COSMETICS Flashcards
QUIZ
1
Q
means any article intended to be
rubbed, poured, sprinkled or sprayed on, or introduced into, or otherwise applied to, the
human body or any part thereof for cleansing,
beautifying, promoting attractiveness, or
altering the appearance, includes any article
intended for use as a component of cosmetic
A
COSMETICS
2
Q
‘‘cosmetic’’ is derived from the Greek word
A
Kosm tikos
3
Q
body adornment AKA
A
rudimentary cosmetics
4
Q
Vases of alabaster and obsidian for cosmetics discovered by ____, year ____
A
Flinders Petrie, 1914
5
Q
a student of Aristotle,
demonstrated considerable knowledge of the
compounding of perfumes,
A
Theophrastus
6
Q
is said to have innovated that timehonored toiletry: cold
cream
A
Galen of Pergamon
7
Q
Cold Cream AKA
A
Cera Alba
8
Q
were said by Herodotus (490–420 b.c.) to
be well practiced in the use of depilatories and the eye adornment
A
Babylonians
9
Q
reported the use of
unguents, incense, and other cosmetics by the countries of
the Indo-Sumerian civilization.
A
Alexander the Great
10
Q
are the ones that provide the benefit
of cosmetics. They include cleansers (surfactants), conditioning
agents, colorants, fragrances, reactive ingredients, film formers,
and drug actives. . Every cosmetic you’ve ever used or made has
at least one of this
A
Functional Ingredient
11
Q
those that help make delivery of
the functional ingredients more acceptable. These are ingredients
like solvents, thickeners, preservatives, fragrances, pH adjusters,
plasticizers, fillers, appearance modifiers, anti -oxidants, anti
-irritants, and delivery systems
A
Aesthetic ingredients
12
Q
ingredients added to a formula at a
low level for the primary purpose of getting to put the ingredient
name on the label. This includes ingredients like natural extracts,
vitamins, proteins, biotechnology, and fanciful made
-up ingredient
names.
A
Claims ingredients
13
Q
A quality system should be developed,
established and implemented as a means by
which stated policies and objectives will be
achieved.
A
Quality Management System
14
Q
Every finished product should bear a
_______ number which
enables the history of the product to be
traced.
A
production identification
15
Q
is an essential part of
GMP. It provides assurance that
cosmetic products will be of consistent
quality appropriate to their intended
use.
A
Quality Control
16
Q
may be
conducted by outside or
independent specialists or
a team designated by the
management for this
purpose.
A
Internal Audit
17
Q
REGULATORY ISSUANCE GOVERNING
COSMETIC PRODUCT NOTIFICATION
This modernization was kickstarted in March 2013 through
A
FDA Memorandum Circular No. 2013-011
18
Q
Hair is composed primarily of ___% proteins
A
88%
19
Q
These proteins are of a hard fibrous
type known as ___-.
A
Keratin
20
Q
Keratin protein is
comprised of what we call
A
polypeptide chains
21
Q
Hair made up of ____ amino acids.
A
20
22
Q
Body produces ___ of
the total amino acids
A
11
23
Q
dominant pigment in brown & black
A
Eumelanin
24
Q
dominant in red hair
A
Pheomelanin
25
short, fine, downy,
unpigmented hair on
body.
Vellus (lanugo) hair
26
long, thick, pigmented hair found on scalp, legs,
arms, and body.
Terminal hair
27
* The shape of the _____ determines whether
hair is straight or curly
Hair Shaft
28
* If the shaft is ____, the
hair is straight.
round
29
If the shaft is ____, the
hair is wavy.
oval
30
* If the shaft is ____, the
hair is curly or kinky
flat
31
The outermost layer of
the hair
CUTICLE
32
The middle layer of
hair; a fibrous protein core formed by elongated cells
containing melanin pigment.
CORTEX
33
Innermost layer; also
referred to as the pith(Core) of
the hair.
MEDULLA
34
Active-Growth Phase AKA
ANAGEN
35
Active growth period is____ before replacement.
2-5 YEARS
36
Transition Phase aka
(CATAGEN)
37
this phase lasts one or two weeks &
hair follicle shrinks about 80%.
Transition Phase
38
Resting Phase AKA
(TELOGEN)
39
After five or six weeks, dermal papilla reconnects to base of hair follicle and bloodstream.
The hair re-enters the active-growth phase and a new hair
begins to from.
Resting Phase
40
The word shampoo is
derived from Hindustani
chāmpo
41
The term has been used for some hair preparations because the term is used in
therapeutics
“hair tonic”
42
The purpose of this products is to cure, to
reduce, to restrain & some abnormality in
the function of scalp.
Medicated Products
43
are viscous liquid that is applied to
the hair & are usually used after washing the hair with
shampoo.
Conditioners
44
- It is heavy and thick.
- A high content of surfactant it is able to bind the hair structure & glue the hair surface scale together & tend to form thicker layer on the
hair surface.
- These are usually applied to the hair for a
longer time.
Pack Conditioners
45
- They are thinner & have different surfactants.
- It is lighter, less viscous mixture & provides
a significantly thinner layer on the hair.
- This is designed to be used in a similar way
to hair oil preventing tangling of hair & keeping it smooth.
Leave In Conditioners
46
- It combines some aspects of both packs &
leave in ones.
- These are generally applied after the use of
shampoo.
- Further, it can be characterized into 3 main
types
Ordinary Conditioners
47
3 Main Types of Ordinary Conditioners
a)Moisturizer
b)Re-constructers
c)Detangles
48
-These are organic solvent
concentrated with humectant.
- This conditioners may not contain
protein.
Moisturizers
49
_______ is to retain the moisture
into the hair
Humectant
50
-It contains proteins for hydrolization.
- This protein penetrates the hair shaft &
gives a shiny hair
Re-constructers
51
Human hair keratin protein has a ___ molecular weight.
LOW
52
These are acidifiers & have low pH.
The function is to close the cuticle of the
hair, which cause tangles.
The protection or shield mechanism is done
by surfactant & polymers.
DETANGLERS
53
one of the most
important acts of adornment among those
made by men and women since the origin of man.
Coloring of Hair
54
A variety of other chemicals used in small
amounts that impart special qualities to hair
(such as softening the texture) or give a
desired action to the dye (such as making it
more or less permanent).
RAW MATERIALS
55
are usually amino
compounds
Dye chemicals
56
stabilize the dye pigments or
otherwise act to modify the shade
modifiers
57
may bring out color tones, such as green or purple, which complement
the dye pigment. e.g. resorcinol
RAW MATERIALS
58
protect the dye from oxidizing with air
ANTIOXIDANTS
59
Most commonly used ANTIOXIDANT
sodium sulfite
60
are added to change the pH of the dye
formula, because the dyes work best in a
highly alkaline composition
ALKALI
61
is a common alkali.
AMMONIUM HYDROXIDE
62
is typically used
to give brighter, more vibrant shades or
colors such as orange or red, that may
be difficult to achieve with semipermanent and permanent hair color.
TEMPORARY HAIR COLOR
63
Temporary Hair color does not easily penetrate into
CORTEX or MEDULLA
64
Give stronger & more permanent
coloration to hair than temporary hair
colorant
Semi-Permanent Hair Color
65
Some colors are removed in 4-8
shampooings.
Semi-Permanent Hair Color
66
Dyes used for Semi-Permanent Hair Color
-Ntirophenyledenediamine
– Nitroaminopheols,
– Aminoanthraquinones.
67
-Should be studied on white wool or hair.
-has no Ammonia
Semi-Permanent Hair Color
68
All ______ haircolor products and
lighteners contain both a developer, or
oxidizing agent, and an alkalizing
ingredient as part of their ammonia or an
ammonia substitute.
PERMANENT
69
provides lightening action
peroxide
70
SAFETY AND EVALUATION: HAIR CARE PRODUCTS
Phase I
Pre-Clinical Testing
71
SAFETY AND EVALUATION: HAIR CARE PRODUCTS
Phase II
Clinical Study Data Collection & Evaluation
72
determines changes in hair growth patterns
During this test,
a trained
professional uses
a dermascope or videoscope
to survey the scalp and
record changes in
observed hair growth
patterns
Trichological (Hair
Count) Analysis
73
used to measure
hair shedding patterns.
Traction Test
74
3 Other names of Traction Test
1.) Gravimetric “Pull” Analysis
2.) “Sabouraud’s sign
3.) The pull out sign
75
Prior to shampooing, 20
-60 strands of subjects’ hair are
grasped at the base of the
strands and tugged firmly away
from the scalp.
Traction test
76
Active hair shedding is indicated by pulling
more than ____ of strands from
the scalp.
10%
77
evaluates changes in
hair growth cycles and in
hair breakage over time
using hair shafts
“plucked” from the scalp.
HAIR PLUCK TEST
78
used to assess
changes in hair fallout rates. For this test, panelists are
asked to use a specific
combing technique to
evaluate hair fallout rates.
Regimented Combing
Technique
79
measure
any alterations in hair
strength and resilience.
TENSILE TEST
80
Hair tensile strength is
measured using _____
DiaStron Mini Tensile Tester (MTT)
81
uses 3-point bending and
torsion tests to measure
the force overtime
required to elongate and
break a strand of hair.
MTT Device
82
is the outer covering
of the body and is the
largest organ of the
integumentary system.
SKIN
83
found on the palms and
soles of the feet, lacks hair follicles and
sebaceous glands but has a very thick
epidermis and encapsulated sense
organs in the dermis.
GLABROUS SKIN
84
hair follicles and
sebaceous glands are both present, but
there are no encapsulated sensory
organs.
HAIRY SKIN
85
has large sebaceous
glands associated with fine vellus hairs,
contrasting sharply with the scalp, which
contains large hair follicles.
FACIAL SKIN
86
is an avascular structure, made
up of many layers of cells.
EPIDERMIS
87
The special structure of the epidermis is
classified as _________
and is typical of vertebrate animals.
Stratified Squamous Epithelium
88
the main barrier, forms the outermost part of the
epidermis.
Horny layer or Stratum corneum
89
It is responsible for producing the main barrier
Epidermis
90
The horny layer is made up of water
-resistant
dead cells, called ______, which are
segmented together with a complex lipid
material.
corneocytes
91
Basal Layer AKA
GERMINATIVE LAYER
92
Prickle cell layer AKA
Stratum spinosum
93
GRANULAR LAYER AKA
Stratum Granulosum
94
characterized by the presence of
distinctive keratohyalin granules
Stratum granulosum or
Granular layer
95
functions as a
supporting frame to the
epidermis, supplying it with nutrients via the blood
capillaries. It also supports
the sensory nervous
system, secretory glands
and hair follicles.
DERMIS
96
Unlike the epidermis, which
is a cellular structure, the
underlying dermis consists of
CONNECTIVE TISSUE
97
forms the major constituent of the fibrous protein which gives
the skin its tensile strength.
COLLAGEN
98
consists of salt, water and glycosaminoglycans.
DERMAL GROUND SUBSTANCE
99
form complexes with protein molecules
known as proteoglycans.
glycosaminoglycans
100
which are the second major cell type in the dermis, can be
found close to the small blood vessels.
mast cells
101
Below the epidermis is a layer of fatty
or adipose tissue called the
HYPODERMIS
102
The cells in this layer synthesize and
store fat as an energy reserve. This is
to help insulate the body from low
external temperatures and to act as a
buffer against trauma.
HYPODERMIS
103
provides the body with its contours, whether they are attractive
curves or unwelcome bulges.
HYPODERMIS
104
soft smooth skin with a healthy appearance
NORMAL
105
shiny with enlarged pores. Often
blemished
OILY
106
fine texture, flaky, many expression
lines, poor elasticity
DRY
107
florid with broken capillaries, fine
textured, like dry skin
SENSITIVE
108
– excessively oily with blemishes
BLEMISHED
109
is a facial care product that is used to remove
make-up, dead skin cells, oil, dirt, and other
types of pollutants from the skin of the face.
This helps to unclog pores and prevent skin
conditions such as acne.
CLEANSERS
110
is the first step in a skin care regimen and can be used in addition of a toner
and moisturizer, following cleansing
CLEANSER
111
Bar soap has an alkaline pH ___
pH 9 TO 10
112
skin's surface pH is on
average ____
4.7
113
Using bar soap on the face can remove natural oils from the skin that form a barrier
against water loss. This causes the sebaceous glands to subsequently overproduce
oil, a condition known as
REACTIVE SEBORRHEA
114
the process of removing dead skin
cells from the surface of your skin using a
chemical, granular substance, or exfoliation tool.
EXFOLIATING
115
This process involves physically scrubbing the skin with an abrasive.
MECHANICAL
116
Include microfiber cloths,
adhesive exfoliation sheets, micro-bead facial scrubs,
crepe paper, crushed apricot kernel or almond shells,
sugar or salt crystals, pumice, and abrasive materials
such as sponges, loofahs, and brushes
MECHANICAL EXFOLIANTS
117
include scrubs containing
salicylic acid, glycolic acid, fruit enzymes, citric acid,
or malic acid which may be applied in high
concentrations by
a medical professional, or in lower
concentrations in over
-the
-counter products
.
CHEMICAL EXFOLIANTS
118
are used to address specific skin
concerns such as acne, dark spots,
hyperpigmentation, fine lines and
inflammation
. Skin treatment
products are all regulated and have
to be approved by the FDA
. They can
be in the forms of creams, gels,
lotions, solutions, serums and
medicated facial pads
.
TREATMENTS
119
usually contain antioxidants,
which help fight free radical damage
.
SERUMS
120
s a lotion, spray, gel, foam, stick or other
topical product that absorbs or reflects some of the sun's ultraviolet (UV) radiation and thus
helps protect against sunburn.
SUNSCREEN
121
stay on the surface of the skin and
mainly deflect the UV light
Physical Sunscreen
122
an opaque, full
-spectrum sunscreen also used to give
opacity to face powder and foundation
ZINC OXIDE
123
a full
-spectrum ,
which means that it protects the skin
from both UVA and UVB rays. It is also
used to give opacity to face powder,
eye shadow, and foundation.
Titanium Dioxide
124
absorb the UV light
Chemical Sunscreen
125
remove the outer layer of the skin, which
means they tend to go deeper to remove
more excess dead skin cells than
exfoliators.
* They usually contain glycolic, salicylic or
lactic acids
CHEMICAL PEEL
126
-it shrinks pores and restores skin to its natural pH
balance.
-this is important because when our pH levels are
thrown out of whack due to soaps and chemicals in
cleansers, oil production increases, causing a cycle of
breakouts.
-can be used after a cleanser twice a day to remove
excess traces of makeup or other residue from the skin.
TONER
127
product that adds water, and often some
emollients, to the skin.
MOISTURIZER
128
Dryness and flexibility cannot be corrected
with oils - Only ___-
WATER
129
____ is used to limit the evaporation of water.
OIL
130
An ingredient in skin or hair products that
draws moisture from the air to moisturize the skin and also
promotes the retention of moisture in the skin
HUMECTANT
131
- Supple, waxlike, lubricating, thickening
agents that prevent water loss and have a softening
and soothing effect on the skin
EMOLLIENT
132
-A skin conditioning agent which helps maintain the
smooth, soft pliable appearance of the skin.
- Usually a grease or an oil that softens the skin and
protects it from dryness.
EMOLLIENT
133
substances that hold strongly to
the surface of the skin, preventing access to the
air and increasing absorption of cosmetic
treatments.
OCCLUSIVES
134
is a nonspecific term
used to describe any
inflammatory skin disease
resulting from contact with
an irritant or allergenic
substance.
CONTACT DERMATITIS
135
Whatever the causative
agent, the clinical features
are similar: itching,
redness, and skin lesions.
CONTACT DERMATITIS
136
It is a term given to a complex group of localized
inflammatory reactions that follow
nonimmunological damage to the skin.
IRRITANT CONTACT DERMATITIS
137
The inflammation may be the result of an acute
toxic (usually chemical) insult to the skin, or of
repeated and cumulative damage from weaker
irritants (chemical or physical).
IRRITANT CONTACT DERMATITIS
138
the result of a single overwhelming exposure to a strong irritant or
a series of brief physical or chemical contacts, leading to acute inflammation of
the skin.
Acute ICD
139
develops as a result of a
series of repeated and damaging insults to the skin. The insults may be
chemical or physical.
Cumulative ICD
140
Some chemicals produce acute irritation in a delayed manner so that the signs
and symptoms of acute irritant dermatitis appear 12 to 24 hours or more after
the original insult
DELAYED ACUTE ICD
141
occurs when a substance comes into
contact with skin that has undergone an
acquired specific alteration in its reactivity
as a result of prior exposure of the skin to
the substance eliciting the dermatitis.
ALLERGIC CONTACT DERMATITIS
142
Gold Standard for ACD
PATCH TESTING
143
It is a chemically induced
nonimmunological skin irritation requiring
light. This reaction will occur in all
individuals exposed to the chemical–light
combination.
PHOTOIRRITANT CONTACT DERMATITIS
144
a component of bergamot oil,
is a potent photoirritant that causes
berloque dermatitis.
BERGAPTEN
145
It is an immunological response to a substance
that requires the presence of light.
PHOTOALLERGIC CONTACT DERMATITIS
146
Examples of photoallergens present in cosmetics
are __________ which
are present in fragrances
musk ambrette
6-methylcoumarin
147
It represents a heterogeneous group of
inflammatory reactions that appear,
usually within a few minutes to an hour,
after contact with the eliciting substance.
CONTACT URTICARIA SYNDROME
148
simplest of all tests and is the ‘‘first-line’’ test
OPEN TEST
149
The most
common class of
CUS. The reaction
usually remains
localized
Nonimmunological
Contact Urticaria
150
These are
immediate (Type I)
allergic reactions in
people who have
previously been
sensitized to the
causative agent
Immunological
Contact Urticaria
151
Examples of
cosmetic substances
known to produce
NICU are
Preservatives (benzoic acid and sorbic acid) &
Fragrances (cinnamic aldehyde)
152
is IgE mediated
and is more
common in atopic
individuals. Food
substances are
common causes
Immunological
Contact Urticaria
153
refers to the capacity of some agents
to cause acne or aggravate existing acne
lesions.
ACNEGENICITY
154
This is the capability of an agent to cause
hyperkeratinous impactions in the
sebaceous follicle, or the formation of
microcomedones, usually in a relatively
short period of time.
Comedogenicity
155
This refers to the capability of an
agent to cause inflammatory papules
and pustules, usually in a relatively
short period of time.
Pustulogenicity
156
a test for determining allergic sensitivity
that is made by applying to the unbroken
skin small pads soaked with the allergen
to be tested
PATCH TEST
157
allows the
assessment of the primary irritation
potential of a topical product.
48-hour patch test
158
The patch test is conducted on a panel of at least ____
25 SUBJECTS
159
a test for determining the irritation
and/or sensitization potential of a test
material(s), in support of sensitive skin
claims, after repeated application under
occlusive or semi-occlusive patches to
the skin of human subjects.
Human Repeat Insult Patch Test (HRIPT)
160
The HRIPT consists of ___ phase
2
161
a test to evaluate the skin condition
before and after one month of product
usage. The evaluator counts the number
of comedons and blackheads on the
forehead, cheeks and chin.
NON-COMEDOGENIC TEST
162
a test to evaluate skin condition
before and after one month of
product usage. The evaluator
counts the number of acne
lesions (papules and pustules) on
the forehead, cheeks and chin.
NON-ACNEGENIC TEST
163
a test that allows to assess the irritation potential of a topical product applied
on the eye contour area.
PERIOCULAR TOLERANCE TEST
164
The study is conducted under the supervision of an ophthalmologist. The
condition of the eye and around the eye area is examined before and after a
given period of product usage.
PERIOCULAR TOLERANCE TEST
