enhancing beta cell sensitivity to
glucose and reducing glucagon release. They
work only if beta cells are functioning
A.) Thiazolidinediones
B.) Meglitinides
C.) Labetalol
D.) Sulfonylureas
E.) Biguanides

A

D

262
Q

2nd gen sulfonylureas have greater
potency, fewer drug interactions, and have
better pharmacokinetic profiles compared
to other class 1st gen sulfonylureas. Which of
the following drugs listed below belongs to
2nd gen sulfonylureas?
I. Glimipiride
II. Tolbutamide
III. Glipizide
IV. Acetohexamide
A.) I only D.) I and III
B.) I and II E.) II and IV
C.) II and III

A

D

263
Q

The drug binds to Ach receptors and
block Ach from binding to open cation
channels, thus preventing depolarization
A.) Physostigmine D.) Hemicholinium
B.) Curare E.) Nifedipine
C.) Succinylcholine

A

B

264
Q

This drug block acetylcholinesterase
from degrading acetylcholine to choline and
acetate, thus prolonging the action of
acetylcholine
A.) Physostigmine D.) Hemicholinium
B.) Curare E.) Nifedipine
C.) Succinylcholine

A

A

265
Q

This group of drugs elicit
vasoconstriction and mydriasis and also
used as nasal decongestants and in eye
examination
A.) B1-Adrenoceptor antagonists
B.) B2-Adrenoceptor agonists
C.) A1-Adrenoceptor antagonists
D.)A1-Adreoceptor agonists
E.) Mixed Alpha and Beta agonists

A

D

266
Q

These drugs stimulate bronchodilation
and used to treat asthma
A.) B1-Adrenoceptor antagonists
B.) B2-Adrenoceptor agonists
C.) A1-Adrenoceptor antagonists
D.)A1-Adreoceptor agonists
E.) Mixed Alpha and Beta agonists

A

B

267
Q

.Alpha antagonist (non selective,
irreversible) drug used in the treatment of
pheochromocytoma
A.) Prazosin D.)
Phenoxybenzamine
B.) Propanolol E.) Yohimbine

A

D

268
Q

Mixed alpha and beta antagonists drug
used in hypertension during pregnancy
A.) Prazosin D.)
Phenoxybenzamine
B.) Propanolol E.) Yohimbine
C.) Labetalol

A

C

269
Q

B-non selective antagonists drug
indicated in the treatment of angina, hypertension, cardiac dysrhythmias, anxiety,
tremor and glaucoma
A.) Prazosin D.)
Phenoxybenzamine
B.) Propanolol E.) Yohimbine
C.) Labetalol

A

B

270
Q

Which adrenoceptor mediates
relaxation of smooth muscle, increases
glycogenolysis and increase heart rate and
force?
A.) Alpha 1 D.) Beta 2
B.) Alpha 2 E.) Dopamine 1
C.) Beta 1

A

E

271
Q

Which of the following steps/processes
in autonomic transmission is affected by the
drug tranylcypromine?
A.) Action potential prolongation
B.) Transmitter synthesis
C.) Enzymatic inactivation of transmitter
D.) Transmitter storage
E.) Receptor activation or blockade

A

E

272
Q

Which of the following steps/processes
in autonomic transmission is affected by the
drug vesamicol and reserpine?
A.) Action potential prolongation
B.) Transmitter synthesis
C.) Enzymatic inactivation of transmitter
D.) Transmitter storage
E.) Receptor activation or blockade

A

D

273
Q

Which of the following statements is
correct regarding the effects of
cholinomimetic drug on major organ
systems?
I. Sphincter muscle of iris –
constriction (mydriasis)
II. Sinoatrial node – decreases in rate
(negative chronotropy)
III. Blood vessels – dilation via
release of EDRF from endothelium
IV. Skeletal muscle – activation of
neuromuscular and plates, contraction

A.) I only D.) I, III and IV
B.) I, II, III E.) IV only
C.) II, III, IV

A

C

274
Q

A partial agonist at N receptor which is used for smoking cessation
A.) Bethanecol D.) Neostigmine
B.) Muscarine E.) Physostigmine
C.) Varenicline

A

C

275
Q

. Inhibitors of gastric H+, K+ -ATPase and
considered as the most potent suppressors
of gastric acid secretion
A.) H2-receptor antagonists
B.) Proton pump inhibitos
C.) Antacids
D.) Cytoprotectant
E.) Bismuth compounds

A

B

276
Q

Long term use of this H2-receptor
antagonist at high doses decreases
testosterone binding to the androgen
receptor and inhibit CYP that hydroxylates
estradiol. These effects can cause
galactorrhea in women and gynecomastia,
reduced sperm count and impotence in men
A.) Famotidine D.) Ranitidine
B.) Nizatidine E.) Cimetidine
C.) Histamine

A

E

277
Q

This drug inhibits the pepsin mediated
hydrolysis of mucosal proteins that
contributes to mucosal erosion and
ulcerations
A.) Misoprostol
B.) Sucralfate
C.) Rebapimide
D.) Carbenoxolone
E.) Lansoprazole

A

B

278
Q

An octapeptide analog of somatostatin
that is effective in inhibiting the severe
secretory diarrhea brought about by
hormone secreting tumors of pancreas and
the GI tract. Its mechanism of action
appears to involve inhibition of hormone
secretion, including serotonin and various
other GI peptides
A.) Odansetron
B.) Dronabinol
C.) Hyoscine
D.) Ocreotide
E.) Promethazine

A

D

279
Q

Prototype 5HT3 receptor antagonist
used for chemotherapy induced emesis
A.) Metoclopramide
B.) Odansetron
C.) Tropisetron
D.) Dronabinol
E.) Granisetron

A

B

280
Q

A naturally occurring cannabinoid that cant synthesized chemically or ectracted from the marijuana plant, Cannabis sativa. It
is useful prophylactic agent in patients
receiving cancer chemotherapy when other
antiemetic medications are not effective
A.) Dexamethasone D.) Dronabinol
B.) Odansetron E.)
Granisetron

A

D

281
Q

The drug of choice for drug resistant P.
falciparum malaria. This drug is associated
with toxicities including cinchonism,
hypoglycemia ant hypotension when it is
given at full therapeutic or excessive doses
A.) Primaquine D.) Proguanil
B.) Chloroquine E.)
Pyrimethamine
C.) Quinine

A

B

282
Q

It is used primarily for the terminal
prophylaxis and radical cure of P. vivax and
P. ovale (relapsing) malarias because of high
activity against their latent tissue forms. In
the contrast with other cure relapsing
malaria
A.) Primaquine D.) Proguanil
B.) Chloroquine E.)
Pyrimethamine
C.) Quinine

A

A

283
Q

Mechanism of resistance in cancer
chemotherapy include all of the following,
EXCEPT
A.) Decreased DNA repair
B.) Formation of trapping agents
C.) Change in enzyme targets
D.) Decreased activation of prodrugs
E.) Decreased drug accumulation

A

A

284
Q

5-Fluorouracil, methotrexate,
gemcitabine and 6-mercaptopurine belong
to which group of anticancer drugs?
A.) Alkylating agents D.) Antitumor
antibiotics
B.) Antimetabolites E.) Hormonal
C.) Natural products

A

B

285
Q

A highly basic, positively charged
peptide that antagonize the effect of
warfarin
A.) Argatroban D.) Protamine sulfate
B.) Hirudin E.) Dabigatran
etaxilate
C.) Vit K

A

D

286
Q

Advantages of oral direct thrombin
inhibitors include predictable
pharmacokinetics and bioavailability, which
allow for fixed dosing and predictable
anticoagulant response and make routine
coagulation monitoring unnecessary. Which
of the following is the first oral direct
thrombin inhibitor approved by the US-FDA?
A.) Dabigatran D.) Heparin
B.) Streptokinase E.) Hirudin
C.) Aminocaproic acid

A

C

287
Q

A specific irreversible thrombin
inhibitor from leech saliva that is now
available in recombinant form lepirudin
A.) Agatroban D.) Rivaroxaban
B.) Bivalirudin E.) Warfarin
C.) Hirudin

A

C

288
Q

A diuretic agent which is also used as
treatment for glaucoma
A.) Furosemide
B.) Hydrochlorothiazide
C.) Amiloride
D.) Acetazolamide
E.)Tolvatan

A

D

289
Q

Natrixam, a drug used in the treatment
if hypertension is marketed with generic
name of
A.) Amlodipine and HCTZ
B.) Amlodipine and Indapamide
C.) Amlodipine and Rosuvastatin
D.) Amlodipine and Erythtomycin
E.) Amlodipine and Erythtomycin

A

B

290
Q

A newly developed drug in the
management of diabetes which is used as
adjunct to diet and exercise to improve
glycemic control in adults with type 2 DM. It
is marketed under the brand name,
Invokana
A.) Canaglifozin
B.) Atorvastatin
C.) Perampane
D.) Agmatine sulfate
E.) Anastrozole

A

A

291
Q

The generic name of Rapamune, a drug
which serves as a prophylaxis organ
rejection in patients receiving renal
transplant
A.) Tacrolimus D.) Ramipril
B.) Sirolimus E.) Renapril
C.) Tamsulosin

A

B

292
Q

This drug inhibit Na/Cl transporter in
the distal convoluted tubule resulting to
modest increase in NaCl excretion, some K
wasting, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
and decreased urine Ca
A.) Mannitol
B.) Connivaptan
C.) Acetazolamide
D.) Hydrochlorothiazide
E.)Furosemide

A

D

293
Q

Trump plus, a newly developed drug
which is indicated to treat moderate to severe pain is a combination of
A.) Paracetamol and Caffeine
B.) Paracetamol and Tramadol
C.) Paracetamol and Mefenamic acid
D.) Paracetamol and Chlorphenamine
maleate
E.) Paracetamol and Codeine

A

B

294
Q

Which of the following describes 2nd
generation H1-antihistamines?
A.) Example of 2nd gen antihistamines
include Chlorpheniramine and Cyclizine
B.) Common effect if 1st gen H1-Antagosnists
is sedation
C.) Some 2nd gen H1 Antihistamines possess
serotonin blocking and adrenoceptor
blocking action
D.) 2nd gen H1 Antihistamines are used
mainly for the treatment of allergic rhinitis
and chronic urticaria
E.) 2nd gen H1 Antihistamines are less
expensive compared to 1st gen H1
anihistamines

A

D

295
Q

It is the newly marketed Live
attenuated Dengue tetravalent vaccine
developed by Sanofi-pasteur
A.) Pneumovax 23 D.) Denguevaxx
B.) Biothrax E.) Tetravax
C.) Dengvaxia

A

C

296
Q

H1 atagonist that possess an alpha
receptor blocking action
A.) Diphenydramine D.)Fexofenadine
B.) Promethazine E.) Cyproheptadine
C.) Chlorpheniramine

A

B

297
Q

A gaseous signalling molecule that
readily diffuses across cell membrane and
regulates a wide range of physiologic and
pathophysiologic processes including
cardiovascular, inflammatory and neuronal
functions

A.) NO D.)NO3
B.) N2O E.) N2O3
C.) NO2

A

A

298
Q

Leukotriene receptor inhibitor used in the treatment of asthma
A.) Albuterol D.) Alprostadil
B.) Zileuton E.) Montelukast
C.) Cromolyn

A

E

299
Q

All of the following are correct
statements regarding COX1 and COX2
enzyme, EXCEPT
A.) COX2 us an immediate early response
gene product that is markedly up regulated
by shear stress, growth factors, tumour
promoters and cytokines
B.) COX2 is the major source of prostanoids
in inflammation and cancer
C.) Traditional NSAIDS are selective for COX2
D.) COX1 generates prostanoids for
“housekeeping” such as gastric epithelial
cytoprotection
E.) Indomethacin and sulindac are slightly
selective for COX1G

A

C

PSMB (20 decks)

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