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Semester 3: Mind and Movement > Anatomy Topic 3 Case 7 > Flashcards

Anatomy Topic 3 Case 7 Flashcards

1
Q

What are paramedian sulci

A
  • Sulci that separate the vermis from the hemispheres
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2
Q

Where are the cerebellar tonsils located?

A
  • Bilaterally to the uvula
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3
Q

What is the primary fissure?

A
  • Deepest fissure
  • Separates anterior lobe from posterior lobe
  • Located inferior to culmen
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4
Q

What is the horizontal fissure?

A
  • Largest fissure

- Separates cerebellum into an upper and lower portion

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5
Q

Where are the flocculi located?

A
  • Bilaterally to the nodule
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6
Q

What does the flocculonodular lobe consist of and how is it separated form the uvula and tonsils?

A
  • Flocculi and nodule

- By posterolateral fissure

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7
Q

Identify the four pairs of deep cerebellar nuclei

A
  • Fastigial
  • Globose
  • Emboliform
  • Dentate
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8
Q

What does the superior cerebellar peduncle form between and what does it contain?

A
  • Midbrain and cerebellum

- Contains efferent fibres from dentate, emboliform and globose nuclei

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9
Q

What does the middle cerebellar peduncle form between and what does it contain?

A
  • Pons and cerebellum

- Fibres arising from contralateral basal pontine nuclei

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10
Q

What does the middle inferior peduncle form between and what does it contain?

A
  • Medulla oblongata and cerebellum

- Crossed fibres from fastigial nucleus

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11
Q

What is the archicerebellum?

A
  • Flocculonodular lobe and fastigial nucleus

- Concerned with balance

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12
Q

What is the paleocerebellum?

A
  • Vermis, globose and emboliform nuclei

- Regulates body and limb movements

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13
Q

What is the neocerebellum?

A
  • Anterior and posterior cerebellar hemispheres and dentate nucleus
  • Muscle co-ordination (timing of motor activities)
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14
Q

Identify the components of the basal ganglia

A
  • Caudate nucleus
  • Putamen
  • Globus pallidus (internal and external)
  • Subthalamic nucleus
  • Substantia nigra (pars compacta and parts reticulata)
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15
Q

Where is the head of the caudate nucleus located?

A
  • Floor and lateral wall of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle, in front of the interventricular foramina
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16
Q

Where is the body of the caudate nucleus located?

A
  • Floor of the body of the lateral ventricle
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17
Q

Where is the tail of the caudate nucleus located?

A
  • Ventricular roof in the temporal lobe
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18
Q

What is the sulcus terminalis?

A
  • Groove that forms a junction between the caudate nucleus and thalamus
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19
Q

Where is the substantia nigra located? How are thee two components arranged?

A
  • Midbrain
  • Deep to crus cerebri
  • Lateral to red nucleus
  • Pars reticulata is lateral
  • Parts compacta is more medial
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20
Q

Where is the subthalamic nucleus located?

A
  • Inferior to the thalamus

- Medial to the internal capsule

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21
Q

Identify the five components of the olfactory system

A
  • Olfactory epithelium
  • Olfactory nerves
  • Olfactory bulb
  • Olfactory tract
  • Olfactory cortex
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22
Q

Where is the olfactory epithelium located?

A
  • Upper fifth of the lateral and septal walls of the nasal cavity
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23
Q

Identify the three cell types of the olfactory epithelium

A
  • Olfactory neurones, bipolar neurons grouped into fila by investing Schwann cells to form the olfactory nerve
  • Substentacular cells
  • Basal stem cells
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24
Q

What cell type does the olfactory nerve synapse with to from the olfactory bulb?

A
  • Mitral cells
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25
Q

What is the role of the granule cell?

A
  • Sharpens mitral activity

- Through GABA-mediated dendrodendritic inhibition

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26
Q

Where do the axons of the medial olfactory stria terminate?

A
  • Cross in the midline of the anterior commissure

- To inhibit contralateral bulb by exciting granule cells

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27
Q

Where do the axons of the lateral olfactory stria terminate?

A
  • Primary olfactory cortex

- Which is composed of amygdala, uncus and parahippocampal gyrus

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28
Q

What is the significance of the medial forebrain bundle with regards to the olfactory system?

A
  • Link between olfactory cortical areas and hypothalamus

- Triggers automatic responses such as salivation and gastric contraction

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29
Q

Identify four roles of the limbic system

A
  • Memory
  • Behaviour
  • Emotion
  • Olfaction
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30
Q

Identify the components of the limbic system

A
  • Hippocampal formation (hippocampus, dentate gyrus)
  • Parahippocampal gyrus
  • Cingulate gyrus
  • Amygdala
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31
Q

What is the entorhinal cortex?

A
  • Region of parahippocampal gyrus
  • That receives information from the sensory association areas
  • And transmits it to the hippocampal formation
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32
Q

Where is the hippocampus located, what type of cells does it contain?

A
  • Temporal horn of lateral ventricle
  • Seen as a C-shaped structure on the inferomedial aspect of the temporal lobe in a coronal brain slice
  • Contains the pyramidal cells
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33
Q

Where is the dentate gyrus located and what type of cells does it contain?

A
  • Extends between hippocampus and parahippocampal gyrus

- Contains granule cells

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34
Q

Where is the amygdala located?

A
  • In front of temporal horn of lateral ventricle

- Anterior to the tail of the caudate nucleus

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35
Q

Which nucleus of the amygdala does sensory information terminate in?

A
  • Lateral nucleus
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36
Q

Which regions of the amygdala send fibres to the hypothalamus to generate a stress response?

A
  • Bed nucleus

- Stria terminalis

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37
Q

Identify the components of the diencephalon

A
  • Thalamus
  • Hypothalamus
  • Subthalamus
  • Epithalamus
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38
Q

Where are the nuclear groups of the diencephalon located?

A
  • Form the side walls of the third ventricle
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39
Q

How is the thalamus separated from the hypothalamus?

A
  • Hypothalamic sulcus
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40
Q

Where is the thalamus located in relation to the internal capsule? What is its role? How is it connected to the opposite side?

A
  • Medial to posterior limb of internal capsule
  • Connected to opposite side by mass intermedia
  • Relay centre for all sensory pathways
41
Q

Where is the hypothalamus located and what is its role? How is it connected to the pituitary gland?

A
  • Inferior to the thalamus
  • Connected to pituitary gland by pituitary stalk
  • Endocrine control, temperature control, homeostasis and water balance
42
Q

Where is the subthalamus located and what is its role?

A
  • Inferior to the thalamus

- Control of movement

43
Q

Where is the epithalamus located and what is its role?

A
  • Rostral to superior colliculus
  • Contains habenular nucleus so has connections with limbic system
  • Contains pineal gland which secretes melatonin so is involved in circadian rhythm
44
Q

Where is the centre of gravity when standing erect?

A
  • Anterior to the edge of S2 in the pelvis
45
Q

Identify 7 movements of the hip joint

A
  • Flexion
  • Extension
  • Abduction
  • Adduction
  • medial rotation
  • Lateral rotation
  • Circumduction
46
Q

Identify two movements at the knee join

A
  • Flexion

- Extension

47
Q

Identify two movements at the ankle joint

A
  • Dorsiflexion

- Plantarflexion

48
Q

Identify the movements that maintain locomotion and produce a smooth, efficient gait

A
  • Pelvic tilt in coronal plane
  • Pelvic rotation in transverse plane
  • Movement of the knees towards the midline
  • Flexion of the knees
49
Q

Identify eleven bony landmarks of the proximal femur

A
  • Head of the femur
  • Neck of the femur
  • Greater trochanter
  • Trochanteric fossa
  • Lesser trochanter
  • Intertrochanteric line
  • Intertrochanteric crest
  • Quadrate tubercle
  • Pectineal line
  • Linea aspera
50
Q

Where is the attachment of the obturator externus?

A
  • Lateral wall of trochanteric fossa
51
Q

Where is the attachment of the gluteus minimus?

A
  • Linear facet on the anterolateral aspect of the greater trochanter
52
Q

Where is the attachment for the gluteus medius?

A
  • Elongate facet on the lateral surface of the greater trochanter
53
Q

Where is the attachment for the obturator internus and gemelli muscles

A
  • Medial side of greater trochanter of femur
54
Q

Where is the attachment for the piriformis muscle?

A
  • Medial side of superior border of greater trochanter of femur
55
Q

Where it the attachment site of the psoas major and iliacus muscles?

A
  • Lesser trochanter of the femur
56
Q

Where is the attachment of the quadratus femoris?

A
  • Quadrate tubercle on the intertrochanteric crest of the proximal femur
57
Q

Identify six bony landmarks of the shaft and distal femur

A
  • Medial supracondylar line
  • Adductor tubercle
  • Lateral supracondylar line
  • Intercondylar fossa
  • Medial epicondyle
  • Lateral epicondyle
58
Q

Where is the attachment for the gastrocnemius muscle?

A
  • Roughened area lateral to lower end of medial supracondylar line
  • Upper facet of lateral epicondyle
59
Q

Where is the attachment for the popliteus muscle?

A
  • Inferior facet of the lateral epicondyle
60
Q

What type of bone is the patella?

A
  • Sesamoid bone
61
Q

Which tendon is the patella located in?

A
  • Quadriceps femoris
62
Q

What is the attachment of the patellar tendon?

A
  • Apex of the patella
63
Q

What is the attachment of the quadriceps femoris?

A
  • Base of the patella
64
Q

Identify five bone landmarks of the proximal tibia

A
  • Medial tibial condyle
  • Medial intercondylar tubercle
  • Lateral tibial condyle
  • Lateral intercondylar tubercle
  • Tibial tuberosity
65
Q

What is the attachment for the cruciate ligaments and menisci of the knee joint?

A
  • Intercondylar region
66
Q

What is the attachment of the semimembranosus muscle?

A
  • Medial tibial condyle
67
Q

What is the attachment of the patellar ligament?

A
  • Tibial tuberosity
68
Q

Identify three bony landmarks of the shaft and distal tibia

A
  • Soleal line
  • Medial malleolus
  • Fibular notch
69
Q

Identify three bony landmarks of the proximal fibula

A
  • Head of the fibula
  • Styloid process
  • Neck of the fibula
70
Q

What is the attachment of the biceps femoris?

A
  • Lateral surface of the head of the fibula
71
Q

What is the attachment of the fibular collateral ligament?

A
  • Depression near upper margin of the head of the fibula
72
Q

Identify three bony landmarks of the shaft and distal fibula

A
  • Medial crest
  • Lateral malleolus
  • Malleolar fossa
73
Q

What is the attachment of the fibularis longus and fibularis brevis muscles?

A
  • Lateral malleolus
74
Q

How many tarsal bones are there?

A
  • Seven
75
Q

Identify the bones in the proximal group of tarsal bones

A
  • Talus

- Calcaneus

76
Q

Identify the bones in the intermediate group of tarsal bones

A
  • Navicular
77
Q

Identify the bones in the distal group of tarsal bones

A
  • Cuboid
  • Lateral cuneiform
  • Intermediate cuneiform
  • Medial cuneiform
78
Q

Which toe is metatarsal I associated with?

A
  • Great toe
79
Q

Identify three bony landmarks of each metatarsal

A
  • Base
  • Shaft
  • Head
80
Q

How does metatarsal I differ to the other metatarsals?

A
  • The plantar surface articulates with two sesamoid bones
81
Q

Which metatarsals articulate with each other?

A
  • Metatarsal II to V
82
Q

How does metatarsal V differ to the other metatarsals?

A
  • Prominent tuberosity

- Which is the attachment for the fibularis brevis muscle

83
Q

What are phalanges?

A
  • Bones of the toes

- Each has three (proximal, middle and distal) except for the great toe which has only II

84
Q

What is the purpose of the arches of the foot?

A
  • Absorb and distribute forces from the body during standing and moving
85
Q

Where is the longitudinal arch formed?

A
  • Between posterior end of calcaneus and the heads of the metatarsals
86
Q

Where is the transverse arch formed?

A
  • Between heads of talus and the heads of the metatarsals
87
Q

Identify ligaments that support the arches of the foot

A
  • Calcaneonavicular ligament
  • Plantar calcaneocuboid ligament
  • Long plantar ligament
  • Plantar aponeurosis
88
Q

Identify muscles that support the arches of the foot

A
  • Tibialis anterior
  • Tibialis posterior
  • Fibularis longus
89
Q

What is the plantar aponeurosis?

A
  • Thickening of deep fascia in the sole of the foot
90
Q

What are the attachments of the plantar aponeurosis?

A
  • Medial process of calcaneal tuberosity
  • Diverge and form digital bands to enter the bones, ligaments and dermis of the toes
  • But interconnect as superficial transverse metatarsal ligaments
91
Q

The tendons of which muscles enter fibrous digital sheaths on the plantar aspect of the digits?

A
  • Flexor digitorum longus
  • Flexor digitorum brevis
  • Flexor hallucis longus
92
Q

Where are the fibrous sheaths of the toes located?

A
  • Anterior to metatarsophalangeal joints

- Extend to the distal phalanges

93
Q

What is the role of the fibrous sheaths of the toes?

A
  • Hold the tendons to the bony plane

- Prevent tendon bowing when the toes are flexed

94
Q

The tendons of which muscles expand over the dorsal aspects of the digits to form extensor hoods?

A
  • Extensor digitorum longus
  • Extensor digitorum brevis
  • Extensor hallucis longus
95
Q

What is the role of the extensor hoods?

A
  • Allows the forces from muscles to be distributed over the toes
  • To cause flexion of the metatarsophalangeal joints while at the same time extending the interphalangeal joints
  • To prevent overextension and overflexion of the joints when the heel is elevated off the ground and the toes grip the ground during walking
96
Q

What are extensor retinacula?

A
  • Strap tendons of extensor muscles to the ankle
  • To prevent tendon bowing
  • During extension of the foot and toes
97
Q

Identify the two extensor retinacula of the foot

A
  • Superior extensor retinaculum

- Inferior retinaculum (Y-shaped)

98
Q

What are fibular retinacula?

A
  • Bind tendons of the fibularis longus and fibularis brevis muscles to the lateral side fo the foot
99
Q

Identify the two fibular retinacula of the foot

A
  • Superior fibular retinaculum extends between lateral malleolus and calcaneus
  • Inferior fibular retinaculum attaches to the lateral surface of the calcaneus around the fibular trochlea and blends above the fibres of the inferior extensor retinaculum

Semester 3: Mind and Movement (21 decks)

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