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Semester 3: Mind and Movement > PBL Topic 3 Case 4 > Flashcards

PBL Topic 3 Case 4 Flashcards

1
Q

How is sound energy transmitted through a gaseous, liquid or solid medium?

A
  • Setting up vibration of the medium’s molecules
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2
Q

What is a decibel and why is loudness measured in this way?

A
  • Logarithmic function of sound pressure

- The human ear can detect an enormous range of volume variations

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3
Q

What determines the pitch of a sound that we hear?

A
  • Frequency
  • Measured in hertz
  • The faster the vibration, the higher the pitch
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4
Q

What is the zone of compression of a sound wave?

A
  • Molecules are close together

- Pressure is increased

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5
Q

What is the zone of compression of a sound wave?

A
  • Molecules are further apart

- Pressure is lower

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6
Q

How does the zone of compression affect the tympanic membrane

A
  • Under high pressure the tympanic membrane bows inward
  • The distance that it moves depends on the force that the molecules hit it, which is related to pressure and hence loudness
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7
Q

How does the zone of rarefaction affect the tympanic membrane

A
  • Under low pressure the tympanic membrane bows outward
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8
Q

What is the role of the pharyngotympanic tube

A
  • When open, it maintains a pressure in the middle ear that is equal to atmospheric pressure
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9
Q

What is the role of the ossicles of the middle ear?

A
  • They act as a single piston

- That couple the vibrations of the tympanic membrane to the oval window.

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10
Q

Why is the force exerted on the oval window much greater than that exerted on the tympanic membrane?

A
  • The total force applied to the tympanic membrane is exerted onto the oval window
  • The oval window is much smaller than the tympanic membrane
  • Therefore the force per unit area is much greater
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11
Q

What is the attenuation reflex?

A
  • Loud sounds in the middle ear cause contraction of tensor tympani
  • Tensor tympani pulls handle of malleus medially
  • Stapedius moves stapes posteriorly
  • Increasing rigidity in middle ear
  • Reducing conduction of loud damaging sounds
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12
Q

Where is endolymph located and secreted, and what are its contents?

A
  • Cochlear duct
  • Secreted by stria vascularis
  • High potassium and low sodium concentration
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13
Q

Where is perilymph located and what are its contents?

A
  • Scala vestibuli and scale tympani

- High sodium concentration and low potassium concentration

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14
Q

What causes vibration of the basilar membrane?

A
  • Movement of stapes causing oval window to bow medially
  • Causing pressure waves in the scala vestibuli
  • The pressure waves are transmitted across the cochlear duct
  • And cause the basilar membrane to vibrate in the direction of the round window
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15
Q

Where does high frequency resonance occur and why?

A
  • Near the base of the cochlea duct
  • Where the basilar fibres are short and stiff
  • Which vibrate better at high frequency
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16
Q

Where does low frequency resonance occur and why?

A
  • Near the helicotrema
  • Where the basilar fibres are long and thin
  • And vibrate better at low frequency
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17
Q

Where is the organ of Corti located and what is its structure?

A
  • On the surface of the basilar fibres of the basilar membrane
  • A single row of larger internal hair cells
  • Three or four rows of external hair cells
  • Tectorial membrane
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18
Q

Outline how depolarisation of hair cells occurs

A
  • Pressure waves displace the basilar membrane
  • Stereocilia bend in the direction of the longer hairs
  • Which causes tip links to open cation channels
  • Large influx from rich endolymph from cochlear duct into the hair cell which depolarises the membrane
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19
Q

Outline how cochlear nerve endings are stimulated by an excited hair cell

A
  • As a result of potassium influx
  • There is opening of voltage gated calcium channels
  • Which release glutamate that binds to binding sites on the afferent neurons
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20
Q

What is the role of outer hair cells?

A
  • Outer hair cells sharpen frequency tuning at each point along membrane
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21
Q

Where are the dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei located?

A
  • Upper part of the medulla
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22
Q

Outline the projections of the dorsal cochlear nucleus to the inferior colliculi

A
  • Project via the dorsal acoustic stria and lateral lemniscus to the contralateral inferior colliculus
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23
Q

Outline the projections of the ventral cochlear nucleus to the inferior colliculi

A
  • Project via the trapezoid body to the superior olivary nucleus to the lateral lemniscus and inferior colliculi
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24
Q

Outline the auditory nerve pathway from the inferior colliculus to the primary auditory cortex

A
  • To the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus

- From the medial geniculate nucleus through the auditory radiation to the superior temporal gyrus

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25
Q

Outline two brain regions that auditory nerve fibres project to that respond to loud sound

A
  • Reticular activating system

- Vermis of the cerebellum

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26
Q

Outline how sound frequency is percieved in the auditory cortex and association areas

A
  • Tonotopic maps
  • High frequency sounds excite posterior neurons sounds while low frequency sounds excite anterior neurons
  • Caused by lateral inhibition
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27
Q

What is the role of the lateral superior olivary nuclei?

A
  • Concerned with direction sound is coming from

- By comparing the intensities of the sound reaching the two ears

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28
Q

What is the role of the medial superior olivary nuclei?

A
  • Concerned with direction sound is coming from

- By comparing the time lag between the sounds entering the two ears

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29
Q

What are centrifugal fibres?

A
  • Retrograde inhibitory pathways
  • From the cortex to the cochlea
  • Which allow attention of particular sound qualities and rejection of others
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30
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area located?

A
  • Superior temporal gyrus

- Posterior to the primary auditory cortex

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31
Q

What is the role of Wernicke’s area in speech?

A
  • Sensory: Interpretation of language

- Motor: Determination of choice of words to be spoken

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32
Q

Where is Broca’s area located?

A
  • Prefrontal cortex
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33
Q

What is the role of Broca’s area in speech?

A
  • Motor patterns for control of the larynx, lips, mouth and respiratory system that form words
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34
Q

What is auditory receptive aphasia?

A
  • Inability to understnad the spoken word
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35
Q

What is visual receptive aphasia?

A
  • Inability to understand the written word
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36
Q

What is Wernicke’s aphasia?

A
  • Ability to understand the spoken or written word

- But the inability to understand the thought that is expressed

37
Q

What is global aphasia?

A
  • Caused by a widespread lesion from Wernicke’s area into the angular gyrus, temporal lobe and sylvian fissure
  • The person is demented for language understanding or communication
38
Q

What is motor / Broca’s aphasia?

A
  • Person is able to decide what they want to say

- But cannot make the vocal system emit words instead of noises

39
Q

Outline the pathway involved in hearing and speaking

A
  • Reception in the primary auditory cortex in the superior temporal gyrus
  • Interpretation in Wernicke’s area
  • Determination of the thoughts and words to be spoken in Wernicke’s area
  • Transmission of signals from Wernicke’s area to Broca’s area by way of the arcuate fasciculus
  • Activation of skilled motor programs in Broca’s area for control of word formation
  • Transmission from Broca’s area to the motor cortex to control the speech muscles
40
Q

Outline the pathway involved in reading and speaking

A
  • Reception in the primary visual area in the calcarine sulcus
  • Interpretation in the angular gyrus region
  • Recognition in Wernicke’s area
  • Transmission of signals from Wernicke’s area to Broca’s area by way of the arcuate fasciculus
  • Activation of skilled motor programs in Broca’s area for control of word formation
  • Transmission from Broca’s area to the motor cortex to control the speech muscles
41
Q

What is the cause of nerve deafness?

A
  • Damage to the cochlear / auditory nerve
42
Q

How is Weber’s test performed?

A
  • Vibrating tuning fork is placed against in the middle of the patient’s forehead
  • Normal result: The noise is heard in the middle or equally in both ears
  • Conductive deafness: Sound heard louder on affected side
  • Nerve deafness: Sound hear louder in normal ear
43
Q

How is Rinne’s test performed?

A
  • Vibrating tuning fork is placed on the mastoid process until it can no longer be heard, it is then moved over the external acoustic meatus
  • Normal result: Air conduction is greater than bone conduction
  • Conductive deafness: Rinne’s negative
44
Q

What is otitis media?

A
  • Middle ear infection
45
Q

What are the symptoms of otitis media?

A
  • Otalgia

- Conductive hearing loss (Rinne’s negative / In Weber’s test sound is loudest on affected side)

46
Q

What is the treatment for otitis media?

A
  • NSAIDs in acute phase

- If systemic features are present after 72 hours a systemic antibiotic (e.g. amoxicillin) should be given

47
Q

What is secretory otitis media with effusion and how is it treated?

A
  • Effusion in the middle ear
  • Most commonly in children due to Eustachian tube dysfunction
  • A grommet is inserted into tympanic membrane to ventilate middle ear (taking over role of Eustachian tube)
48
Q

Identify one complication of otitis media

A
  • Mastoiditis

- Tenderness and swelling over mastoid process

49
Q

Why is a normal audiogram dome shaped?

A
  • Normal frequency of voice is between 1000 and 4000 Hz
50
Q

Why may be person be able to hear below 0 dB?

A
  • It is a logarithmic scale
51
Q

What is the vestibular apparatus?

A
  • Sensory organ for detecting equilibrium
52
Q

What does the static labyrinth detect?

A
  • Orientation of the head in relation to the pull of gravity
53
Q

What does the kinetic labyrinth detect?

A
  • Information about acceleration and deceleration of the head
54
Q

What is the static labyrinth composed of?

A
  • Utricle superiorly and saccule inferiorly

- And their maculae

55
Q

What is the role of the static labyrinth?

A
  • Controlled balance by increasing antigravity muscular tone on the side to which the head is tilted
56
Q

How are the maculae arranged in the utricle and saccule?

A
  • Horizontal in utricle

- Vertical in saccule

57
Q

Describe the structure of a macula

A
  • Columnar supporting cells invested by hair cells to which vestibular nerve is applied
  • Free surface of hair cell possesses 100 stereocilia with a single kinocilium
  • Stereocilia are embedded a gelatinous matrix consisting of otoconia
58
Q

What are otoconia and what is their function?

A
  • Calcium carbonate crystals

- That exert gravitational drag on the hair cells

59
Q

How does movement of the head cause an action potential in the vestibular nerve?

A
  • Movement of otoliths pulls hair cells towards kinocilium
  • Opening of cationic channel allows for entry of positive ions from endolymphatic fluid
  • Causing receptor membrane depolarisation and an action potential in the vestibular nerve
60
Q

How does the vestibular system mediate compensate antigravity movements of the head?

A
  • Lateral vestibulospinal tract
  • Which descends in the anterior funiculus
  • And synapses with extensor antigravity muscles
61
Q

What is the role of the kinetic labyrinth

A
  • Keep the gaze on target during angular acceleration of the head
62
Q

What is the kinetic labyrinth composed of?

A
  • Anterior, posterior and lateral semicircular ducts
  • Each of which possess a dilated end known as the ampulla
  • Ampulla contains a cristae
63
Q

Describe the structure of a cristae

A
  • Columnar supporting cells invested by hair cells to which vestibular nerve is applied
  • Free surface of hair cell possesses 100 stereocilia with a single kinocilium
  • Stereocilia are embedded a gelatinous projection called the cupula
64
Q

When the head moves, what happens to the endolymphatic fluid in the semicircular canals?

A
  • It retains its original position

- Since it is not attached to the skull

65
Q

When the head moves, what happens to the cupula in the semicircular canals? What is the effect

A
  • It moves and pushes against the stationary endolymphatic fluid
  • Which bends the stereocilia in the direction of the kinocilium, opens cation channels and causes an action potential in the vestibular nerve
66
Q

The vestibular nuclei has connections with which region of the cerebellum?

A
  • Floculonodular lobes
67
Q

Briefly describe the movement of the eyes in the vestibulo-ocular reflex

A
  • Results in compensatory eye movement that is equal but opposite to the movement of the head
68
Q

From the vestibular nucleus, identify the signals involved in the vestibulo-ocular reflex

A
  • Via medial longitudinal fasciculus
  • To ipsilateral oculomotor nuclei supplying medial rectus
  • And contralateral abducens nuclei supplying lateral rectus
69
Q

What is nystagmus?

A
  • Tremor of the eyeballs when eyeballs are fixated on a lateral point
70
Q

How can nystagmus be elicited?

A
  • Syringing external auditory meatus with hot water
  • Which produces convection currents in endolymph in the warm cupula
  • Resulting in a slow drift of eyes away from stimulated side
  • Followed by a rapid recovery phase, repeated several times per second
71
Q

Which tuning fork is used when performing Weber’s / Rinne’s test?

A
  • 512 Hz
72
Q

Which tuning fork is used when testing vibration sensation?

A
  • 128 Hz
73
Q

What is a phoneme? How many phonemes does the word hat have?

A
  • Smallest unit of speech
  • The sounds produced by letters
  • 3 ‘h’ ‘a’ ‘t’
74
Q

What is universal adaptivity and when is it lost?

A
  • Ability to learn which phoneme is relevant to your own language
  • Ability is lost after the first year
75
Q

Between which ages does the critical period of language development occur?

A
  • 4-12
76
Q

Outline developmental milestone of speech

A
  • Age 1: Begin speaking, map concepts onto words
  • Age 1-2: Talk about people, animals, body parts and household items
  • Age 1.5-2.5: Acquisition of phrases and sentences (syntax)
77
Q

Outline three different theories of language development

A
  • Skinner: Influence of environment on language development
  • Piaget: Thought comes before language
  • Vygotsky: Social support from adults enables a child to advance to the next level of language development
78
Q

Identify two reasons why hearing loss in children can result in social isolation

A
  • Delayed social development due to delayed language acquisition
  • Inability to pick up auditory cues can result in them become irritable
79
Q

Identify two social impacts of hearing loss

A
  • Less fluid conversation
  • Problematic interaction in noisy places
  • Isolation
  • Intimacy issues
80
Q

Identify two psychological impacts of hearing loss

A
  • Anger + frustration
  • Low confidence
  • Difficulty concentrating
  • Embarrassment
81
Q

What is the Noise at Work act?

A
  • Employers are required to take precautions for the safety of employees hearing
82
Q

Under which Act do individuals with hearing loss have additional rights in the workplace?

A
  • Disability Discrimination Act
83
Q

Identify four pieces of specialist equipment at home that can aid those with hearing loss

A
  • Extra-loud doorbells
  • Alarms that use vibration or light
  • Television with subtitles
  • Phones that allow for texting
84
Q

According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, what is meant by schema?

A
  • Basic building block of intelligent behaviour
  • Relating to one aspect of world
  • Including objects, actions and abstract concepts
85
Q

According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, what is meant by assimilation?

A
  • The way in which children use existing schemas to deal with new situations or objects
86
Q

According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, what is meant by accommodation?

A
  • A situation in which an existing schema does not work

- So a new one must be developed

87
Q

According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, what is meant by equilibration?

A
  • Situation in which a child’s schemas can deal with most new information through assimilation
  • Driving force behind learning
88
Q

Identify Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development, when they occur, and a brief overview of what each stage involves

A
  • Sensorimotor, 0-2, trial and error, experimentation
  • Preoperational, 2-7, imagination and memory
  • Concrete operational, 7-12, logical thought
  • Formal operation, 12-18, abstract thought

Semester 3: Mind and Movement (21 decks)

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