PCOL (VIOLET) Flashcards by Xei Lee

Mechanism of action of local anesthetics.

A. Block sodium channel thereby stopping axonal conduction
B. Block alpha and beta receptor
C. Block neuronal firing by decreasing Ach in the neuromuscular junction
D. Inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase enzyme
E. Inhibition of enzyme responsible for pain response

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The following are factors that affect the absorption of drug from the gastrointestinal(GI)
track except.
A. Surface area of absorption
B. Blood flow to the site of absorption
C. Physical state of the drug
D. Concentration of the drug at the site of absorption
E. Protein binding

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Continued stimulation of cells with agonists generally results in which of the following?
A. Desensitization
B. UP-regulation
C. Down-regulation
D. A and B
E. A and C

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Drug that lacks intrinsic efficacy but retains affinity and competes with the agonist for the
binding sites of the receptor.
A. Competitive antagonist
B. Full agonist
C. Non-competitive antagonist
D. Partial antagonist
E. Partial agonist

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This type of drug produce its effect by binding a site on the receptor distinct from that of the primary agonist and thereby changing the affinity of the receptor for the agonist.
A. Competitive antagonist
B. Full agonist
C. Non-competitive antagonist
D. Partial antagonist
E. Partial agonist

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In this type of study, participants are blinded to treatment assignment, investigator are not.
A. Double blind study
B. Single blind study
C. Masking
D. Open-label
E. Un-blinded study

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The neurotransmitter of all preganglionic autonomic fibers, and all postganglionic
parasympathetic fibers.
A. Norepinephrine
B. Noradrenaline
C. Acetylcholine
D. A and B
E. A and C

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The release of ach and other neurotransmitters by exocytosis is inhibited by:
A. Acetylcholinesterase
B. Botulinum toxin
C. Reserpine
D. Me tyrosine
E. Guanethidine

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All of the following are enzymes involved in the biosynthesis of epinephrine from tyrosine
EXCEPT:
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
B. Aromatic L amino acid decarboxylase
C. Dopamine Beta-hydroxylase
D. Phenyl ethanolamine-N-Methyl transferase
E. Monoamine oxidase

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Rate limiting enzyme in the synthesis of catecholamines
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
B. Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
C. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
D. Phenyl ethanolamine-N-Methyl transferase
E. COMT

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All of the following are effects of activating beta 2 receptor EXCEPT:
A. Bronchoconstriction
B. Uterine Relaxation
C. Glycogenolysis
D. Gluconeogenesis
E. Bronchodilation

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All of the following are effects of activating alpha 1 receptor EXCEPT:
A. Vascular smooth muscle relaxation
B. Intestinal smooth muscle relaxation
C. Increase contractive force of the heart
D. Glycogenolysis in the liver
E. Vascular smooth muscle constriction

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Which of the following is a pharmacological effect of muscarinic stimulation in the
cardiovascular system?
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Decrease in cardiac rate
C. Positive chronotropic effect
D. Positive dromotropic effect
E. Positive inotropic effect

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All of the following are naturally occurring chromonematic Alkaid EXCEPT:
A. Pilocarpine
B. Muscarine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Arecoline
E. None of these

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Which of the following is/are effects of cholinomimetic drugs?
I. Stimulation of GI smooth muscle
II. Stimulation of secretion of exocrine gland
III. Bronchoconstriction
IV. Tachycardia
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and IV
E. I, II, III and IV

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Major contraindication to the use of muscarinic agonist are the following EXCETP:
A. Asthma
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Coronary insufficiency
D. Acid-peptic disease
E. Hypertension

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Used in the treatment of glaucoma where it is instilled into the eye usually as a 0.5-4%
solution.
A. Epinephrine
B. Eye-mo
C. Pilocarpine
D. Bethanecole
E. Atropine

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Most effective prophylactic agent for short (4-6 hrs) exposure to severe motion also
available as transdermal patch.
A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine
C. Ipratropium
D. Tiotropium
E. Varenicline

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Which of the following drugs is/are classified an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
I. Pilocarpine
II. Edrophonium
III. Tacrine
IV. Atropine
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
E. IV only

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Which of the following is not an effect of anti-cholinesterase agents?
A. Stimulation of muscarinic receptor responses at autonomic effector organs
B. Stimulation followed by depression or paralysis of all autonomic ganglia and skeletal
muscle
C. Stimulation with occasional subsequent depression of cholinergic receptor sites in the
CNS
D. All of these
E. None of these

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. Intoxication with an organophosphorus anti-cholinesterase agent can be treated with:
A. Atropine
B. Pralidoxime
C. Malathion
D. A and B
E. B and C

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This agent is used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.
A. Edrophonium
B. Atropine
C. Neostigmine
D. Pralidoxime
E. Acetylcholine

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All are standard anti-cholinesterase drugs used in the symptomatic treatment of myasthenia
gravis EXCPT:
A. Pyridostigmine
B. Neostigmine
C. Atropine
D. Ambenonium
E. Edrophonium

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Mechanism of action of indirect acting sympathomimetics drugs:
A. Agents act directly on one or more of the adrenergic receptors thereby producing an
effect
B. Increase the availability of norepinephrine (NE) or epinephrine (Epi) to stimulate
adrenergic receptors
C. Releasing or displacing NE from sympathetic nerve varicosities
D. A and B
E. B and C

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Metabolic precursor of NE and EPI and is also a neutransmitter particularly important in the regulation movement. A. Dopamine B. Serotonin C. Oxytocin D. Norepinephrine E. Noradrenaline

These drugs play a major role only in the treatment of bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma (reversible airway obstruction) or chorionic obstructive pulmonary disease(COPD)’ A. Beta 1 adrenergic agonist B. Beta 2 adrenergic agonist C. Beta 1 adrenergic antagonist D. Beta 2 adrenergic antagonist E. Non-selective beta agonist

Potent non-selective beta receptor agonist with very low affinity for alpha receptors A. Ipratropium B. Terbutaline C. Isoproterenol D. Prazosin E. Phenylephrine

This sympathomimetic drug is indicated for the short term treatment of cardiac decomperisation post cardiac surgery or in patients with congestive heart failure or acute myocardial infraction. A. Dobutamine B. Isoproterenol C. Metaproterenol D. Albuterol E. Isoetharine

Selective beta 2 agonist originally developed as a uterine relaxant. A. Terbutaline B. Ritodrine C. Oxytocin D. Prazosin E. Salmeterol

Life-threatening condition characterized by inadequate perfusion of tissues, hypotension and ultimately failure of organ systems. A. Coma B. Shock C. Arrhythmia D. Heart Failure E. Kidney Failure

. Structurally related to amphetamine, this drug is a mild CNS stimulant with more prominenteffects on mental than on motor activities. This drug is also effective in the treatment of narcolepsy and ADHD. A. Methamphetamine B. Ephedrine C. Clonidine D. Methylphenidate E. Phenobarbital

Classified as alpha 2 selective antagonist. A. Phenoxybenzamine B. Prazosin C. Yohimbine D. Nadolol E. Metoprolol

Classified as beta 1 selective antagonist. A. Phenoxybenzamine B. Prazosin C. Yohimbine D. Nadolol E. Metoprolol

Used in the treatment of pheochromocytoma tumor of the adrenal medulla and sympathetic neurons that secretes enormous quantities of catecholamines. A. Phenoxybenzamine B. Epinephrine C. Metoprolol D. Dopamine E. Isoxuprine

Which of the following is NOT correct? A. Alpha agonist cause miosis B. Alpha agonist cause vasoconstriction C. Beta antagonist decrease the formation of aqueous humor D. Beta 2 agonist cause bronchodilation E. Beta 3 agonist cause lipolysis

Beta 2 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects EXCEPT: A. Stimulation of renin secretion B. Fall of potassium concentration is plasma C. Relaxation of bladder uterus D. Uterine muscle contraction E. Skeletal muscle relaxation

Which of the following effects is associated with beta 3-receptor stimulation? A. Lipolysis B. Decrease in platelet aggregation C. Bronchodilation D. Tachycardia E. Pilomotor smooth muscle contraction

Which of the following hypnotic drug is benzodiazepine derivative? A. Zolpidem B. Flurazepam C. Secobarbital D. Ramelteon E. Buspirone

Which of the following hypnotic drug increase the activity of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzyme systems? A. Phenobarbital B. Zolpidem C. Flurazepam D. Secobarbital E. Ramelteon

Which of the following is the mechanism of Barbiturates action? A. Increasing the duration of the GABA-gated Cl-channel openings B. Directly activating the chloride channel C. Increasing the frequency of Cl-channel openings events. D. Antagonist at benzodiazepine bindings sites on the GABA receptor E. Partial agonist at 5-HT receptor but also affinity for D2 receptor

The usual cause of adverse effect/death due to overdose of hypnoticis due to: A. Depression of the CNS B. Heart attack C. Hypothemia D. Cerebral edema E. Status epilepticus

Which of the following antiseizure drugs produces a voltage-dependent inactivation of sodium channels? I. Phenytoin II. Carbamazepine III. Vigabatrin IV. Gabapentin A. I only B. I and II C. II and IV D. IV only

Mechanism of action of Phenytoin? A. Block high-frequency firing of neurons through action on voltage-gated Na channel B. It binds to an allosteric regulatory site on the GABA-BZ receptor and prolongs the opening of the Cl-channel C. It effects on the Ca currents, reducing the low-threshold (T-type) current D. It inhibits GABA-transaminase, which catalyzes the breakdown of GABA E. Decreases the excitatory transmission by acting on the VG Ca channels presynaptically

The pathophysiologic basis for antiparkinsonism therapy is: A. The loss of dopaminergic neurons B. The loss of some cholinergic neurons C. The loss of the GABAergic cells D. The loss of glutaminergic neurons E. Abnormal firing of neurons from the CNS

Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of parkinsonian disorders? A. Phenytoin B. Selegeline C. Haloperidol D. Fluoxetine E. Aspirin

The mechanism of action of carbidopa is: A. Stimulating the synthesis release, Or reuptake of dopamine B. Inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase enzyme C. Stimulating dopamine receptors D. Inhibition of COMT E. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor

Which of the following statements is correct? A. MAO-A metabolizes dopamine MAO-B metabolizes serotonin B. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine, MAO-B metabolizes serotonin C. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin, MAO-B metabolizes dopamine D. MAO-A metabolizes dopamine, MAO-B metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin E. MAO-A metabolizes metabolizes dopamine, MAO-B metabolizes epinephrine

A catechol O-methyl transferase inhibitor, which prolongs the action of levodopa by diminishing its peripheral metabolism: A. Carbidopa B. Clozapine C. Tolcapone D. Rasagiline E. Selegiline

Mu receptors are associated with: A. Supraspinal and spinal analgesia sedation respiratory depression and slowed GI transit B. Spinal analgesia, mydriasis sedation physical dependence C. Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor stimulation D. Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical dependence E. CNS stimulation and respiratory stimulation

Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist? A. Morphine B. Pentazocine C. Buprenorphine D. Naloxone E. Propoxyphene

Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors? A. Meperidine B. Buprenorphine C. Naloxone D. Butorphanol E. Morphine

The diagnostic triad of opioid overdosage is: A. Mydriasis, coma and hyperventilation B. Coma, depressed respiration and miosis C. Mydriasis, chills and abdominal crampd D. Miosis, tremor and vomiting E. Mydriasis, diarrhea, increase urination

Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative? A. Phenylbutazone B. Ketamine C. Aspirin D. Tramadol E. Diclofenac

Correct statements concerning aspirin include all of the following except: A. Irreversibly inhibits platelet COX B. Main adverse effects at antithrombotic doses are gastric upset (intolerance) and gastric and duodenal ulcers C. It inhibits platelet aggregation D. Safe to use in patients with hemophilia E. Epidemiologic studies suggest that long term use of aspirin at low dosage is associated with a lower incidence of colon cancer

A drug that inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, it also reduces cholesterol synthesis and up regulate low density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on hepatocytes A. Fenofibrates B. Colestipol C. Ezetimibe D. Atorvastatin E. Niacin

A vasodilator that also inhibits plates function by inhibiting adenosine uptake and cGMP phosphodiesterase activity. A. Dypiridamine B. Abciximab C. Clostazol D. Anistreplase E. Streptokinase

The mathematical product of peripheral vascular resistance(PVR) and cardiac output(CO). A. Hypertension B. Blood Pressure C. Hypotension D. Vascular pressure E. Afterload

Recommendation on dietary approaches to stop hypertension (DASH). A. High intake of fruits B. Low fats dairy products along with reduced content of dietary cholesterol saturated fat and total fat C. The diet is rich on potassium and calcium and low in sodium D. High intake of vegetables E. All of these

Recommend Blood Pressure targets for patient with heart failure A. <150 / <90 B. <140 / <90 C. <140 / <80 D. <160 / <90 E. <130 / <80

Increase the excretion of Na, CI and H20 by inhibiting Na/Cr ion exchange in the early part of the distal tubule: A. Thiazide diuretics B. Loop diuretic C. Potassium Sparring diuretics D. Aldosterone Antagonists E. Osmotic diuretics

Drug that antagonize angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor subtype, which decrease systemic vascular resistance. A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Metoprolol D. Captopril E. Losartan

Reduce both resting and exercise heart rate, cardiac output and both systolic and diastolic blood pressure A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Metoprolol D. Captopril E. Losartan

Block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II by interfering with angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) activity A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Metoprolol D. Captopril E. Losartan

A condition of chronic excess total body iron caused either by an inherited abnormality of iron, Absorption or by frequent transfusion to treat certain types of hemolytic disorders. A. Hemochromatosis B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Microcytic anemia D. Neutropenia E. Pernicious anemia

A Deficiency in serum hemoglobin and erythrocytes in which the erythrocytes are abnormally large results from either folate or vitamin B deficiency A. Hemochromatosis B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Microcytic anemia D. Neutropenia E. Pernicious anemia

A deficiency in serum hemoglobin and erythrocytes in which the erythrocytes are abnormally small often caused by iron deficiency A. Hemochromatosis B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Microcytic anemia D. Neutropenia E. Pernicious anemia

An abnormally low number of neutrophils in the blood patients with this condition are susceptible to serious infection A. Hemochromatosis B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Microcytic anemia D. Neutropenia E. Pernicious anemia

A form of megaloblastic anemia resulting from deficiency of intrinsic factor, a protein produced by gastric mucosal cell and required for intestinal absorption of vitamin B A. Hemochromatosis B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Microcytic anemia D. Neutropenia E. Pernicious anemia

Required for biosynthesis of heme and heme-containing proteins, including hemoglobin and myoglobin A. Deferoxamine B. Vitamin B12 C. Folic Acid D. Ferrous sulfate E. Filgrastim

Stimulates G-CSF receptors expressed on mature neutrophils and their progenitors for the treatment of neutropenia A. Deferoxamine B. Vitamin B12 C. Folic acid D. Ferrous sulfate’ E. Filgrastim

An endogenous anticlotting protein that irreversibly inactivates thrombin and factor Xa. Its enzymatic action is markedly accelerated by the heparins A. Antithrombin III B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa C. Clotting cascade D. Prothrombin E. A and B

A protein complex on the surface of platelets. When activated it aggregates platelets primarily by binding to fibrin. A. Antithrombin III B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa C. Clotting cascade D. Prothrombin E. A and C

Laboratory test used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of unfractionated heparin and direct thrombin inhibitors; prolonged when drug effect is adequate A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aptt) test B. Clotting cascade C. Prothrombin time (PT) test D. Platelet test E. Coagulase test

74. Laboratory test used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of warfarin; prolonged when drug effect is adequate A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aptt) test B. Clotting cascade C. Prothrombin time (PT) test D. Platelet test E. Coagulase test

75. Which of the following are classified as thrombolytic agents? I. Streptokinase II. Warfarin III. T-PA derivatives IV. Heparins A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. II and IV E. IV only

What is the bactericidal concentration of ethanol and isopropanol by volume in water? A.) 60-90 % B.) 30-50% C.) 70-99% D.) 80-100% E.) 10-20%

It is a destructive or marked reduction in number of activity of microorganism. A.) antisepsis B.) decontamination C.) disinfection E.) pasteurization

It contains 2% iodine and 2.4% Nal in alcohol and is the most active antiseptic for intact skin. A.) iodophors B.) povidone iodine C.) tincture of iodine USP D.) iodine solution E.) both A and B

A phenolic disinfectant that causes cerebral edema and convulsions in premature infants. A.) O-phenylphenol B.) P-Amylphenol C.) O-benzyl-P-Chlorophenol D.) Heptachlorophene E.) Hexachlorophene

The following has an excellen efficacy on infection caused by Pneumocystic jiroveci pneumonia, except A.) Penicillin B.) Dapsone C.)Atrovaquone D.) Trimetoprim-sulfamethoxazole E.) None of these

First line drug in treating early stage of infection caused by West African trypanosomiasis. A.) Pentamidine B.) Melasoprol C.) Metronidazole D.) Iodoquinol E.) Tetracycline

It inhibits topoisomerase II and has a side effect of alopecia and elosuppression. A.) Irinotecan B.) Etoposide C.)Pacltaxel D.) Vinblastine E.) Vincristine

The FDA approved a novel, oral and highly selective small molecule inhibitor of BRAFV600E last August 2011 and has a highly promising activity in metastatic melanoma. What drug is this? A.) Lomustine B.) Camustine C.) Cyslophosphamide D.) Vemurafenib E.) Etoposide

It is an immunosuppressant macrolide antibiotic produced by Stretomyces tsukabaensis. A.) Cyclosporine B.) Tacrolimus C.) Temsirolimus D.) cycloserine E.) Sirolimus

What class of gastrointestinal drugs are most effective agents for the treatment of non-erosive and erosive reflux disease and extra-esophageal manifestations of reflux disease? A.) NSAID B.) H2 receptor antagonist C.) Proton pump inhibitor D.) Prostaglandin analogs E.) H2 receptor antagonist

The ff. are common preparations of natural plant products which are bulk forming laxatives except. A.) Psyllium B.) Methylcellulose C.) Polycarbophil D.) A and B E.) None of these

) It is the most commonly used osmotic laxative and should not be used for prolonged periods for patient with renal insufficiency due to the risk of hypermagnesemia. A.) Magnesium hydroxide B.) Milk of magnesia C.) Furosemide D.) A and B E.) Mannitol

It is effective in reducing nocturnal acid but is less effective against stimulated secretion. A.) H2 receptor antagonist B.) PPI C.) Sucralfate D.) Laxative E.) Diuretic

Ondasetron and Granisetron block which receptor site. A.) 5HT3 B.) 5HT1A C.) 5HT1B D.) 5HT1c E.) 5HT4

These are examples of amides: I. Lidocaine II. Bupivacaine III. Cocaine IV. Prilocaine A.) I and II B.) I, II and III C.) I, II and IV D.) II, III and IV E.) I, II, III and IV

C | Cocaine is an ESTER

High plasma concentrations of local anesthetics result from rapid absorption, thus causing; I. Sedation II. Light headedness III. Auditory disturbances IV. Restlessness A.) I and II B.) I, II and III C.) I, II and IV D.) I and IV E.) I, II, III and IV

Selective Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor include; I. Venlafaxine II. Sertraline III. Duloxetine IV. Citalopram A.) I only B.) I, II and III C.) I, II and IV D.) I and III E.) II and III

(no answer yet)

Which pair is a mismatch? I. Butyrophenone-Haloperidol II. Atypical antipsychotics-Clozapine III. Thioxanthene-Thiothixene IV. Phenothazine-Chlorpromazine A.) I only B.) II only C.) III only D.) IV only E.) None of these

(no answer yet)

Which of the following is NOT true about opiods? I. Opioids analgesics may prolong labor II. Opioids contract biliary smooth muscle III. Opioids analgesics stimulates release of ADH, Prolactin and somatropin IV. Opioids causes mydriasis A.) I, II, III and IV B.) IV only C.) III only D.) I only E.) II only

Which of the following is a mismatch? I. Factor I- Fibrinogen II.Factor XIII-Fibrin-stabilizing factor III. Factor XII- Prothrombin IV. Factor X- Stuart power factor A.) III only B.) IV only C.) I and II D.) II, III and IV E.) I, II, III and IV

A | Factor II - Prothrombin

The deficiency of factor IX can cause hemophilia B and Christmas disease. Hemophilia A is also known as Christmas Disease. A.) Only the 1st statement is correct B.) Only the 2nd statement is correct C.) Both statements are correct D.) Both statements are wrong

The following are non-selective COX inhibitor, EXCEPT: I. Diclofenac II. Celecoxib III. Meloxicam IV. Ibuprofen A.) I and II B.) II and III C.) III and IV D.) I and IV E.) IV only

B | Celecoxib & Meloxicam are selective COX 2 inhibitor

It is a peptide antibiotic and is considered as a non-biologic DMARD. A.) Cycloserine B.)Cyclosporine C.) Chloroquine D.) Abatacept E.) Azathioprine

It is the active metabolite of phenacetin I. Acetaminophen II. N-acetyl-p-aminophenol III. N-acetylcysteine IV. ASA A.) IV only B.) I only C.) I and II D.) III only E.) I, II, III and IV

It is the most common form of hyperthyroidism A.) Myxedema B.) Subacute thyroiditis C.) Ophthalmopathy D.) Grave’s disease E.) None of these

This is the sudden acute exacerbation of all of the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis presenting as a life threatening syndrome. I. Myxedema coma II. Grave’s disease III. Thyroid Storm IV. Thyrotoxic crisis A.) I only D.) I and II B.) II only E.) III and IV C.) III only

A syndrome of thyroid enlargement without excessive thyroid hormone production A.) Non-toxic goiter B.) Thyroid neoplasms C.) Neonatal Grave’s disease D.) Myxedema coma E.) Thyroidiis

What is the route of administration of methyltestosterone? I. IM II. IV III. Oral IV. Transdermal A.) I and II D.) III only B.) III and IV E.) None of these C.) I only

It is a chemotherapeutic drug which is a folic acid analog that binds with high affinity to the active catalytic site of dihydrofolate reductase: A.) Cisplatin B.) Dacarbazine C.) Methotrexate D.) Vincristine E.) Gemcitabine

The combination of these the most effective regimen for H. Pylori associated ulcers; I. Antibiotic II. PPI III. H2 receptor blocker IV. Prostaglandin analogs A.) Antibiotic and PPI B.) PPI and H2 receptor blocker C.) H2 receptor blocker and prostaglandin analogs D.) Antibiotic and H2 receptor blocker E.) Antibiotic and prostaglandin analogs

This is the main form of leukemia in childhood, and it is the most common form of cancer in children. A.) Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia B.) Acute Myelogenous C.) Hodgkin’s Leukemia D.) Non-Hodgkin’s Leukemia E.) None of theses

It is the most common leukemia in adults A.) Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia B.) Acute Myelogenous Leukemia C.) Hodgkin’s Leukemia D.) Non-Hodgkin’s Leukemia E.) None of these

The hallmark of this type of diabetes is selective beta cell destruction and severe or absolute insulin deficiency A.) Type 1 B.) Type 2 C.) Type 3 D.) Type 4 E.) All of these

What type of organ transplant rejection occurs within hours and cannot be stopped with immunosuppressive dugs and occurs due to performed antibodies against the donor organ A.) Acute B.) Accelerated C.) Hyperacute D.) Chronic E.) superficia

Its generic name is imiquimod and it is used in the treatment of external genital and perianal warts in adults. Available as 5% cream. A.) Protopic B.) Aldara C.) Elidel D.) Zovirax E.) Denavir

Podophyllium resin, an alcoholic extract of mandrake root or May apple is used in the treatment of A.) Condyloma acuminatum B.) Psoriasis C.) Photophobia D.) Lichen simplex Chronicus E.) Cushing’s syndrome

This vitamin enhance the extracerebral metabolism of levodopa A.) Vitamin A B.) Vitamin B9 C.) Vitamin B6 D.) Vitamin E E.) Vitamin D

A combination of levodopa and MAOA inhibitors could lead to this condition: A.) Hypertensive crisis B.) Alopecia C.) Memory loss D.) Hyperactivity E.) GI bleeding

A catechol-o-methyltransferase inhibitor A.) Seleginine B.) Entacapone C.) Pergolide D.) Ropinirole E.) Rotigotine

Which of the following is an example of piperidine type of phenothiazines? I. Thioridazine II. Piperacetazine III. Mesoridazine IV.) Carphenazine A.) I and II B.) III and IV C.) I, II and III D.) II, III and IV E.) I, II, III and IV

This is also known as manic-depressive illness A.) Anxiety B.) Bipolar Disorder C.) Obstructive-Compulsive disorder D.) ADHD E.) None of these

PGE1 analog used as treatment and prophylaxis of NSAID-induced gastric ulcer and is also an abortifacient drug A.) Alprostadil B.) Misoprostol C.) Dinoprostol D.) Epoprostenol E.) Prostin E2asth

PGE1 analog used to treat erectile dysfunction: A.) Alprostadil B.) Misoprostol C.) Dinoprostone D.) Epoprostenol E.) Prostin E2

) Drug for the treatment of gout which blocks xanthine oxidase thereby decreasing the production of uric acid: A.) Indomethacin B.) Colchicine C.) Allopurinol D.) Febuxosat E.) C and D

Drug for gout which increases excretion of uric acid (inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in the proximal tubule): A.) Indomethacin B.) Colchicine C.) Allopurinol D.) Febuxosat E.) Probenecid

Drug for the treatment of gout that disrupts the inflammatory cycle, which inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis of uric acid crystals: A.) Indomethacin B.) Colchicine C.) Allopurinol D.) Febuxosat E.) Probenecid

NSAID that inhibits COX enzyme thereby reducing the production of protaglandins. May cause cholestatic hepatitis, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. A.) Indomethacin B.) Colchicine C.) Allopurinol D.) Febuxosat E.) Probenecid

Medium to large vessel vasculitis seen in children; symptoms include conjunctivitis, rash, erythema of the palms and soles, aneurysms, and strawberry tongue: A.) Aplastic anemia B.) Erythema Nodosum Leprosum C.) Kawasaki Disease D.) hirsutism E.) Malignant Osteoporosis

Painful erythematous subcutaneous nodules seen in patients with a high level of mycobacterial antigens. A.) Aplastic anemia B.) Erythema Nodosum Leprosum C.) Kawasaki Disease D.) hirsutism E.) Malignant Osteoporosis

Which of the following drugs listed below are classified as immunostimulants? I. Filgastrim II. Cyclosperine III. Aldesleukin IV. Interferon alfacon-1 V. Prednisone A.) I, II and III B.) I, III and IV C.) II, III and IV D.) II and V E.) II and III

Which of the following drugs listed below are classified as immunosuppresants? I. Filgastrim II. Cyclosperine III. Aldesleukin IV. Interferon alfacon-1 V. Prednisone A.) I, II and III D.) II and V B.) I, III and IV E.) II and III C.) II, III and IV

Immunosuppresant drug that binds to F-binding protein and forms a complex that inhibits calcineurin. A.) Tacrolimus B.) Methotrexate C.) Thalidomide D.) Azithromycin E.) Cyclophosphamide

Chemotherapeutic drug that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, blocking synthesis of nucleoside phosphates inhibiting DNA synthesis A.) Tacrolimus B.) Methotrexate C.) Thalidomide D.) Azithromycin E.) Cyclophosphamide

Drug that inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis via cross-linking of these molecules. Used as chemotherapy for solid tumor malignancies A.) Tacrolimus B.) Methotrexate C.) Thalidomide D.) AzithTUBER E.) Cyclophosphamide

A syndrome characterized by polyuria, and hypernatremia and is caused by inadequate production of vasopressin A.) Acromegaly B.) Central diabetes insipidus C.) Gigantism D.) Prolactenoma E.) Aplastic anemia

A rare syndrome of growth hormone (GH) excess in adults characterized by abnormal growth of tissues (particularly connective tissue), metabolic abnormalities, and cardiac dysfunction A.) Acromegaly B.) Central diabetes insipidus C.) Gigantism D.) Prolactenoma E.) Aplastic anemia

A syndrome of GH excess in children and adolescents with open long bone epiphyses that results in excessive height A.) Acromegaly B.) Central diabetes insipidus C.) Gigantism D.) Prolactenoma E.) Aplastic anemia

)Pituitary tumor that secretes excessive amounts of prolactin and is associated with a syndrome of infertility and galactorrhea A.) Acromegaly B.) Central diabetes insipidus C.) Gigantism D.) Prolactenoma E.) Aplastic anemia

Somatostatin receptor agonist used in the treatment of acromegaly and several other hormone secreting tumors A.) Ocreotide B.) Pegvisomant C.) Somatostatin D.) Leuprolide E.) Bromocriptine

Dopamine D2 receptor agonist used in the treatment of Hyperprolactinemia and Parkinson’s disease A.) Ocreotide B.) Pegvisomant C.) Somatostatin D.) Leuprolide E.) Bromocriptine

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogs for ovarian suppression: A.) Ocreotide B.) Pegvisomant C.) Somatostatin D.) Leuprolide E.) Bromocriptine

Antagonist of vasopressin V1a and V2 receptors used as a treatment of hypotension in hospitalized patients: A.) Desmopressin B.) Conivaptan C.) Atosiban D.) Oxytocin E.) Ganirelix

Agonist of vasopressin V2 receptors for the treatment of pituitary diabetes insipidus: A.) Desmopressin B.) Conivaptan C.) Atosiban D.) Oxytocin E.) Ganirelix

Antagonist of oxytocin receptor: A.) Desmopressin B.) Conivaptan C.) Atosiban D.) Oxytocin E.) Ganirelix

Protein synthesized in the liver that transports thyroid hormone in the blood A.) Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) B.) Thyroglobulin C.) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) D.) Thyroid hormone E.) Thyroxine

A protein synthesized in the tyrosine residues are used to synthesize thyroid hormones: A.) Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) B.) Thyroglobulin C.) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) D.) Thyroid hormone E.) Thyroxine

The anterior pituitary hormone that regulates thyroid gland growth, uptake of iodine and synthesis of thyroid hormone: A.) Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) B.) Thyroglobulin C.) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) D.) Thyroid hormone E.) Thyroxine

Which of the following listed below are key features of hypothyroidism? I. Sensation of being cold II. Reduced appetite III. Weight loss IV. Tachycardia V. Drooping of eyelids A.) I, II and III D.) II and III B.) I, II and IV E.) III and IV C.) I, II and V

Which of following listed below are key features of thyrotoxicosis? I. Sensation of being cold II. Reduced appetite III. Weight loss IV. Tachycardia V. Drooping of eyelids A.) I, II and III D.) II and III B.) I, II and IV E.) III and IV C.) I, II and V

Drug that inhibits thyroid peroxidase reactions, iodine organification, and peripheral conversion of T4 to T3: A.) Methimazole B.) Propanolol C.) Lugol’s solution D.) Potassium iodide E.) Levothyroxine

Inhibition of beta receptor and inhibition of T4 to T3. Used in the management of thyroid storm. A.) Methimazole B.) Propanolol C.) Lugol’s solution D.) Potassium iodide E.) Levothyroxine

Partial or complete loss of adrenocortical function, including loss of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function A.) Addison’s disease B.) Adrenal suppression C.) Cushing’s syndrome D.) Phenochromocytoma E.) Adrenocorticoids

A metabolic disorder caused by excess secretion of adrenocorticoid steroids, which is most commonly due to increased amounts of ACTH A.) Addison’s disease B.) Adrenal suppression C.) Cushing’s syndrome D.) Phenochromocytoma E.) Adrenocorticoids

Strong against at mineralocorticoid receptors and moderate activation of glucocorticoid receptors. Used to manage adrenal insufficiency in Addison’s disease A.) Prednisone B.) Fludrocortisone C.) Mifepristone D.) Spironolactone E.) Ketoconazole

Pharmacologic antagonist of mineralocorticoid receptor and weak antagonist of androgen receptors. May cause gynecomastia. A.) Prednisone B.) Fludrocortisone C.) Mifepristone D.) Spironolactone E.) Ketoconazole

All of the following are true about CNS drugs, EXCEPT: I. Water solubility is an important characteristics of most CNS drugs II. CNS drugs readily cross the placental barrier and enter the fetal circulation III. Almost all CNS drugs require metabolism to more water soluble form to their elimination A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II E. II and III

Which of the following drugs are classified as benzodiazepine? I. Alprazolam II. Clonazepam III. Diazepam IV. Thiopental V. Phenobarbital A. I, II, and III B. II, III, and IV C. IV and V D. I and II E. II and V

. Which of the following drugs are classified as barbiturates? I. Alprazolam II. Clonazepam III. Diazepam IV. Thiopental V. Phenobarbital A. I, II and III B. II, III, and IV C. IV and V D. I and II E. II and V

Binds to GabaA receptor subunits to facilitate chloride channel opening and increase frequency A. Benzodiazepines B. Barbiturates C. TCA D. Antipyschotics E. Seizures

Binds to GabaA receptor (distinct to benzodiazepines) subunits to facilitate chloride channel opening and increase duration A. Benzodiazepines B. Barbiturates C. TCA D. Antipyschotics E. Seizures

Antagonist at benzodiazepines sites on GABAa receptor A. Ramelteon B. Buspirone C. Secobarbital D. Flumazenil E. Phenytoin

Activates MT1 and MT2 receptors in suprachiasmatic nucleus used for the treatment of sleep disorder. A. Ramelteon B. Buspirone C. Secobarbital D. Flumazenil E. Phenytoin

Partial agonist at 5-HT receptors and possibly D2 receptors used for generalized anxiety states: A. Ramelteon B. Buspirone C. Secobarbital D. Flumazenil E. Phenytoin

NAD+ - dependent enzymes, found in liver and gut which accounts for the metabolism of low to moderate doses of ethanol.

A. Alcohol dehydrogenase B. Microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system C. Monoamine oxidase D. Aldehyde dehydrogenase E. Catechol-o-methyltransferase

Severe form of alcohol withdrawal whose main symptoms are sweating, tremor, confusion and hallucinations A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome B. Delirium tremens C. Fetal alcohol syndrome D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome E. Acute alcohol toxicity

A syndrome of craniofacial dysmorphia, heart defects and mental retardation caused by teratogenic effects of ethanol consumption during pregnancy. A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome B. Delirium tremens C. Fetal alcohol syndrome D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome E. Acute alcohol toxicity

The characteristic syndrome of insomnia, tremor, agitation, seizures and autonomic instability engendered by deprivation in an individual who is physical dependent on ethanol: A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome B. Delirium tremens (dts) C. Fetal alcohol syndrome D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome E. Acute alcohol toxicity

(NO ANSWER YET)

A syndrome of ataxia, confusion, and paralysis of the extraocular muscles that is associated with chronic alcoholism and thiamine deficiency. A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome B. Delirium tremens (dts) C. Fetal alcohol syndrome D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome E. Acute alcohol toxicity

the most common medical complication of chronic alcohol abuse: A. Hypertension B. Diabetes C. Lung disease D. Liver disease E. Cancer

NMDA glutamate receptor antagonist that is also US-FDA approved for treatment of alcoholism. A. Naltrexone B. Acomprosate C. Disulfiram D. Methanol E. Ethylene glycol

. Aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor used adjunctively in some treatment program for alcoholics. If ethanol is consumed by a patient who has take this drug, acetaldehyde accumulation leads to nausea, headache, flushing and hypotension: A. Naltrexone B. Acomprosate C. Disulfiram D. Methanol E. Ethylene glycol

Poisoning of this substance result in toxic levels of formate, which causes characteristic visual disturbance plus coma, seizures, acidosis, and death due to respiratory failure. A. Ethanol B. Methanol C. Ethylene glycol D. Diazepam E. Thiamine

BDZ receptor agonist that facilitates GABA-mediated activation of GABA, receptors used in the prevention and treatment of acute ethanol withdrawal syndrome: A. Ethanol B. Methanol C. Ethylene glycol D. Diazepam E. Thiamine

Vitamin administered to patients suspected of alcohol dependence to prevent the Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome: A. Ascorbic acid B. Riboflavin C. Thiamine D. Folic acid E. Niacin

Nonselective competitive antagonist of opioid receptors used to reduced risk of relapse in individuals with alcohol-use disorder: A. Acomprosate B. Disulfiram C. Fomepizole D. Ethanol E. Naltrexone

Inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase and prevents conversion of methanol and ethylene glycol to toxic metabolites. Used as an antidote for methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning: A. Acomprosate B. Disulfiram C. Fomepizole D. Ethanol E. Naltrexone

. Tonic phase (less than 1 min) involves abrupt loss of consciousness, muscle rigidity and respiration arrest; clonic phase (2-3 min) involves jerking of body muscles, with lip or tongue biting, and fecal and urinary incontinence; formerly called grand mal A. Partial seizures, simple B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized C. Absence seizures, generalized D. Myoclonic seizures E. Status epilepticus

. Impaired consciousness (often abrupt onset and brief), sometimes with automatisms, loss of postural tone, or enuresis; begin in childhood (formerly, petit mal) and usually cease by age 20 years: A. Partial seizures, simple B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized C. Absence seizures, generalized D. Myoclonic seizures E. Status epilepticus

A series of seizures (usually tonicclonic) without recovery of consciousness between attacks; it is a life-threatening emergency: A. Partial seizures, simple B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized C. Absence seizures, generalized D. Myoclonic seizures E. Status epilepticus

Which of the following is not a mechanism of action of an antiseizure drug? I. Sodium channel blockade II. GABA- related mechanism III. Calcium channel blockade IV. Alpha receptor blockade A. I only B. II only C. III only D. IV only E. III and IV

. Which of the following is a preferred drug for the treatment of absence seizures? A. Phenytoin B. Carbamazepine C. Ethosuximide D. Diazepam E. Clonazepam

Stage if anesthesia where the patient has decreased awareness of pain, sometimes with amnesia. Consciousness may be impaired but is not lost. A. Stage 1: Analgesia B. Stage 2: Disinhibition C. Stage 3: Surgical anesthesia D. Stage 4: Medullary Depression E. Stage 5: delirium

Stage of anesthesia where the patient develops severe respiratory and cardiovascular depression that requires mechanical and pharmacologic support. A. Stage 1: Analgesia B. Stage 2: Disinhibition C. Stage 3: Surgical anesthesia D. Stage 4: Medullary Depression E. Stage 5: delirium

Stage of anesthesia where the patient appears to be delirious and excited. Amnesia occurs, reflexes are enhanced, and respiration is typically irregular, retching and incontinence may occur. A. Stage 1: Analgesia B. Stage 2: Disinhibition C. Stage 3: Surgical anesthesia D. Stage 4: Medullary Depression E. Stage 5: delirium

Anesthesia produced by a mixture of drugs, often including both inhaled and intravenous agents A. Maximum anesthesia B. Balanced anesthesia C. General anesthesia D. Inhalation anesthesia E. Optimal anesthesia

The alveolar concentration of an inhaled anesthetic that is required to prevent a response to a standardized painful stimulus in 50% of patients A. Maximum alveolar concentration B. Optimal anesthetic dose C. Minimum alveolar concentration D. Standard alveolar concentration E. Anesthetic alveolar concentration

2. Which of the following drugs listed below is classified as inhaled anesthetics? I. Halothane II. Thiopental III. Ketamine IV. Enflurane A. I and II B. II and III C. I and IV D. III and IV E. I and V

. Which of the following drugs listed below is classified as intravenous anesthetic? I. Halothane II. Thiopental III. Ketamine IV. Enflurane A. I and II B. II and III C. I and IV D. III and IV E. I and V

This drug produces a state of “dissociative anesthesia” in which the patient remains conscious but has marked catatonia, analgesia and amnesia. A. Midazolam B. Thiopental C. Ketamine D. Morphine E. Etomidate

Centrally acting α2-adrenergic agonist that has analgesic and hypnotic actions when used intravenously A. Phenylephrine B. Dexmetomidine C. Prazosin D. Clondine E. Minoxidil

Barbiturate that is used for the induction of anesthesia and for short surgical procedure A. Nitrous oxide B. Thiopental C. Halothane D. Midazolam E. Ketamine

Long acting ester local anesthethic A. Tetracaine B. Procaine C. Benzocaine D. Bupivacaine E. Lidocaine

All of the following are clinical use of local anesthetic, EXCEPT: A. Used for minor surgical procedures often in combination with vasoconstrictors such as epinephrine B. Used in spinal anesthesia and to produce autonomic blockade in ischemic conditions C. Slow epidural infusion at low concentrations has been used successfully for postoperative analgesia D. Oral and parenteral forms of local anesthetics are sometimes used adjunctively in neuropathic pain states E. Used as component of balance anesthesia

Neuromuscular paralysis that results from pharmacologic antagonism at the acetylcholine receptor of the end plate: A. Depolarizing blockade B. Nondepolarizing blockade C. Stabilizing blockade D. A or C E. B or C

Neuromuscular paralysis that results from persistent depolarization of the end plate: A. Depolarizing blockade B. Nondepolarizing blockade C. Stabilizing blockade A. A or C B. B or C

Which of the following drug can reverse the blockade brought about by nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers: A. Neostigmine B. Succinylcholine C. Tubocurarine D. Atropine E. Acetylcholine

Which of the following drugs can be used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia? A. Tubocurarine B. Baclofen C. Cyclobenzapine D. Dantrolene E. Diazepam

Which of the following listed bellows are signs of Parkinsonism? I. Rigidity of skeletal muscle II. Akinesia III. Flat facies IV. Tremor at rest A. I and II B. II and III C. III and IV D. I, II, and III E. All of these

A progressive neurologic disease characterized by shuffling gait, stooped posture, resting tremor, speech impediments, movement difficulties, and an eventual slowing of mental processes and dementia: A. Parkinsonism B. Huntington disease C. Tourette’s syndrome D. Wilson’s disease E. Athetosis

An inherited adult-onset neurologic disease characterized by dementia and bizarre involuntary movements: A. Parkinsonism B. Huntington disease C. Tourette’s syndrome D. Wilson’s disease E. Athetosis

A neurologic disease of unknown cause that presents with multiple tics associated with snorting, sniffing, and involuntary vocalizations A. Parkinsonism B. Huntington disease C. Tourette’s syndrome D. Wilson’s disease E. Athetosis

An inherited (autosomal recessive) disorder of copper accumulation in liver, brain, kidneys, and eyes; symptoms include jaundice, vomiting, tremors, muscle weakness, stiff movements, liver failure and dementia. A. Parkinsonism B. Huntington disease C. Tourette’s syndrome D. Wilson’s disease E. Athetosis

Strategies of drug treatment of parkinsonism involve which of the following: I. Increasing dopamine activity in the brain II. Decreasing muscarinic cholinergic activity III. Neuromuscular blockade IV. Increasing acetylcholine activity A. I only B. I and II C. II and III D. III only E. III and IV

Drug that does not cross the blood brain barrier but inhibits dopa decarboxylase in peripheral tissues used in combination with levodopa for the treatment of parkinsonism A. Reserpine B. Selegeline C. Carbidopa D. Pramipexole E. Ropinirole

Non ergot which as high affinity for Dopamine D3 receptor which is effective as monotherapy in mild parkinsonism and can be used together with levodopa in more advanced disease A. Reserpine B. Selegeline C. Carbidopa D. Pramipexole E. Ropinirole

Dummy medicine containing no active (or alternatively, a dummy surgical procedure, diet or other kind of therapeutic intervention), which the patient believes is (or could be, in the context of a controlled tiral) the real thing A. Prodrug B. Orphan drug C. Lead drug D. Placebo E. Experimental drug

. To avoid bias, clinical trials are performed using the following study design, EXCEPT: A. Un-blinded study B. Controlled C. Randomized D. Double blind E. B and C

A & C

Lethal dose for 50% of the population divided by effective dose for 50% of population is called: A. Meta-analysis B. Therapeutic range C. Therapeutic index D. Potency E. Efficacy

All of the following are true drug therapeutic index, EXCEPT: A. Unsatisfactory as a measure of drug safety B. Based on animal toxicity data, which may not reflect forms of toxicity or adverse reactions that are important clinically C. It takes no account of idiosyncratic toxic reactions D. Provide a measure of the margin of safety of a drug, by drawing attention to the relationship between the effective and toxic doses. E. None of these

Refers to an electric group of drugs that are used for non-medical purposes. It includes drugs of abuse, drugs used to enhance athletic or other performance, as well as those taken for cosmetic puposes or for purely social reasons A. Recreational drugs B. Non-medical drugs C. Prescriptiondrugs D. Lifestyle drugs E. Performance drugs

Which of the following belongs to medicines approved for specific indications but can also be used for other ‘lifestyle purpose? A. Orlistat B. Minoxidil C. Alcohol D. Caffeine E. Cannabis

Which of the following belongs to medicines approved for specific indications that can also be used to satisfy ‘lifestyle changes’ or to treat ‘lifestyle diseases’ A. Orlistat B. Minoxidil C. Alcohol D. Caffeine E. Cannabis

Used mainly to achieve rapid weight loss before weighing in and also to mask presence of other agents in urine by dilution A. Anabolic agents B. Hormones and related agents C. Diuretics D. Praziquantel E. Benzimidazoles

Anthelminthic drug that acts by inhibiting the polymerization of helminth βtubuli, thus interfering with microtubuledependent functions such as glucose uptake: A. Diethylcarbamazine B. Ivemectine C. Niclosamide D. Praziquantel E. Benzimidazoles

Anthelmintic drug acts by changing the parasite such that it becomes susceptible to the host’s normal immune response. It may also interfere with helminth arachidonate metabolism. A. Diethylcarbamazine B. Ivemectine C. Niclosamide D. Praziquantel E. Benzimidazoles

These class of fungal agents inhibit the fungal cytochrome P450 3A enzyme, lonosine 14α -demethylase, which is responsible for converting lanosterol to ergosterol, the main sterol in the fungal membrane: A. Echinocandins B. Amphotericin C. Flucytosine D. Azoles E. Griseofulvin

These class of fungal agents inhibit the synthesis of 1,3-β-glucan, a glucose polymer that is necessary for maintaining the structure of fungal cell walls. In the absence of this polymer, fungal cells lose integrity and lyse. A. Echinocandins B. Amphotericin C. Flucytosine D. Azoles E. Griseofulvin

Potential and actual clinical use/indications of cannabinoids antagonist include which of the following? I. Obesity II. Tobacco independence III. Drug addiction IV. Alcoholism V. Parkinson’s disease A. I and II B. I, II and III C. II, III and IV D. I, II, III and IV E. IV and V

. Potential and actual clinical uses/indications of cannabinoids agonists include which of the following? I. Neuropathic pain II. Glaucoma III. Drug addiction IV. Alcoholism V. Head injury A. I, II and IV B. I, II and V C. II, III, and IV D. II, IV, and V E. V only

. Primary autonomic mechanism for blood pressure homeostasis; involves sensory input from carotid sinus and aorta to the vasomotor center and output via the parasympathetic and sympathetic motor nerves: A. Stepped care B. Baroreceptor reflex C. Positive feedback D. Negative feedback E. RAAS

. Hypertension caused by a diagnosable abnormality, e.g, aortic coarctation, renal artery stenosis, adrenal tumor, etc. A. Primary hypertension B. Essential hypertension C. Secondary hypertension D. A or B E. A or C

An accelerated form of severe hypertension associated with rising blood pressure and rapidly progressing damage to vessels and end organs. Often signaled by renal damage, encephalopathy and retinal hemorrhages or by angina, stroke or MI. Also called malignant hypertension A. Hypertensive hypertension B. Essential hypertension C. Orthostatic hypertension D. Rebound hypertension E. Secondary hypertension

8.Elevated blood pressure (usually above pretreatment levels) resulting from loss of antihypertensive drug effect: A. Hypertensive emergency B. Essential hypertension C. Orthostatic hypertension D. Rebound hypertension E. Secondary hypertension

Important diuretic usually used in severe hypertension and hypertensive emergencies: A. Loop diuretics B. Thiazide diuretics C. Osmotic diuretics D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors E. ACE inhibitors

Blockade of calcium channels, release of nitric oxide, opening of potassium channels (which leads to hyperpolarization) and activation of D1 dopamine receptors are the major mechanism of action of what class of antihypertensive drugs? A. Diuretics B. Angiotensin antagonists C. Vasodilators D. Sympathoplegics E. ACE inhibitors

Newer drug in the antihypertensive group and inhibits renin’s action on its substrate, angiotensinogen. It reduces the formation of the angiotensin I and in consequence, angiotensin II. A. Captopril B. Losartan C. Aliskerin D. Enalapril E. Minoxidil

Industrial disease caused by chronic exposure to vasodilating concentrations of organic nitrates in the workplace, characterized by headache, dizziness and tachycardia on return to work after 2 days absence. A. Sunday disease B. Monday disease C. Angina D. Nitrate disease E. Worker’s disease

Rapidly progressing increase in frequency and severity of angina attacks; an acute coronary syndrome that often heralds imminent myocardial infarction. A. Classic angina B. Prinzmetal angina C. Angina of effort D. Atherosclerotic angina E. Unstable angina

Angina precipitated by reversible spasm of coronary vessels, often at rest: A. Classic angina B. Prinzmetal angina C. Angina of effort D. Atherosclerotic angina E. Unstable angina

Filling pressure of the heart, dependent on venous tone and blood volume; determines end-diastolic fiber length and tension A. Preload B. Afterload C. Intramyocardial fiber tension D. Myocardial revascularization E. Coronary pressure

Force excreted by myocardial fibers, especially ventricular fibers at any given time which also serves as a primary determinant of myocardial oxygen requirement. A.) Preload B.) Afterload C.) Intramyocardial fiber tension D.) Myocardial revascularization E.) Coronary pressure

Which of the following is the fundamental physiological defect seen on patients with heart failure? A.) Irregular heartbeat B.) Increase cardiac output C.) Decrease cardiac output D.) Tachycardia E.) Bradycardia

Cardiac glycoside were formerly considered as the 1st line drug in the treatment of heart failure. What is the mechanism of action of cardiac glycoside? A.) Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme B.) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase C.) Inhibition of renal sodium transporter D.) Inhibition of Na+/K+ ATPase E.) Proton pump inhibitor

Which of the following class of drug is not use in the treatment of heart failure? A.) ACE inhibitor B.) Phosphodiesterase inhibitor C.) Beta blockers D.) Vasodilators E.) Calcium channel blocker

Which of the following drug belongs to phosphodiesterase inhibitors? A.) Nitroglycerin D.) Losartan B.) Milrinone E.) Captopril C.) Furosemide

Hormone that stimulates insulin secretion and inhibit gastric secretion and motility A.) Gastrin D.) GIP B.) Secretin E.) Motilin C.) Cholecystokinin

Hormone that stimulates pancreatic ductal cell H2O and HCO2 secretion: A.) Gastrin D.) GIP B.) Secretin E.) Motilin

The drug block mast cell degradation by suppressing release of mediators of immediate bronchoconstriction (early response) and reducing eosinophil recruitment causing airway inflammation: A.) Albuterol D.) Cromolyn B.) IgE antibody E.) Theophylline C.) Theobromine

An acute or chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by presence of 1 or more areas pruritis (severe itching), erythema (redness), scaling (dry exfoliative shedding), macules (discoloration), papules (pimples) or vesicles (blister-like-sacs) A.) Alopecia D.) Scabies B.) Eczema E.) Urticaria C.) Psoriasis

The drugs can worsen psoriasis and should be avoided by the patients: I. Beta blockers II. Topical steroids III. Systemic steroids IV. Vit D analogs A.) I and II D.) III and IV B.) I and III E.) I and IV C.) II and IV

The mainstay of pharmacologic therapy for scabies is the use of topical scabicides. Example of topical scabicides includes which of the following? A.) Ivermectin D.) Permethrin B.) Tacrolimus C.) Dapsone E.) Sulfasalazine

) Deficiency of water soluble niacin (nicotinic acid) or its amide (nicotamide) will result in which of the following? A.) Ophthalmoplegia B.) Swollen, congested and bleeding gums C.) Cyanosis D.) Dietary deficiency or impairment absorption E.)Multiple perifollicular hemorrhages

Absorption of this vitamin is impaired by mineral oil, neomycin and cholestyramine. A.) Vit A D.) Vit D B.) Vit B E.) VIt E C.) Vit C

Carbenicillin, pipercillin and ticacillin display improved activity against gram(-) organisms and are usually used in combination with aminoglycosides in patients with febrile neutropenia and those with hard to treat nosocomial infections caused by strains of Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Citrobacter, Serratia, Bacteroides fragilis and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This drugs belongs to which class of antibiotic? A.) Aminopenicillin B.) Antipseudomonal penicillin C.) Beta lactamase inhibitor D.) Beta lactamase resistant penicillins E.) Cephalosporins

Clavulanate, sulbactam, tazobactam are Beta lactamase inhibitors and are used only in combination with Beta lactam antibiotic, which creates a product that has extended activity against Beta lactamaseproducing strains. Which of these beta lactamase inhibitors is usually used in combination with the anti bacterial drug Piperacillin? A.) Sulbactma D.) A or B B.) Clavulanate E.) B or C C.) Tazobactam

Common adverse effect experienced in Beta lactamase resistant penicillins: A.) Hepatoxicity B.) Maculopapular rash C.) Acute interstitial nephritis D.) Jarish-Herxheimer reaction E.) Bleeding, hyperkalemia and hypernatremia

Common adverse effect experienced in taking extended-spectrum penicillins (high doses) A.) Hepatoxicity B.) Maculopapular rash C.) Acute interstitial nephritis D.) Jarish-Herxheimer reaction E.) Bleeding, hyperkalemia and hypernatremia

Which of the following are the broadest spectrum Beta lactam antibiotics? A.) Penicillins D.) Aminoglycosides B.) Cephalosporins E.) Monobactam C.) Carbapenem

A monobactam antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis and is resistant to most Beta lactamase A.) Gentamicin B.) Tetracylcine C.) Climdamycin D.) Aztreonam E.) Vancomycim

A glycopeptide antibiotic that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to cell wall phospholipids and inhibiting polymerase and transpeptidation, which leads to cell wall lysis A.) Gentamicin B.) Tetracylcine C.) Climdamycin D.) Aztreonam E.) Vancomycim

Broad spectrum antibiotics that inhibit DNA gyrase or topoisomerase IV (essential for duplication, transcription and repair of bacterial DNA), target various aerobic gram(+) (eg, methicillin-resistant and beta lactamase producing staphylococcus species, S. Pneumonia) and gram(-) (eg, H. Influenzae, M. catarrhalis, P. Aeruginosa, Leigonella, Chlamydia) organisms A.) Tetracycline B.) Quinolones C.) Aminoglycosides D.) Sulfonamides E.) Cephalosporins

An oxazolidinone derivatives that binds to ribosomal subunits and interferes with bacterial protein synthesis. The drug is intended of multi drug resistant gram(+) cocci, particularly as an alternative in infections caused by vancomycin resistant Enterococcus, multi drug resistant S. Pneumonia (including vancomycinceftriaxone resistant) and MRSA or methicillin resistant S. Epidermis A.) Doxycycline D.) Ciprofoxacin B.) Linezolid E.) Sulfasalazine C.) Dalfopristin

A polyene antifungal agent that binds to ergosterol in fungal plasma membranes, interferes with membrane function and causes cell death A.) Amphotericin B D.) Caspofungin B.) Flucytosine E.) Ketoconazole C.) Griseofulvin

All of the followimg are true regarding combination chemotherapy, EXCEPT: A.) Provides higher and more durable response rates B.) Only agents with demonstrated activity as monotherapy agonist the specific type of tumor should be selected C.) All agents within the regimen should have same mechanisms of action (which often has additive or synergistic effects.) D.) To minimize unacceptable toxicity, agents should not have overlapping adverse effects E.) To optimize efficacy resistance, the optimal dose and schedule of drugs should be used

One of the oldest and most studied antineoplastic drug related to folic acid that acts by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase A.) Mecaptopurine B.) 5-Fluorouracil C.) Methotrexate D.) Cytarabine E.) Gemcitabine

Combination oral contraceptives contain both estrogen and progestin and prevent pregnancy through the following mechanism, EXCEPT A.)They inhibit ovulation via a negative feedback mechanism on the hypothalamus which alters the normal pattern of FSH and LH secretion by the anterior pituitary B.) Alteration of the tubal transport of the sperm, egg and fertilized ovum through the fallopian tubes. C.) Inducing an environment in the endometrium that is unfavourable for implantation D.) Changing the cervical mucus and rendering it unfavourable for sperm penetration even if ovulation occurs E.) Inhibition of binding of estrogen receptor that leads to a disruption in the negative feedback of estrogens on the hypothalamus and pituitary, a subsequent increases in secretion of GnRH and gonadotropins

Drug for parkinsonism that acts by binding to dopamine receptors and mimic the action of dopamine A.) Amantadine B.) Selegiline C.) Biperiden D.) Bromocriptine E.) Levedopa

Drug for parkinsonism that acts by increasing the dopamine release and reduces dopamine reuptake into dopaminergic nerve terminals of substantia nigra neurons A.) Amantadine B.) Selegiline C.) Biperiden D.) Bromocriptine E.) Levedopa

A neurodegenerative disorder characterized by progressive impairment of short term memory and other memory, language and thought processes A.) Parkinsonism D.) Alzheimer’s disease B.) Huntington disease E.) Stroke C.) Tourette syndrome

Which of the following class of drugs listed below is/are included in pharmacologic management options in alzheimer’s disease? I. Cholinesterase inhibitors II. Muscarinic agonist III. Beta blockers IV. Dopamine agonist A.) I only D.) I and III B.) I and II E.) II and IV C.) II and III

Primary treatment options for patients with hyperthyroidism induce which of the following? I. Thioamides II. Radioactive iodine III. Surgery IV. Adregenergic antagonists V. Iodides A.) I only D.) II, III and IV B.) I and II E.) IV and V C.) I, II and III

Adjunct to primary treatment options for patients with hyperthyroidism include which of the following? I. Thioamides II. Radioactive iodine III. Surgery IV. Adregenergic antagonists V. Iodides A.) I only D.) II, III and IV B.) I and II E.) IV and V C.) I, II and III

. Preffered treatment option for children, pregnant woman and young adults with uncomplicated Grave’s disease A.) Thioamides D.) Adrenergic antagonists B.) Radioactive iodine E.) Iodides C.) Surgery

This drug is used to treat Cushing syndrome when dose limiting side effects occurs with ketoconazole and it can be used in combination with other agents. It reduces cortisol production by inhibiting 11-Betahydroxylation, the final step in glucocorticoid synthesis A.) Metyrapone B.) Aminogluthetamide C.) Progesterone D.) Aldosterone E.) Estradiol

Oral antihyperlipidemic agents which is contraindicated with Type 1 DM, pregnancy or breast feeding, severe hepatic or renal dysfunctions and severe acute comorbidities or surgery A.) 1st gen sulfonylureas B.) 2nd gen sulfonylureas C.) Alpha glucosidase inhibitors D.) Biguanides E.) Meglitinides

Which of the following drugs is a meglitinide? I. Glimepiride II. Repaglinide III. Acarbose IV. Nateglinide A.) I only D.) I and III B.) I and II E.) II and IV C.) II and III

The historical mainstay therapy in type II DM, used as monotherapy or with insulin or other oral agents, act mainly by stimulating insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells, enhancing beta cell sensitivity to glucose and reducing glucagon release. They work only if beta cells are functioning A.) Thiazolidinediones B.) Meglitinides C.) Labetalol D.) Sulfonylureas E.) Biguanides

2nd gen sulfonylureas have greater potency, fewer drug interactions, and have better pharmacokinetic profiles compared to other class 1st gen sulfonylureas. Which of the following drugs listed below belongs to 2nd gen sulfonylureas? I. Glimipiride II. Tolbutamide III. Glipizide IV. Acetohexamide A.) I only D.) I and III B.) I and II E.) II and IV C.) II and III

The drug binds to Ach receptors and block Ach from binding to open cation channels, thus preventing depolarization A.) Physostigmine D.) Hemicholinium B.) Curare E.) Nifedipine C.) Succinylcholine

This drug block acetylcholinesterase from degrading acetylcholine to choline and acetate, thus prolonging the action of acetylcholine A.) Physostigmine D.) Hemicholinium B.) Curare E.) Nifedipine C.) Succinylcholine

This group of drugs elicit vasoconstriction and mydriasis and also used as nasal decongestants and in eye examination A.) B1-Adrenoceptor antagonists B.) B2-Adrenoceptor agonists C.) A1-Adrenoceptor antagonists D.)A1-Adreoceptor agonists E.) Mixed Alpha and Beta agonists

These drugs stimulate bronchodilation and used to treat asthma A.) B1-Adrenoceptor antagonists B.) B2-Adrenoceptor agonists C.) A1-Adrenoceptor antagonists D.)A1-Adreoceptor agonists E.) Mixed Alpha and Beta agonists

.Alpha antagonist (non selective, irreversible) drug used in the treatment of pheochromocytoma A.) Prazosin D.) Phenoxybenzamine B.) Propanolol E.) Yohimbine

Mixed alpha and beta antagonists drug used in hypertension during pregnancy A.) Prazosin D.) Phenoxybenzamine B.) Propanolol E.) Yohimbine C.) Labetalol

B-non selective antagonists drug indicated in the treatment of angina, hypertension, cardiac dysrhythmias, anxiety, tremor and glaucoma A.) Prazosin D.) Phenoxybenzamine B.) Propanolol E.) Yohimbine C.) Labetalol

Which adrenoceptor mediates relaxation of smooth muscle, increases glycogenolysis and increase heart rate and force? A.) Alpha 1 D.) Beta 2 B.) Alpha 2 E.) Dopamine 1 C.) Beta 1

Which of the following steps/processes in autonomic transmission is affected by the drug tranylcypromine? A.) Action potential prolongation B.) Transmitter synthesis C.) Enzymatic inactivation of transmitter D.) Transmitter storage E.) Receptor activation or blockade

Which of the following steps/processes in autonomic transmission is affected by the drug vesamicol and reserpine? A.) Action potential prolongation B.) Transmitter synthesis C.) Enzymatic inactivation of transmitter D.) Transmitter storage E.) Receptor activation or blockade

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the effects of cholinomimetic drug on major organ systems? I. Sphincter muscle of iris – constriction (mydriasis) II. Sinoatrial node – decreases in rate (negative chronotropy) III. Blood vessels – dilation via release of EDRF from endothelium IV. Skeletal muscle – activation of neuromuscular and plates, contraction A.) I only D.) I, III and IV B.) I, II, III E.) IV only C.) II, III, IV

A partial agonist at N receptor which is used for smoking cessation A.) Bethanecol D.) Neostigmine B.) Muscarine E.) Physostigmine C.) Varenicline

. Inhibitors of gastric H+, K+ -ATPase and considered as the most potent suppressors of gastric acid secretion A.) H2-receptor antagonists B.) Proton pump inhibitos C.) Antacids D.) Cytoprotectant E.) Bismuth compounds

Long term use of this H2-receptor antagonist at high doses decreases testosterone binding to the androgen receptor and inhibit CYP that hydroxylates estradiol. These effects can cause galactorrhea in women and gynecomastia, reduced sperm count and impotence in men A.) Famotidine D.) Ranitidine B.) Nizatidine E.) Cimetidine C.) Histamine

This drug inhibits the pepsin mediated hydrolysis of mucosal proteins that contributes to mucosal erosion and ulcerations A.) Misoprostol B.) Sucralfate C.) Rebapimide D.) Carbenoxolone E.) Lansoprazole

An octapeptide analog of somatostatin that is effective in inhibiting the severe secretory diarrhea brought about by hormone secreting tumors of pancreas and the GI tract. Its mechanism of action appears to involve inhibition of hormone secretion, including serotonin and various other GI peptides A.) Odansetron B.) Dronabinol C.) Hyoscine D.) Ocreotide E.) Promethazine

Prototype 5HT3 receptor antagonist used for chemotherapy induced emesis A.) Metoclopramide B.) Odansetron C.) Tropisetron D.) Dronabinol E.) Granisetron

A naturally occurring cannabinoid that cant synthesized chemically or ectracted from the marijuana plant, Cannabis sativa. It is useful prophylactic agent in patients receiving cancer chemotherapy when other antiemetic medications are not effective A.) Dexamethasone D.) Dronabinol B.) Odansetron E.) Granisetron

The drug of choice for drug resistant P. falciparum malaria. This drug is associated with toxicities including cinchonism, hypoglycemia ant hypotension when it is given at full therapeutic or excessive doses A.) Primaquine D.) Proguanil B.) Chloroquine E.) Pyrimethamine C.) Quinine

It is used primarily for the terminal prophylaxis and radical cure of P. vivax and P. ovale (relapsing) malarias because of high activity against their latent tissue forms. In the contrast with other cure relapsing malaria A.) Primaquine D.) Proguanil B.) Chloroquine E.) Pyrimethamine C.) Quinine

Mechanism of resistance in cancer chemotherapy include all of the following, EXCEPT A.) Decreased DNA repair B.) Formation of trapping agents C.) Change in enzyme targets D.) Decreased activation of prodrugs E.) Decreased drug accumulation

5-Fluorouracil, methotrexate, gemcitabine and 6-mercaptopurine belong to which group of anticancer drugs? A.) Alkylating agents D.) Antitumor antibiotics B.) Antimetabolites E.) Hormonal C.) Natural products

A highly basic, positively charged peptide that antagonize the effect of warfarin A.) Argatroban D.) Protamine sulfate B.) Hirudin E.) Dabigatran etaxilate C.) Vit K

Advantages of oral direct thrombin inhibitors include predictable pharmacokinetics and bioavailability, which allow for fixed dosing and predictable anticoagulant response and make routine coagulation monitoring unnecessary. Which of the following is the first oral direct thrombin inhibitor approved by the US-FDA? A.) Dabigatran D.) Heparin B.) Streptokinase E.) Hirudin C.) Aminocaproic acid

A specific irreversible thrombin inhibitor from leech saliva that is now available in recombinant form lepirudin A.) Agatroban D.) Rivaroxaban B.) Bivalirudin E.) Warfarin C.) Hirudin

A diuretic agent which is also used as treatment for glaucoma A.) Furosemide B.) Hydrochlorothiazide C.) Amiloride D.) Acetazolamide E.)Tolvatan

Natrixam, a drug used in the treatment if hypertension is marketed with generic name of A.) Amlodipine and HCTZ B.) Amlodipine and Indapamide C.) Amlodipine and Rosuvastatin D.) Amlodipine and Erythtomycin E.) Amlodipine and Erythtomycin

A newly developed drug in the management of diabetes which is used as adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in adults with type 2 DM. It is marketed under the brand name, Invokana A.) Canaglifozin B.) Atorvastatin C.) Perampane D.) Agmatine sulfate E.) Anastrozole

The generic name of Rapamune, a drug which serves as a prophylaxis organ rejection in patients receiving renal transplant A.) Tacrolimus D.) Ramipril B.) Sirolimus E.) Renapril C.) Tamsulosin

This drug inhibit Na/Cl transporter in the distal convoluted tubule resulting to modest increase in NaCl excretion, some K wasting, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis and decreased urine Ca A.) Mannitol B.) Connivaptan C.) Acetazolamide D.) Hydrochlorothiazide E.)Furosemide

Trump plus, a newly developed drug which is indicated to treat moderate to severe pain is a combination of A.) Paracetamol and Caffeine B.) Paracetamol and Tramadol C.) Paracetamol and Mefenamic acid D.) Paracetamol and Chlorphenamine maleate E.) Paracetamol and Codeine

Which of the following describes 2nd generation H1-antihistamines? A.) Example of 2nd gen antihistamines include Chlorpheniramine and Cyclizine B.) Common effect if 1st gen H1-Antagosnists is sedation C.) Some 2nd gen H1 Antihistamines possess serotonin blocking and adrenoceptor blocking action D.) 2nd gen H1 Antihistamines are used mainly for the treatment of allergic rhinitis and chronic urticaria E.) 2nd gen H1 Antihistamines are less expensive compared to 1st gen H1 anihistamines

It is the newly marketed Live attenuated Dengue tetravalent vaccine developed by Sanofi-pasteur A.) Pneumovax 23 D.) Denguevaxx B.) Biothrax E.) Tetravax C.) Dengvaxia

H1 atagonist that possess an alpha receptor blocking action A.) Diphenydramine D.)Fexofenadine B.) Promethazine E.) Cyproheptadine C.) Chlorpheniramine

A gaseous signalling molecule that readily diffuses across cell membrane and regulates a wide range of physiologic and pathophysiologic processes including cardiovascular, inflammatory and neuronal functions A.) NO D.)NO3 B.) N2O E.) N2O3 C.) NO2

Leukotriene receptor inhibitor used in the treatment of asthma A.) Albuterol D.) Alprostadil B.) Zileuton E.) Montelukast C.) Cromolyn

All of the following are correct statements regarding COX1 and COX2 enzyme, EXCEPT A.) COX2 us an immediate early response gene product that is markedly up regulated by shear stress, growth factors, tumour promoters and cytokines B.) COX2 is the major source of prostanoids in inflammation and cancer C.) Traditional NSAIDS are selective for COX2 D.) COX1 generates prostanoids for “housekeeping” such as gastric epithelial cytoprotection E.) Indomethacin and sulindac are slightly selective for COX1G

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