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PSMB > BIOPHARM - VIOLET > Flashcards

BIOPHARM - VIOLET Flashcards

PACOP

1
Q

It is the ability of a drug to exist in two or more crystalline form:
A. Chirality
B. Polymorphism
C. Stereoisomerism
D. A and C
E. None of these

A

B

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2
Q

Arrange the following dosage forms from highest to lowest dissolution rate:
I. Solution III. Suspension
II. Capsule IV. Tablet
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, III, II, IV
C. IV, III, II, I
D. IV, II, III, I
E. None of these

A

B

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3
Q

All of the following statements aretrye regarding particle size of a drug, EXCEPT:
A. Reducing the particle size can decrease the surface are the molecule exposed to the solvent.
B. Reduction of paticle size can be achieved by micronisation using jet mill, spray drying and air attrition
methods.
C. The dissolution of some drugs available in the market has been improved by reducing the particle
size.
D. Reducing the particle size of a drug may increase drug absorption.
E. None of these

A

A

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4
Q

Which of the following may increase drug dissolution rate?
I. Too muh binder
II. Insoluble diluents
III. High amount of lubricants
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II, AND III
E. None of these

A

E

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5
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding the purpose of tablet coating?
A. Improves palatability
B. Improve aesthetic value of tablet
C. Improve stability
D. Improve in-vivo degradation
E. None of these

A

D

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6
Q

A surface active agent that facilitates the absorption of lipophilic drug or water insoluble drugs
A. Bile
B. Albumin
C. Renin
D. Gastric acid
E. None of these

A

A

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7
Q

Phase 2 metabolism that protects the body against chemically reactive metabolites
A. Sulfate conjugation
B. Glutathione conjugation
C. Methylation
D. Acetylation
E. Glycine conjugation

A

B

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8
Q

All of the following listed below are processes of drug excretion, EXCEPT:
A. Glomerular filtration
B. Active secretion
C. Tubular secretion
D. Tubular reabsorption
E. None of these

A

E

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9
Q

It is the basic functional unit of the kidney
A. Glomerulus
B. Loop of henle
C. Nephron
D. Collecting tubule
E. None of these

A

C

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10
Q

Creatinine clearance of a patient with kidney failure
A. 60-89 mL
B. 30-59 mL
C. 15-29 mL
D. <15 mL
E. None of these

A

D

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11
Q

Which of the following drugs listed belowwill increase its clearance at alkaline urine?
I. Amphetamine
II. Imipramine
III. Barbiturates
IV. Salicylic acid
A. I and II C. III and IV E. None of these
B. II and III D. All of these

A

C

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12
Q

Which of the following correctly describes ion trapping
A. Changing the pH of urine used to facilitate the elimination of drug that proved to be toxic to a patient
or has been taken in overdosed amount
B. Administration of acidic drug to neutralize am alkaline poison in the stomach
C. Alkalinizing the urine to facilitate excretion of weakly basic drugs
D. A and C
E. None of these

A

A

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13
Q

Discipline that applie Pharmacokinetic concepts and principles in humans in order to design individualized
dosage regimens that optimize the therapeutic response of a medication while minimizing the chance of an
adverse drug reaction
A. Clinical toxicology
B. Clinical pharmacy
C. Clinical Pharmacokinetics
D. Pharmacotherapeutics
E. None of these

A

C

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14
Q

Chemical conversion of the drug molecule, usually by an enzymatically mediated reaction, into another
chemical entity referred to as a metabolite
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
E. None of these

A

C

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15
Q

Volume of serum or blood completely cleared of the drug per unit time
A. Volume of distribution
B. Clearance
C. Elimination
D. Plasma concentration
E. None of these

A

B

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16
Q

Hypothetical volume that relates drug serum concentrations to the amount of drug in the body
A. Volume of distribution
B. Clearance
C. Drug Elimination
D. Plasma concentration
E. None of these

A

A

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17
Q

All of the following factors affects the volume of distribution of drug, EXCEPT
A. Volume of blood
B. Size of various organs and tissue in the body
C. Protein binding
D. Physicochemical properties of drug
E. None of these

A

E

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18
Q

The fraction of administered dose that is delivered to the systemic circulation is known as the
A. Loading of dose
B. Maintenance dose
C. Bioavailability
D. Active dose
E. None of these

A

C

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19
Q

Below is an example of
A. Dose response curve
B. Plasma level time curve
C. Quantal dose response curve
D. A and B
E. None of these

A

B

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20
Q

All of the following are true regarding the rate of drug distribution, EXCEPT:
A. The rate of drug distribution will be faster in highly perfuse tissues
B. The blood brain barrier(BBB) prevents the distribution of many polar compounds in the blood to the
brain tissues
C. Only the lipophilic compounds can distribute across BBB by passive diffusion
D. The equilibrium between the drug in the blood and the drug in highly perfused tissues is achieved
slower than the equilibrium between the drug in blood and the poorly perfused tissues
E. Non of these

A

D

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21
Q

Which of the following factors affect drug distribution?
1. Blood perfusion
2. Tissue composition
3. Plasma protein binding
4 Physicochemical properties of drug

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
E. None of these

A

D

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22
Q

Technique in the determination of drug plasma protein binding that utilize a special dialysis chamber that is separated
into two halves by a semipermeable membrane that allows the transfer of the free drug molecule but not the drug bound
to protein.
A. Ultrafiltration
B. Equilibrium dialysis
C. Hemodialysis
D. A and B
E. None of these

A

B

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23
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding volume of distribution (Vd) ?
A. Relates the amount of absorbed drug
B. Total volume of the drug absorbed
C. Drugs that are highly distributed
into the tissues have low Vd
D. Drugs that are highly bound to plasma
with the amount of eliminated drug. proteins have low Vd
E. All of these

A

D

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24
Q

Elimination of a drug refers to:
I. Excretion of unchanged drug in the urine
II. Renal excretion of drug
III. Uptake of a drug from the blood into the liver
IV. Metabolism of drug in the liver
V. Distribution of drug into fat
A. I and II D. III and V
B. II and III E. None of these
C. II and IV

A

C

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25
Q

The loading dose of a drug is determined by:
I. Drug clearance
II. Elimination rate
III. Target plasma drug concentration
IV. Volume of distribution
V. Duration of drug effect
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. IV and V
E. All of these

A

C

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26
Q

Half-life:
I. Increases as the clearance increases
II. Decreases as the volume of distribution increases
III. Decreases as clearance increases
IV. Increases as volume of distribution increases
V. Increases as the elimination rate increases

A. I and II D. IV and V
B. II and III E. None of these
C. III and IV

A

C

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27
Q

After a single dose of a drug which has a half-life of 12 hours, what percentage of the dose is still in the body after 1
day?
A. 87.5% D. 25%
B. 75% E. 12.5%
C. 50%

A

D

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28
Q

Which of the following routes of administration completely avoid first pass clearance?
I. Buccal
II. Sublingual
III. Rectal
IV. Oral
V. Transdermal
A. I and II D. I, II and V
B. I, II and III E. III and V
C. I, II and IV

A

D

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29
Q

The term linear pharmacokinetic means:
I. A plot of drug concentration vs. time is linear
II. Half-life increases proportionally with dose
III. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time
IV. Clearance is proportional to the dose
V. Steady state drug concentration is proportional to the dose
A. I only D. II and IV
B. I and II E. V only
C. III only

A

E

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30
Q

Which of the following process are saturable and can result in non-linear pharmacokinetics?
I. Drug metabolism
II. Glomerular filtration
III. Protein binding
IV. Renal tubular secretion
A. I only
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II, and IV
D. I, III and IV
E. None of these

A

D

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31
Q

The study of the time course of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion is called:
A. Pharmacodynamics D. Kinetics Homogeneity
B. Drug concentration E. Biopharmaceutics
C. Pharmacokinetics

A

C

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32
Q

The application of pharmacokinetic principles to the safe and effective therapeutic management of drugs in and
individual patient is known as:
A. Pharmacodynamics D. Biopharmaceutics
B. Pharmacokinetics E. None of these
C. Clinical pharmacokinetics

A

C

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33
Q

Pharmacodynamics refers to the relationship of drug:
A. Dose to drug concentration in plasma D. Dose to drug effect
B. Dose to drug concentration at the E. None of these
receptor site
C. Concentration to drug effect

A

C

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34
Q

The EC50 refers to the drug concentration at which:
A. One-half the maximum response is achieved. D. Minimum effective concentration
B. The maximal effect is achieved. E. Minimum toxic concentration
C. Tolerance is likely to be observed.

A

A

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35
Q

An example of a situation that would not support therapeutic drug concentration monitoring with plasma drug
concentrations would be one in which:
A. A wide variation in plasma drug concentrations is achieved in different patients given a standar
drug dose.
B. The toxic plasma concentration is many times the therapeutic concentration range.
C. Correlation between a drug’s plasma concentration and therapeutic response is good.
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

B

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36
Q

The most commonly used model in clinical pharmacokinetic situations is the:
A. One-compartment model
B. Two-compartment model
C. Multicompartment model
D. A and C
E. All of these

A

A

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37
Q

Instantaneous distribution to most body tissues and fluids is assumed in
which of the following models?
A. One-compartment model
B. Two-compartment model
C. Multicompartment model
D. A and C
E. All of these

A

A

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38
Q

For a drug that has first-order elimination and follows a one-compartment model,
which of the following plots would result in a curved line?
A. Plasma concentration versus time D. A and B
B. Natural log of plasma concentration
E. B and C
versus time
C. Common log of plasma concentration
versus time

A

A

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39
Q

For the body fluid compartments below, rank them from the lowest volume to the highest, in a typical 70-kg person.
A. Plasma < extracellular fluid < intracellular D. Total body water < plasma <
fluid < total body water intracellular fluid < extracellular fluid
B. Extracellular fluid < intracellular fluid < E. None of these
plasma < total body water
C. Intracellular fluid < extracellular fluid <
plasma < total body water

A

A

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40
Q

All of the following are true regarding clearance, EXCEPT
I. The unit for clearance is volume/time
II. Total body clearance is the sum of clearance by the kidneys, liver,
and other routes of elimination
III. To determine drug clearance, we must first determine whether a drug
best fits one or two compartment model
A. I only D. III only
B. II only E. None of these
C. II and III

A

D

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41
Q

With a drug that follows first-order elimination, the amount of drug eliminated per unit time:
A. Remains constant while the fraction of drug eliminated decreases
B. Decreases while the fraction of drug eliminated remains constant.
C. Increases while the fraction of drug eliminated remains constant.
D. B or C
E. None of these

A

B

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42
Q

Which of the following is a proper unit for 1st order elimination rate constant?
A. Minutes D. mg/L
B. mg/minute E. A and B
C. hr1

A

C

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43
Q

Trapezoidal rule method is used in the computation of:
A. K D. Vd
B. T1⁄2 E. Cl
C. AUC

A

C

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44
Q

Which of the following are true regarding AUC?
I. Can be used to determine drug clearance
II. Reflects the amount of drug absorbed
III. Dose administered divided by the drug’s clearance
A. I only D. All of these
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III

A

D

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45
Q

Gentamicin has a t1⁄2 of:
A. 39 hours C. 7 hours E. 2-3 hours
B. 22 hours D. 20 hours

A

E

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46
Q

The time between administration of doses is the:
A. Onset time D. tmax
B. Dosing range E. None of these
C. Dosing interval

A

C

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47
Q

The point at which the amount of drug administered over a dosing interval equals the amount of drug being eliminated
over that same period and is totally dependent on the elimination rate constant
A. Rate constant D. Absorption phase
B. Steady state E. None of these
C. Elimination

A

B

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48
Q

Steady-state concentration can be increase by adjusting which of the following parameters?
I. t1⁄2
II. Dose administered
III. Dosing interval
A. I only D. All of these
B. II only E. None of these
C. II and III

A

C

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49
Q

To predict the plasma concentration of a drug at any time t after n number of doses, we therefore need to know which
among the following values?
I. Drug dose
II. Volume of distribution
III. Elimination rate constant
IV. Dosing interval
A. I and II D. All of these
B. II and III E. None of these
C. III and IV

A

D

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50
Q

This method of giving multiple doses by infusion at specified intervals is called:
A. IV bolus D. A and B
B. Intermittent IV infusion E. None of these
C. Multiple infusion

A

B

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51
Q

For a drug regimen, if the elimination rate (K) of a drug is reduced while volume of distribution, drug dose, and dosing
interval remain constant, the peak and trough concentrations will:
A. increase D. A or B
B. decrease E. None of these
C. remains the same

A

A

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52
Q

Method used in toxicokinetics and for the extrapolation of therapeutic drug doses in humans from nonclinical animal
drug studies.
A. Interspecies scaling D. A and C
B. Toxicological extrapolation E. None of these
C. Linear analysis

A

A

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53
Q

A condition in which glomerular filtration is impaired or reduced, leading to accumulation of excessive fluid and blood
nitrogenous products in the body.
A. Cystitis D. Hypovolemia
B. Uremia E. None of these
C. Pancreatitis

A

B

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54
Q

Common cause of kidney failure, EXCEPT:
I. Pyelonephritis
II. Hypotension
III. Diabetes mellitus
IV. Nephroallergens
A. I only C. II only E. IV only
B. I and II D. III and IV

A

C

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55
Q

A fructose polysaccharide used as a standard reference for the measurement of GFR:
A. Chitosan D. Chitin
B. Inulin E. A and B
C. Cellulose

A

B

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56
Q

The normal blood urea nitrogen for a patient is:
A. 1-10 mg/dL D. 30-40 mg/dL
B. 10-20 mg/dL E. 40-50 mg/dL
C. 20-30 mg/dL

A

B

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57
Q

Which of the following are true regarding creatinine clearance?
I. Volume of plasma cleared of creatinine per unit time
II. Calculated directly by dividing rate of urinary excretion of creatinine by the
patient’s serum creatinine concentration
III. Creatinine clearance is expressed in mL/min and serum creatinine
concentration in mg/dL or mg%
A. I only D. All of these
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III

A

D

58
Q

Stage of kidney disease with creatinine clearance of 30-59 mL/min
A. Stage 1 D. Stage 4
B. Stage 2 E. Stage 5
C. Stage 3

A

C

59
Q

Patients with mild decrease in glomerular filtration rate has a creatinine clearance of:
A. > 90 mL/min D. 15-29 mL/min
B. 60-89 mL/min E. < 15 mL/min
C. 30-59 mL/min

A

B

60
Q

An artificial process in which the accumulation of drugs or waste metabolites is removed by diffusion from the body
into the specialized fluid
A. Dialysis D. A and C
B. Hemodiffusion E. None of these
C. Ultrafiltration

A

A

61
Q

Uses a dialysis machine and filters blood through an artificial membrane. It requires access to the blood vessels to
allow the blood to flow to the dialysis machine and back to the body.
A. Hemodialysis D. Hemoperfusion
B. Peritoneal dialysis E. Hemofiltration
C. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis

A

A

62
Q

The process of removing drug by passing the blood from the patient through an adsorbent material and back to the
patient:
A. Hemodialysis D. Hemoperfusion
B. Peritoneal dialysis E. Hemofiltration
C. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis

A

D

63
Q

A process by which fluids, electrolytes, and small molecular weight substances are removed from the blood by means
of low pressure flow through hollow artificial fibers or flat plate membranes
A. Hemodialysis D. Hemoperfusion
B. Peritoneal dialysis E. Hemofiltration
C. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis

A

E

64
Q

Which of the following are true regarding dosing consideration on patients with hepatic impairments?
I. All liver diseases affect the pharmacokinetics of the drugs to the same extent
II. Drug-protein binding may be altered due to attention in hepatic synthesis o
albumin.
III. Metabolism of drugs with high intrinsic clearance may be impaired.
IV. Drugs with a wide therapeutic range will be less affected by moderate hepatic
impairment.
A. I, II and III D. All of these
B. II, III and IV E. None of these

A

B

65
Q

Hepatic metabolic marker found in liver and many other tissues, including cardiac and skeletal muscles:
A. ALT D. SGPT
B. ALP E. A and D
C. AST

A

C

66
Q

Hepatic metabolic marker that is only specific on liver:
A. ALT D. SGPT
B. ALP E. A and D
C. AST

A

E

67
Q

Patients having liver disease have the following pharmacokinetic characteristics except:
A. Increase drug protein binding D. Increase Vd for hydrophilic drugs
B. Decreased drug metabolism E. None of these
C. Increase drug half-life

A

A

68
Q

Pregnancy category wherein there is a positive evidence of risk in taking the drug but the benefit in taking the drug
outweighs the risk.
A. Category A D. Category D
B. Category B E. Category X
C. Category C

A

D

69
Q

Pharmacokinetic behavior of geriatric patients:
I. Impaired absorption
II. Slow metabolism
III. Prolonged drug half-life
A. I only D. All of these
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III

A

D

70
Q

All of the following are true regarding capacity limited excretion, EXCEPT:
A. Passive secretion and passive reabsorption D. A and B
are saturable processes
B. Saturated tubular secretion decreases ClR E. None of these
C. Saturated tubular reabsorption increases ClR
80. Example of a drug that exhibits saturable protein binding:
I. Nicardipine
II. Propranolol
III. Amoxicillin
A. I only D. All of these
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III

A

B

71
Q

The following parameters listed below can be adjusted when designing a multiple dosage regimen except:
A. Size of dose administered D. All of these
B. Drug protein binding E. None of these
C. Dosing interval

A

B

72
Q

The initial step in the elimination process via the kidney occurs in the:
A. Glomerulus D. Proximal tubule
B. Nephron E. None of these
C. Distal Tubule

A

A

73
Q

The capacity of the body to eliminate the drug after it has reached the general circulation is reflected by the:
A. Total clearance
B. Volume of distribution
C. Biliary recycling
D. AUC
E. None of these

A

A

74
Q

The process of drug metabolism and excretion constitute:
A. Deposition D. Biotransformation
B. Elimination E. Clearance
C. Accumulation

A

B

75
Q

True about enzyme induction:
I. Low therapeutic levels of active drug (decrease drug efficacy)
II. Prodrug (decrease in efficacy)
III. Toxic metabolite (decrease in toxicity)
A. I only D. IV only
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III

A

A

76
Q

Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are utilized in Phase I Metabolism?
I. CYP3A4
II. UDP glucuronosyl acyltransferase
III. N-acetyltransferase
A. I only C. II and III E. All of these
B. I and II D. I and III

A

A

77
Q

Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are utilized in Phase II Metabolism?
I. CYP3A4
II. UDP glucuronosyl acyltransferase
III. N-acetyltransferase
A. I only C. II and III E. All of these
B. I and II D. I and III

A

C

78
Q

A lipophilic medicinal agent has the following property:
A. Low ability to penetrate through the D. High reabsorption in renal tubules
cell membrane lipids
B. Penetrate through membranes by E. None of these
means of endocytosis
C. Low permeatation

A

D

79
Q

The plasma level time curve below follows what compartment model?
A. One compartment D. A or B
B. Two compartment E. None of these
C. Three compartment

A

A

80
Q

Drug Clearance:
I. A measure of drug elimination from the body
II. Drug clearance refers to the volume of plasma fluid that is cleared of drug per unit
III. Clearance may also be considered as the fraction of drug removed per unit time
multiplied by the rte constant
A. I only D. I and III
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III

A

B

81
Q

Volume of distribution:
I. The theoretical volume that would be necessary to contain the total amount of an
administered drug at the same concentration that is observed in the plasma
II. Indicator of the extent of drug distribution into body fluids and tissues
III. Important in calculation of drug dose
A. I only D. I and III
B. I and II E. All of these
C. II and III

A

E

82
Q

The amount of drug A is decreasing at a rate that is proportional to the amount of drug A
A. Non-linear pharmacokinetics D. Enzyme kinetics
B. 1st order E. B or C
C. Zero order

A

B

83
Q

Procedures employing test apparatus and equipment without involving laboratory animals or humans.
A. In-vivo D. Ex-vivo
B. In-silico E. All of these
C. In-vitro

A

C

84
Q

Release of the drug substance from the drug product either for local drug action or for drug absorption into the plasma
for systemic therapeutic activity
A. Drug product performance D. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics E. A and B
C. Biopharmaceutics

A

A

85
Q

Biopharmaceutics examines the interrelationship of the following, EXCEPT:
I. Physical/chemical properties of the drug
II. The dosage form (drug product) in which the drug is given
III. Route of administration
IV. Rate and extent of systemic drug absorption.
A. I only D. IV only
B. II only E. None of these
C. II and III

A

E

86
Q

Oral, topical, parenteral, transdermal, inhalation are examples of:
A. Dosage form D. A and B
B. Route of administration E. None of these
C. Therapeutic effect

A

B

87
Q

Application of pharmacokinetic principles to the design, conduct and interpretation of drug safety evaluation studies
and in validating dose related exposure in animals.
A. Toxicokinetics D. Pharmacokinetics
B. Biopharmaceutics E. A and B
C. Pharmacodynamics

A

A

88
Q
A
88
Q

Include sampling blood, spinal fluid, synovial fluid, tissue biopsy, or any biologic material that requires parenteral or
surgical intervention in the patient.
A. In-vitro methods D. Ex-vivo methods
B. Invasive methods E. None of these
C. Non-invasive methods

A

B

89
Q

Include sampling of urine, saliva, feces, expired air, or any biologic material that can be obtained without parenteral
or surgical intervention.
A. In-vitro methods D. Ex-vivo methods
B. Invasive methods E. None of these
C. Non-invasive methods

A

C

90
Q

The noncellular liquid fraction of whole blood and contains all the proteins including albumin
A. Platelet D. Fibrin
B. Serum E. None of these
C. Plasma

A

C

91
Q

Liquid obtained from whole blood after the blood is allowed to clot and the clot is removed. Does not contain the
cellulr elements, fibrinogen, or the other clotting factors from the blood.
A. Platelet D. Fibrin
B. Serum E. None of these
C. Plasma

A

B

92
Q

Indicate the part of a plasma level-time curve
A. tmax D. MEC
B. Therapeutic range E. MTC
C. Cmax

A

B

93
Q

Indicate the part of a plasma level-time curve
A. Cmax
B. tmax
C. Onset time
D. AUC
E. Therapeutic range

A

A

94
Q

Indicate the part of a plasma level-time curve
A. Duration of action D. MTC
B. Onset time E. tmax
C. MEC

A

A

95
Q

Indicate the part of a plasma level-time curve

A. Duration of action D. MTC
B. Onset time E. tmax
C. MEC

A

C

96
Q

Indicate the part of a plasma level-time curve
A. Cmax D. MTC
B. tmax E. AUC
C. MEC

A

D

97
Q

Indicate the part of a plasma level-time curve
A. tmax D. Duration of action
B. Cmax E. MEC
C. Onset time

A

C

98
Q

Indicate the part of a plasma level-time curve
A. tmax D. MTC
B. Cmax E. MEC
C. Onset time

A

A

99
Q

Difference between the onset time and the time for the drug to decline back to the MEC.
A. Duration of action D. Cmax
B. Onset time E. MTC
C. AUC

A

A

100
Q

Corresponds to the time required for the drug to reach the MEC
A. Duration of action D. Cmax
B. Onset time E. MTC
C. AUC

A

B

101
Q

The plasma level time curve below portrays a drug that is administered in what route of administration?
A. IV bolus D. Intramuscular
B. Oral E. None of these
C. IV infusion

A

B

102
Q

Presence of drug in this sample may reflect drug that has not been absorbed after an oral dose or may relfect drug
that has been expelled by biliary secretion after systemic absorption.
A. Feces D. Milk
B. Urine E. Sweat
C. Saliva

A

B

103
Q

Unit for zero order rate constant:
A. Concentration/time D. Concentration x time
B. Drug/volume E. 1/time
C. Volume/time

A

A

104
Q

Unit for clearance:
A. Concentration/time
B. Drug/volume
C. Volume/time
D. Concentration x time
E. 1/time

A

C

105
Q

Unit for plasma drug concentration
A. Concentration/time
B. Drug/volume
C. Volume/time
D. Concentration x time
E. 1/time

A

B

106
Q

Unit for area under the curve
A. Concentration/time
B. Drug/volume
C. Volume/time
D. Concentration x time
E. 1/time

A

D

107
Q

Unit for 1st order rate constant:

A. Concentration/time
B. Drug/volume
C. Volume/time
D. Concentration x time
E. 1/time

A

E

108
Q

All of the following are included in the peripheral compartment/tissue compartment, EXCEPT:
I. Fat
II. Muscle
III. Cerebrospinal fluid
IV. Plasma
A. I and II D. IV only
B. II only E. None of these
C. III and IV

A

D

109
Q

The curve that represents the initial, more rapid decline of drug from the central compartment into the tissue
compartment as seen in the plasma level time curve below is:
A. Absorption phase D. Metabolism phase
B. Distribution phase E. Elimination phase
C. Excretion phase

A

B

110
Q

The pharmacokinetics of a drug given by constant IV infusion follows what input process?
A. Zero order D. A or B
B. 1st order E. None of these
C. 2nd order

A

A

111
Q

Constant IV drug infusion are considered to have zero order drug absorption because of the direct input. Once the
drug is infused, most of the drug is eliminated by first order elimination.
A. Only the 1st statement is correct D. Both statement is correct
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct E. Cannot determine the validity
C. Both statement is incorrect

A

D

112
Q

Drug elimination is usually divided into two major components: excretion and biotransformation. Drug excretion is the
removal of the interact drug.
A. Only the 1st statement is correct D. Both statement is correct
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct E. Cannot determine the validity
C. Both statement is incorrect

A

D

113
Q

Nonvolatile and polar drugs are excreted mainly by renal excretion. Volatile drugs, such as gaseous anesthetics,
alcohol or drugs with hig volatility, are excreted via the lungs into expired air.
A. Only the 1st statement is correct D. Both statement is correct
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct E. Cannot determine the validity
C. Both statement is incorrect

A

D

114
Q

Biotransformation is the process by which the drug is chemically converted in the body to a metabolite. Other name
for drug biotransformation is drug elimination.
A. Only the 1st statement is correct D. Both statement is correct
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct E. Cannot determine the validity
C. Both statement is incorrect

A

A

115
Q

The two major drug eliminating organs in the body:
I. Heart
II. Lungs
III. Liver
IV. Kidney
A. I and II D. I and IV
B. II and III E. I and III
C. III and IV

A

C

116
Q

The two major drug eliminating organs in the body:
I. Heart
II. Lungs
III. Liver
IV. Kidney
A. I and II D. I and IV
B. II and III E. I and III
C. III and IV

A

A

117
Q

The processes by which a drug is excreted via the kidneys may include any combination of the following listed below,
EXCEPT:
I. Glomerular filtration
II. Active tubular secretion
III. Passive secretion

IV. Tubular reabsorption
A. I only D. II and III
B. I and II E. III only
C. II only

A

E

118
Q

Unidirectional drug excretion process that occurs for most small molecules (MW < 500), including nonionized and
ionized drugs.
A. Glomerular filtration D. Enterohepatic recycling
B. Active tubular secretion E. None of these
C. Tubular reabsorption

A

A

119
Q

A carrier mediated system that requires energy input, because the drug is transported against a concentration
gradient.
A. Glomerular filtration D. Enterohepatic recycling
B. Active tubular secretion E. None of these
C. Tubular reabsorption

A

B

120
Q

Occurs after the drug is filtered through the glomerulus and can be an active or passive involving transporting back of
the drug into the plasma:
A. Glomerular filtration D. Enterohepatic recycling
B. Active tubular secretion E. None of these
C. Tubular reabsorption

A

C

121
Q

All of the following listed below are characteristics of active tubular secretion process, EXCEPT:
I. Carrier mediated system that requires energy input
II. Drugs with similar structures may compete for the same carrier system
III. It can be a passive process
A. I only D. III only
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III

A

E

122
Q

Active tubular secretion happens in this part of kidney:
A. Glomerulus D. Collecting Duct
B. Proximal tubule E. None of these
C. Distal tubule

A

B

123
Q

Tubular reabsorption happens in this part of kidney:
A. Glomerulus D. Collecting Duct
B. Proximal tubule E. None of these
C. Distal tubule

A

C

124
Q

Which renal elimination processes are influenced by protein binding?
A. Glomerular filtration D. Enterohepatic recycling
B. Active tubular secretion E. None of these
C. Tubular reabsorption

A

A

125
Q

Which renal elimination processes are influenced by urinary pH?
A. Glomerular filtration D. Enterohepatic recycling
B. Active tubular secretion E. None of these
C. Tubular reabsorption

A

C

126
Q

Which renal elimination processes are influenced by competitive inhibitors?
A. Glomerular filtration D. Enterohepatic recycling
B. Active tubular secretion E. None of these
C. Tubular reabsorption

A

B

127
Q

The purpose of giving a loading dose is to achieve desired plasma concentrations as quickly as possible. For a drug
with long elimination half-life, it may take a long time to achieve steady state levels.
A. Only the 1st statement is correct D. Both statement is correct
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct E. Cannot determine the validity
C. Both statement is incorrect

A

D

128
Q

When several doses are administered for a drug with linear kinetics, drug accumulation may occur according to the
principle of superposition. The principle of superposition is used to examine the effect of an early, late, or missing dose on
steady state drug concentration.
A. Only the 1st statement is correct D. Both statement is correct
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct E. Cannot determine the validity
C. Both statement is incorrect

A

D

129
Q

Example of a drugs that undergo nonlinear pharmacokinetics thru saturable plasma protein binding:
I. Phenylbutazone
II. Warfarin
III. Levodopa
IV. Riboflavin
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. III and IV
E. IV only

A

B

130
Q

Example of a drugs that undergo nonlinear pharmacokinetics thru saturable transport in GUT wall:
I. Phenylbutazone
II. Warfarin
III. Levodopa
IV. Riboflavin
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. III and IV
E. IV only

A

D

131
Q

Drugs that demonstrate saturation kinetics usually shiw which of the following characteristics?
I. Elimination of drug does not follow simple first order kinetics
II. Elimination kinetics are linear
III. The area under the curve is not proportional to tge amount
IV. The elimination of half-life does not change as dose is increased.
A. I only D. II and III
B. I and III E. I and IV
C. II and III

A

B

132
Q

Refers to a noncyclical change in the drug absorption or drug eliminationrate process over a period of time.
A. Chronopharmacokinetics D. Linear pharmacokinetics
B. Time-dependent pharmacokinetics E. A or B
C. Product inhibition

A

B

133
Q

Represents the pressure gradient between the arterial end of the capillaries entering the tissue and the venous
capillaries leaving the tissue.
A. Osmotic pressure D. Arterial pressure
B. Concentration gradient E. Venous pressure
C. Hydrostatic pressure

A

C

134
Q

Which of the following human tissues receives the highest blood flow?
A. Kidney D. Fat
B. Heart E. Muscle
C. Brain

A

A

135
Q

Which of the following human tissues receives the least blood flow?
A. Kidney D. Fat
B. Heart E. Muscle
C. Brain

A

D

136
Q

Physical property thay measures the ratio of the solubitity of the drug in the oil phase to solubility in aqueous phase
A. Osmotuc gradient D. Absorption coefficient
B. Partition coefficient E. Diffusion coefficient
C. Solubility gradient

A

B

137
Q

The volume of blood that perfuses the liver which is cleared of drug per unit of time
A. Cardiac output D. Renal clearance
B. Regional blood flow E. Body clearance
C. Hepatic clearance

A

C

138
Q

Acetaminophen is converted to a reactive metabolite which causes hepatic necrosis thru what biotransformation
reaction?
A. Demethylation D. Deamination
B. Acetylation E. Conjugation
C. Aromatic hydroxylation

A

C

139
Q

Codeine is converted to morphine thru what biotransformation reaction?
A. Demethylation D. Deamination
B. Acetylation E. Conjugation
C. Aromatic hydroxylation

A

A

140
Q

These drugs are inactive and must be biotransformed in the body to metabolites that have pharmacologic activity:
A. Enteric coated drugs D. Xenobiotics
B. Prodrugs E. Lead drug
C. Orphan drug

A

B

PSMB (20 decks)

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