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PSMB > COSMETICS > Flashcards

COSMETICS Flashcards

QUIZ

1
Q

means any article intended to be
rubbed, poured, sprinkled or sprayed on, or introduced into, or otherwise applied to, the
human body or any part thereof for cleansing,
beautifying, promoting attractiveness, or
altering the appearance, includes any article
intended for use as a component of cosmetic

A

COSMETICS

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2
Q

‘‘cosmetic’’ is derived from the Greek word

A

Kosm tikos

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3
Q

body adornment AKA

A

rudimentary cosmetics

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4
Q

Vases of alabaster and obsidian for cosmetics discovered by ____, year ____

A

Flinders Petrie, 1914

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5
Q

a student of Aristotle,
demonstrated considerable knowledge of the
compounding of perfumes,

A

Theophrastus

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6
Q

is said to have innovated that timehonored toiletry: cold
cream

A

Galen of Pergamon

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7
Q

Cold Cream AKA

A

Cera Alba

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8
Q

were said by Herodotus (490–420 b.c.) to
be well practiced in the use of depilatories and the eye adornment

A

Babylonians

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9
Q

reported the use of
unguents, incense, and other cosmetics by the countries of
the Indo-Sumerian civilization.

A

Alexander the Great

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10
Q

are the ones that provide the benefit
of cosmetics. They include cleansers (surfactants), conditioning
agents, colorants, fragrances, reactive ingredients, film formers,
and drug actives. . Every cosmetic you’ve ever used or made has
at least one of this

A

Functional Ingredient

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11
Q

those that help make delivery of
the functional ingredients more acceptable. These are ingredients
like solvents, thickeners, preservatives, fragrances, pH adjusters,
plasticizers, fillers, appearance modifiers, anti -oxidants, anti
-irritants, and delivery systems

A

Aesthetic ingredients

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12
Q

ingredients added to a formula at a
low level for the primary purpose of getting to put the ingredient
name on the label. This includes ingredients like natural extracts,
vitamins, proteins, biotechnology, and fanciful made
-up ingredient
names.

A

Claims ingredients

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13
Q

A quality system should be developed,
established and implemented as a means by
which stated policies and objectives will be
achieved.

A

Quality Management System

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14
Q

Every finished product should bear a
_______ number which
enables the history of the product to be
traced.

A

production identification

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15
Q

is an essential part of
GMP. It provides assurance that
cosmetic products will be of consistent
quality appropriate to their intended
use.

A

Quality Control

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16
Q

may be
conducted by outside or
independent specialists or
a team designated by the
management for this
purpose.

A

Internal Audit

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17
Q

REGULATORY ISSUANCE GOVERNING
COSMETIC PRODUCT NOTIFICATION
This modernization was kickstarted in March 2013 through

A

FDA Memorandum Circular No. 2013-011

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18
Q

Hair is composed primarily of ___% proteins

A

88%

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19
Q

These proteins are of a hard fibrous
type known as ___-.

A

Keratin

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20
Q

Keratin protein is
comprised of what we call

A

polypeptide chains

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21
Q

Hair made up of ____ amino acids.

A

20

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22
Q

Body produces ___ of
the total amino acids

A

11

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23
Q

dominant pigment in brown & black

A

Eumelanin

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24
Q

dominant in red hair

A

Pheomelanin

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25
Q

short, fine, downy,
unpigmented hair on
body.

A

Vellus (lanugo) hair

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26
Q

long, thick, pigmented hair found on scalp, legs,
arms, and body.

A

Terminal hair

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27
Q
  • The shape of the _____ determines whether
    hair is straight or curly
A

Hair Shaft

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28
Q
  • If the shaft is ____, the
    hair is straight.
A

round

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29
Q

If the shaft is ____, the
hair is wavy.

A

oval

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30
Q
  • If the shaft is ____, the
    hair is curly or kinky
A

flat

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31
Q

The outermost layer of
the hair

A

CUTICLE

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32
Q

The middle layer of
hair; a fibrous protein core formed by elongated cells
containing melanin pigment.

A

CORTEX

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33
Q

Innermost layer; also
referred to as the pith(Core) of
the hair.

A

MEDULLA

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34
Q

Active-Growth Phase AKA

A

ANAGEN

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35
Q

Active growth period is____ before replacement.

A

2-5 YEARS

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36
Q

Transition Phase aka

A

(CATAGEN)

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37
Q

this phase lasts one or two weeks &
hair follicle shrinks about 80%.

A

Transition Phase

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38
Q

Resting Phase AKA

A

(TELOGEN)

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39
Q

After five or six weeks, dermal papilla reconnects to base of hair follicle and bloodstream.
The hair re-enters the active-growth phase and a new hair
begins to from.

A

Resting Phase

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40
Q

The word shampoo is
derived from Hindustani

A

chāmpo

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41
Q

The term has been used for some hair preparations because the term is used in
therapeutics

A

“hair tonic”

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42
Q

The purpose of this products is to cure, to
reduce, to restrain & some abnormality in
the function of scalp.

A

Medicated Products

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43
Q

are viscous liquid that is applied to
the hair & are usually used after washing the hair with
shampoo.

A

Conditioners

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44
Q
  • It is heavy and thick.
  • A high content of surfactant it is able to bind the hair structure & glue the hair surface scale together & tend to form thicker layer on the
    hair surface.
  • These are usually applied to the hair for a
    longer time.
A

Pack Conditioners

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45
Q
  • They are thinner & have different surfactants.
  • It is lighter, less viscous mixture & provides
    a significantly thinner layer on the hair.
  • This is designed to be used in a similar way
    to hair oil preventing tangling of hair & keeping it smooth.
A

Leave In Conditioners

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46
Q
  • It combines some aspects of both packs &
    leave in ones.
  • These are generally applied after the use of
    shampoo.
  • Further, it can be characterized into 3 main
    types
A

Ordinary Conditioners

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47
Q

3 Main Types of Ordinary Conditioners

A

a)Moisturizer
b)Re-constructers
c)Detangles

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48
Q

-These are organic solvent
concentrated with humectant.
- This conditioners may not contain
protein.

A

Moisturizers

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49
Q

_______ is to retain the moisture
into the hair

A

Humectant

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50
Q

-It contains proteins for hydrolization.
- This protein penetrates the hair shaft &
gives a shiny hair

A

Re-constructers

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51
Q

Human hair keratin protein has a ___ molecular weight.

A

LOW

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52
Q

These are acidifiers & have low pH.
The function is to close the cuticle of the
hair, which cause tangles.
The protection or shield mechanism is done
by surfactant & polymers.

A

DETANGLERS

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53
Q

one of the most
important acts of adornment among those
made by men and women since the origin of man.

A

Coloring of Hair

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54
Q

A variety of other chemicals used in small
amounts that impart special qualities to hair
(such as softening the texture) or give a
desired action to the dye (such as making it
more or less permanent).

A

RAW MATERIALS

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55
Q

are usually amino
compounds

A

Dye chemicals

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56
Q

stabilize the dye pigments or
otherwise act to modify the shade

A

modifiers

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57
Q

may bring out color tones, such as green or purple, which complement
the dye pigment. e.g. resorcinol

A

RAW MATERIALS

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58
Q

protect the dye from oxidizing with air

A

ANTIOXIDANTS

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59
Q

Most commonly used ANTIOXIDANT

A

sodium sulfite

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60
Q

are added to change the pH of the dye
formula, because the dyes work best in a
highly alkaline composition

A

ALKALI

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61
Q

is a common alkali.

A

AMMONIUM HYDROXIDE

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62
Q

is typically used
to give brighter, more vibrant shades or
colors such as orange or red, that may
be difficult to achieve with semipermanent and permanent hair color.

A

TEMPORARY HAIR COLOR

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63
Q

Temporary Hair color does not easily penetrate into

A

CORTEX or MEDULLA

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64
Q

Give stronger & more permanent
coloration to hair than temporary hair
colorant

A

Semi-Permanent Hair Color

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65
Q

Some colors are removed in 4-8
shampooings.

A

Semi-Permanent Hair Color

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66
Q

Dyes used for Semi-Permanent Hair Color

A

-Ntirophenyledenediamine
– Nitroaminopheols,
– Aminoanthraquinones.

67
Q

-Should be studied on white wool or hair.
-has no Ammonia

A

Semi-Permanent Hair Color

68
Q

All ______ haircolor products and
lighteners contain both a developer, or
oxidizing agent, and an alkalizing
ingredient as part of their ammonia or an
ammonia substitute.

A

PERMANENT

69
Q

provides lightening action

A

peroxide

70
Q

SAFETY AND EVALUATION: HAIR CARE PRODUCTS
Phase I

A

Pre-Clinical Testing

71
Q

SAFETY AND EVALUATION: HAIR CARE PRODUCTS
Phase II

A

Clinical Study Data Collection & Evaluation

72
Q

determines changes in hair growth patterns
During this test,
a trained
professional uses
a dermascope or videoscope
to survey the scalp and
record changes in
observed hair growth
patterns

A

Trichological (Hair
Count) Analysis

73
Q

used to measure
hair shedding patterns.

A

Traction Test

74
Q

3 Other names of Traction Test

A

1.) Gravimetric “Pull” Analysis
2.) “Sabouraud’s sign
3.) The pull out sign

75
Q

Prior to shampooing, 20
-60 strands of subjects’ hair are
grasped at the base of the
strands and tugged firmly away
from the scalp.

A

Traction test

76
Q

Active hair shedding is indicated by pulling
more than ____ of strands from
the scalp.

A

10%

77
Q

evaluates changes in
hair growth cycles and in
hair breakage over time
using hair shafts
“plucked” from the scalp.

A

HAIR PLUCK TEST

78
Q

used to assess
changes in hair fallout rates. For this test, panelists are
asked to use a specific
combing technique to
evaluate hair fallout rates.

A

Regimented Combing
Technique

79
Q

measure
any alterations in hair
strength and resilience.

A

TENSILE TEST

80
Q

Hair tensile strength is
measured using _____

A

DiaStron Mini Tensile Tester (MTT)

81
Q

uses 3-point bending and
torsion tests to measure
the force overtime
required to elongate and
break a strand of hair.

A

MTT Device

82
Q

is the outer covering
of the body and is the
largest organ of the
integumentary system.

A

SKIN

83
Q

found on the palms and
soles of the feet, lacks hair follicles and
sebaceous glands but has a very thick
epidermis and encapsulated sense
organs in the dermis.

A

GLABROUS SKIN

84
Q

hair follicles and
sebaceous glands are both present, but
there are no encapsulated sensory
organs.

A

HAIRY SKIN

85
Q

has large sebaceous
glands associated with fine vellus hairs,
contrasting sharply with the scalp, which
contains large hair follicles.

A

FACIAL SKIN

86
Q

is an avascular structure, made
up of many layers of cells.

A

EPIDERMIS

87
Q

The special structure of the epidermis is
classified as _________
and is typical of vertebrate animals.

A

Stratified Squamous Epithelium

88
Q

the main barrier, forms the outermost part of the
epidermis.

A

Horny layer or Stratum corneum

89
Q

It is responsible for producing the main barrier

A

Epidermis

90
Q

The horny layer is made up of water
-resistant
dead cells, called ______, which are
segmented together with a complex lipid
material.

A

corneocytes

91
Q

Basal Layer AKA

A

GERMINATIVE LAYER

92
Q

Prickle cell layer AKA

A

Stratum spinosum

93
Q

GRANULAR LAYER AKA

A

Stratum Granulosum

94
Q

characterized by the presence of
distinctive keratohyalin granules

A

Stratum granulosum or
Granular layer

95
Q

functions as a
supporting frame to the
epidermis, supplying it with nutrients via the blood
capillaries. It also supports
the sensory nervous
system, secretory glands
and hair follicles.

A

DERMIS

96
Q

Unlike the epidermis, which
is a cellular structure, the
underlying dermis consists of

A

CONNECTIVE TISSUE

97
Q

forms the major constituent of the fibrous protein which gives
the skin its tensile strength.

A

COLLAGEN

98
Q

consists of salt, water and glycosaminoglycans.

A

DERMAL GROUND SUBSTANCE

99
Q

form complexes with protein molecules
known as proteoglycans.

A

glycosaminoglycans

100
Q

which are the second major cell type in the dermis, can be
found close to the small blood vessels.

A

mast cells

101
Q

Below the epidermis is a layer of fatty
or adipose tissue called the

A

HYPODERMIS

102
Q

The cells in this layer synthesize and
store fat as an energy reserve. This is
to help insulate the body from low
external temperatures and to act as a
buffer against trauma.

A

HYPODERMIS

103
Q

provides the body with its contours, whether they are attractive
curves or unwelcome bulges.

A

HYPODERMIS

104
Q

soft smooth skin with a healthy appearance

A

NORMAL

105
Q

shiny with enlarged pores. Often
blemished

A

OILY

106
Q

fine texture, flaky, many expression
lines, poor elasticity

A

DRY

107
Q

florid with broken capillaries, fine
textured, like dry skin

A

SENSITIVE

108
Q

– excessively oily with blemishes

A

BLEMISHED

109
Q

is a facial care product that is used to remove
make-up, dead skin cells, oil, dirt, and other
types of pollutants from the skin of the face.
This helps to unclog pores and prevent skin
conditions such as acne.

A

CLEANSERS

110
Q

is the first step in a skin care regimen and can be used in addition of a toner
and moisturizer, following cleansing

A

CLEANSER

111
Q

Bar soap has an alkaline pH ___

A

pH 9 TO 10

112
Q

skin’s surface pH is on
average ____

A

4.7

113
Q

Using bar soap on the face can remove natural oils from the skin that form a barrier
against water loss. This causes the sebaceous glands to subsequently overproduce
oil, a condition known as

A

REACTIVE SEBORRHEA

114
Q

the process of removing dead skin
cells from the surface of your skin using a
chemical, granular substance, or exfoliation tool.

A

EXFOLIATING

115
Q

This process involves physically scrubbing the skin with an abrasive.

A

MECHANICAL

116
Q

Include microfiber cloths,
adhesive exfoliation sheets, micro-bead facial scrubs,
crepe paper, crushed apricot kernel or almond shells,
sugar or salt crystals, pumice, and abrasive materials
such as sponges, loofahs, and brushes

A

MECHANICAL EXFOLIANTS

117
Q

include scrubs containing
salicylic acid, glycolic acid, fruit enzymes, citric acid,
or malic acid which may be applied in high
concentrations by
a medical professional, or in lower
concentrations in over
-the
-counter products
.

A

CHEMICAL EXFOLIANTS

118
Q

are used to address specific skin
concerns such as acne, dark spots,
hyperpigmentation, fine lines and
inflammation
. Skin treatment
products are all regulated and have
to be approved by the FDA
. They can
be in the forms of creams, gels,
lotions, solutions, serums and
medicated facial pads
.

A

TREATMENTS

119
Q

usually contain antioxidants,
which help fight free radical damage
.

A

SERUMS

120
Q

s a lotion, spray, gel, foam, stick or other
topical product that absorbs or reflects some of the sun’s ultraviolet (UV) radiation and thus
helps protect against sunburn.

A

SUNSCREEN

121
Q

stay on the surface of the skin and
mainly deflect the UV light

A

Physical Sunscreen

122
Q

an opaque, full
-spectrum sunscreen also used to give
opacity to face powder and foundation

A

ZINC OXIDE

123
Q

a full
-spectrum ,
which means that it protects the skin
from both UVA and UVB rays. It is also
used to give opacity to face powder,
eye shadow, and foundation.

A

Titanium Dioxide

124
Q

absorb the UV light

A

Chemical Sunscreen

125
Q

remove the outer layer of the skin, which
means they tend to go deeper to remove
more excess dead skin cells than
exfoliators.
* They usually contain glycolic, salicylic or
lactic acids

A

CHEMICAL PEEL

126
Q

-it shrinks pores and restores skin to its natural pH
balance.
-this is important because when our pH levels are
thrown out of whack due to soaps and chemicals in
cleansers, oil production increases, causing a cycle of
breakouts.
-can be used after a cleanser twice a day to remove
excess traces of makeup or other residue from the skin.

A

TONER

127
Q

product that adds water, and often some
emollients, to the skin.

A

MOISTURIZER

128
Q

Dryness and flexibility cannot be corrected
with oils - Only ___-

A

WATER

129
Q

____ is used to limit the evaporation of water.

A

OIL

130
Q

An ingredient in skin or hair products that
draws moisture from the air to moisturize the skin and also
promotes the retention of moisture in the skin

A

HUMECTANT

131
Q
  • Supple, waxlike, lubricating, thickening
    agents that prevent water loss and have a softening
    and soothing effect on the skin
A

EMOLLIENT

132
Q

-A skin conditioning agent which helps maintain the
smooth, soft pliable appearance of the skin.
- Usually a grease or an oil that softens the skin and
protects it from dryness.

A

EMOLLIENT

133
Q

substances that hold strongly to
the surface of the skin, preventing access to the
air and increasing absorption of cosmetic
treatments.

A

OCCLUSIVES

134
Q

is a nonspecific term
used to describe any
inflammatory skin disease
resulting from contact with
an irritant or allergenic
substance.

A

CONTACT DERMATITIS

135
Q

Whatever the causative
agent, the clinical features
are similar: itching,
redness, and skin lesions.

A

CONTACT DERMATITIS

136
Q

It is a term given to a complex group of localized
inflammatory reactions that follow
nonimmunological damage to the skin.

A

IRRITANT CONTACT DERMATITIS

137
Q

The inflammation may be the result of an acute
toxic (usually chemical) insult to the skin, or of
repeated and cumulative damage from weaker
irritants (chemical or physical).

A

IRRITANT CONTACT DERMATITIS

138
Q

the result of a single overwhelming exposure to a strong irritant or
a series of brief physical or chemical contacts, leading to acute inflammation of
the skin.

A

Acute ICD

139
Q

develops as a result of a
series of repeated and damaging insults to the skin. The insults may be
chemical or physical.

A

Cumulative ICD

140
Q

Some chemicals produce acute irritation in a delayed manner so that the signs
and symptoms of acute irritant dermatitis appear 12 to 24 hours or more after
the original insult

A

DELAYED ACUTE ICD

141
Q

occurs when a substance comes into
contact with skin that has undergone an
acquired specific alteration in its reactivity
as a result of prior exposure of the skin to
the substance eliciting the dermatitis.

A

ALLERGIC CONTACT DERMATITIS

142
Q

Gold Standard for ACD

A

PATCH TESTING

143
Q

It is a chemically induced
nonimmunological skin irritation requiring
light. This reaction will occur in all
individuals exposed to the chemical–light
combination.

A

PHOTOIRRITANT CONTACT DERMATITIS

144
Q

a component of bergamot oil,
is a potent photoirritant that causes
berloque dermatitis.

A

BERGAPTEN

145
Q

It is an immunological response to a substance
that requires the presence of light.

A

PHOTOALLERGIC CONTACT DERMATITIS

146
Q

Examples of photoallergens present in cosmetics
are __________ which
are present in fragrances

A

musk ambrette
6-methylcoumarin

147
Q

It represents a heterogeneous group of
inflammatory reactions that appear,
usually within a few minutes to an hour,
after contact with the eliciting substance.

A

CONTACT URTICARIA SYNDROME

148
Q

simplest of all tests and is the ‘‘first-line’’ test

A

OPEN TEST

149
Q

The most
common class of
CUS. The reaction
usually remains
localized

A

Nonimmunological
Contact Urticaria

150
Q

These are
immediate (Type I)
allergic reactions in
people who have
previously been
sensitized to the
causative agent

A

Immunological
Contact Urticaria

151
Q

Examples of
cosmetic substances
known to produce
NICU are

A

Preservatives (benzoic acid and sorbic acid) &
Fragrances (cinnamic aldehyde)

152
Q

is IgE mediated
and is more
common in atopic
individuals. Food
substances are
common causes

A

Immunological
Contact Urticaria

153
Q

refers to the capacity of some agents
to cause acne or aggravate existing acne
lesions.

A

ACNEGENICITY

154
Q

This is the capability of an agent to cause
hyperkeratinous impactions in the
sebaceous follicle, or the formation of
microcomedones, usually in a relatively
short period of time.

A

Comedogenicity

155
Q

This refers to the capability of an
agent to cause inflammatory papules
and pustules, usually in a relatively
short period of time.

A

Pustulogenicity

156
Q

a test for determining allergic sensitivity
that is made by applying to the unbroken
skin small pads soaked with the allergen
to be tested

A

PATCH TEST

157
Q

allows the
assessment of the primary irritation
potential of a topical product.

A

48-hour patch test

158
Q

The patch test is conducted on a panel of at least ____

A

25 SUBJECTS

159
Q

a test for determining the irritation
and/or sensitization potential of a test
material(s), in support of sensitive skin
claims, after repeated application under
occlusive or semi-occlusive patches to
the skin of human subjects.

A

Human Repeat Insult Patch Test (HRIPT)

160
Q

The HRIPT consists of ___ phase

A

2

161
Q

a test to evaluate the skin condition
before and after one month of product
usage. The evaluator counts the number
of comedons and blackheads on the
forehead, cheeks and chin.

A

NON-COMEDOGENIC TEST

162
Q

a test to evaluate skin condition
before and after one month of
product usage. The evaluator
counts the number of acne
lesions (papules and pustules) on
the forehead, cheeks and chin.

A

NON-ACNEGENIC TEST

163
Q

a test that allows to assess the irritation potential of a topical product applied
on the eye contour area.

A

PERIOCULAR TOLERANCE TEST

164
Q

The study is conducted under the supervision of an ophthalmologist. The
condition of the eye and around the eye area is examined before and after a
given period of product usage.

A

PERIOCULAR TOLERANCE TEST

PSMB (20 decks)

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