PBL Topic 3 Case 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What do mechanoreceptors detect?

A
  • Mechanical compression or stretching of tissue adjacent to the receptor
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2
Q

What do thermoreceptors detect?

A
  • Changes in temperature, some cold, others warmth
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3
Q

What do nociceptors detect?

A
  • Damage occurring in tissue e.g. physical or chemical damage
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4
Q

What do electromagnetic receptors detect?

A
  • Light on the retina of the eye
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5
Q

What do chemoreceptors detect?

A
  • Taste in the mouth
  • Smell in the nose
  • Oxygen level in the blood
  • Osmolality of blood
  • [CO2]
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6
Q

What is a modality of sensation?

A
  • Any principal type of sensation a person experiecnes
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7
Q

What is the labelled line principle?

A
  • Specific nerve fibres transmit only one modality of sensation
  • Since they terminate at a specific site in the CNS
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8
Q

What is a receptor potential?

A
  • Change in membrane electrical potential whenever the receptor is stimulated
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9
Q

How does a stimulus cause an action potential?

A
  • Stimulus excites a receptor
  • Change in membrane permeability allowing diffusion of ions through the membrane
  • Receptor potential rises above a threshold to generate an action potential
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10
Q

What is meant by receptor adaptation?

A
  • The rate at which a receptor responds to a stimulus until the rate of action potential ceases
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11
Q

What is a tonic receptor? Give an example of a tonic receptor

A
  • Slowly adapting
  • Transmits continuous impulses to the brain as long as the stimulus is present
  • Muscle spindle or Golgi tendon
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12
Q

What is a rate receptor? Give an example of a rate receptor

A
  • Rapidly adapting
  • Transmits signals only when the stimulus changes strength
  • Pacinian corpuscle
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13
Q

How does a type A fibre compare to a type C fibre?

A
  • Type A are larger and myelinated, transmission is faster

- Type C are smaller and unmyelinated, transmission is slower

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14
Q

Give two examples A-alpha fibre

A
  • Annulospiral ending of muscle spindles

- Golgi tendon organs

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15
Q

Give an example of an A-beta fibre

A
  • Cutaneous tactile receptor
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16
Q

Give an example of an A-gamma fibre

A
  • Flower spray ending of muscle spindles
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17
Q

Give an example of an A-delta fibre

A
  • Nociceptor carrying temperature, crude touch and pricking sensation
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18
Q

Give an example of a C fibre

A
  • Pain and crude touch sensation
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19
Q

What is spatial summation?

A
  • Signal strength increases by using progressively greater number of fibres
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20
Q

What is temporal summation?

A
  • Signal strength increases by increasing number of impulses from each fibre
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21
Q

Outline the structure of a free nerve ending

A
  • Nerve loses its Schwann cell sheath as it reaches dermis or epidermis
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22
Q

Identify two modalities that free nerve endings detect

A
  • Temperature

- Pain

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23
Q

Identify a modality that Merkel cells detect? How do Merkel cells adapt?

A
  • Pressure

- Slowly

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24
Q

Identify three encapsulated nerve endings

A
  • Meissner’s corpuscles
  • Ruffini endings
  • Pacinian corpuscles
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25
Where are Meissner's corpuscles most abundant?
- Finger pads
26
How do Meissner's corpuscles adapt?
- Rapidly
27
What is the role of Meissner's corpuscles
- Detective work on textured surfaces
28
Where are Ruffini endings located?
- Hairy and glabrous skin
29
What do Ruffini endings detect? How do they adapt?
- Drag (shearing stress) over skin | - Slowly adapting
30
Where are Pacinian corpuscles located?
- Side of fingers and palm
31
What do Pacinian corpuscles detect?
- Vibration
32
Where are dorsal root ganglia located?
- Intervertebral foramina | - Where they come together to form spinal nerves
33
What are satellite cells?
- Modified Schwann cell in spinal ganglion
34
What does the medial stream of the dorsal root entry zone consist of? Where do they divide and synapse?
- Medium and large fibres - Divide into ascending and descending fibres in the posterior funiculus - Which synapse in laminae 2, 4 and 4
35
What does the lateral stream of the dorsal root entry zone consist of? Where do they divide and synapse?
- Small fibres - Divide into ascending and descending fibres in the posterolateral tract of Lissauer - Which synapse in the laminae 1 (marginal zone) and the substantia gelatinosa (lamina 2)
36
Identify the two major somatic sensory pathways
- Dorsal column medial lemniscal system | - Spinothalamic pathway
37
Where are the first-order neurons of the somatic sensory pathways located?
- Posterior root ganglia
38
Where are the second-order neurons of the somatic sensory pathways located?
- CNS grey matter on same side as first order neurons
39
Where are the third-order neurons of the somatic sensory pathways located
- Between thalamus and somatosensory cortex
40
Outline 3 differences between the DCML and spinothalamic systems
- DCML consists of large fibres which transmit at high velocities - DCML has a high degree of spatial orientation of fibres - Spinothalamic transmits a broad spectrum of sensory modalities
41
Identify 4 modalities transmitted in the DCML
- Touch sensation - Vibration sensation - Proprioception - Pressure
42
Identify 2 modalities transmitted in the anterior spinothalamic tract
- Crude touch | - Firm pressure sensations
43
Identify 2 modalities transmitted in the lateral spinothalamic tract
- Pain | - Temperature
44
Identify six sensory receptors that transmit impulses in the DCML
- Meissner's corpuscles - Pacinian corpuscles - Ruffini endings - Merkel cells - Muscle spindles - Golgi tendon organs
45
What are the fasciculus gracilis and nucleus gracilis?
- First order neurons from lower limbs ascend in fasciculus gracilis - And terminate in nucleus gracilis in medulla oblongata
46
What are the fasciculus cuneatus and nucleus cuneatus?
- First order neurons from upper limbs and torso ascend in fasciculus cuneatus - And terminate in nucleus cuneatus in medulla oblongata
47
Where do second order neurons of the DCML project from and to?
- From nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus | - To ventral posterolateral nucleus of thalamus
48
What terminates in the ventral posteromedial nucleus?
- Fibres from trigeminal lemniscus | - Which subserve same sensory functions for the head that the DCML fibres subserve for the body
49
Where do third order neurons of the DCML project from and to?
- From VPN | - To somatosensory cortex in postcentral gyrus
50
Where do second order neurons of the spinothalamic project from and to?
- From lamina 1-2 and 4-5 | - To contralateral VPN
51
Identify the pathway of the spinothalamic system
- Second order neurons enter lamina 1-2, 4-5 - Decussate immediately - Pass in anterior and lateral funiculus - Come together at spinal lemniscus - Synapse in contralateral VPN
52
Where does the spinoreticular tract run and terminate?
- Runs alongside spinothalamic pathway | - Reticular activating system
53
Identify two functions of the spinoreticular tracts
- Report to limbic cortex of anterior cingulate gyrus about the nature of a sensation e.g. pleasurable or painful - Arouse cerebral cortex e.g. waking state
54
Where does the spinotectal tract run and terminate?
- Runs alongside spinothalamic pathway | - Terminates in superior colliculus
55
Identify a function of the spinotectal tract?
- Mediates reflex postural movements of head in response to visual stimuli
56
Where does spino-olivary tract terminate and what is its role?
- Inferior olivary nucleus in medulla | - Motor learning through its action on contralateral cerebellar cortex
57
Identify the three nuclei of the trigeminal sensory nuclei and their roles?
- Mesencephalic: proprioception - Chief: Touch and pressure - Spinal: Pain
58
Identify three other cranial nerves that convey sensory information to the trigeminal sensory nucleus
- Facial - Glossopharyngeal - Vagus
59
Where does the trigeminothalamic tract run from and to?
- Spinal trigeminal lemniscus - Terminates in ventral posteromedial nucleus of the thalamus - Third order afferents to somatosensory cortex
60
Describe the layout of the homunculus of the somatosensory cortex
- Tongue and larynx closest to horizontal fissure - Large representation of lips and thumb - Lower limb and foot closest to longitudinal fissure
61
Which of Broadmann's areas does the somatosensory cortex reside in?
- 3, 1 and 2
62
Area 3a of the somatosensory cortex receives information from which receptors?
- Muscle spindles
63
Area 3b of the somatosensory cortex receives information from which receptors?
- Cutaneous receptors
64
Identify three afferents to the somatosensory cortex
- Thalamic afferents - Commissural fibres from opposite somatosensory cortex - Association fibres form motor cortex
65
What is stereoanesthesia and what is a common cause?
- Reduction of sensory acuity on opposite side of body - Including raised sensory threshold, poor two-point discrimination, and impaired vibration sense and position sense - Middle meningeal artery is compromised
66
Identify three efferents to the somatosensory cortex
- Association fibres to ipsilateral motor cortex - Commissural fibres to contralateral somatosensory cortex - Projection fibres to pyramidal tract to terminate on inhibitory internuncial neurons
67
Where are somatosensory association areas located and what is their role?
- Broadmann's areas 5 and 7 | - Deciphering deeper meanings of inputs to somatosensory cortex
68
What is pain?
- Unpleasant emotional experience associated with tissue damage
69
What is allodynia?
- Pain produced by an innocuous stimuli | - For example stroking sunburned skin or moving an inflamed joint
70
What are central pain-projecting neurons?
- Posterior horn neurons projecting pain-encoded information to the contralateral brainstem and thalamic nuclei - Includes spinothalamic, spinoreticular and spinoamygdaloid pathways
71
What is wind-up phenomenon?
- Sustained state of excitation of central pain pathways induced by glutamate activation of NMDA receptors
72
What is fast pain?
- Stabbing pain perceived by activation of A-delta nociceptors
73
What is hyperalgesia?
- Hypersensitivity to stimulation of injured tissue and of surrounding tissue
74
What is neurogenic inflammation?
- Inflammation caused by liberation of substance P | - Following depolarisation of antidromic fine peripheral nerve fibres
75
What is neuropathic pain?
- Chronic stabbing or burning pain associated to peripheral nerve
76
What are nociceptors?
- Receptors whose activation generates a sense of pain
77
What are polymodal receptors?
- Peripheral nociceptors responsive to noxious stimulation
78
What is sensitisation?
- Lowering of threshold of peripheral nociceptors by histamine - Following peripheral release of peptides via the axon reflex
79
What is slow pain?
- Aching pain perceived following activation of C-fibre nociceptors
80
Identify three molecules that lower the activation threshold of nociceptors following tissue injury
- Bradykinin - Prostaglandin - Leukotrienes
81
What does substance P bind to? How does this result in production of arachidonic acid?
- Substance P binds to mast cells - Mast cells secrete histamine - Which binds to histamine receptors on nerve terminals - Causing production of arachidonic acid
82
What happens to the arachidonic acid during tissue damage?
- Cyclooxidase converts arachidonic acid into prostaglandin - Which results in sustained activation of large numbers of C-fibres and sensitisation of nociceptors - Manifested by allodynia and hyperalgesia
83
What is the lateral pain pathway?
- Projecting of pain via the lateral spinothalamic tract to the contralateral ventral posterolateral nucleus to the primary motor cortex - This pathway activates spinotectal tract which causes eye to look towards source of pain
84
What is the medial pain pathway?
- Projecting of pain via the spinoreticular tracts to anterior cingulate cortex via intralaminar nucleus of thalamus - This area is concerned with the affective component of pain
85
Identify three causes of central pain states
- Repetitive activation of NMDA glutamate receptors - Gene transcription involving addition of glutamate receptors - Non-serotonergic neurons near the magnus raphe nucleus facilitate central pain states
86
Identify the pathology of neuropathic pain
- Peripheral nerve is severed - Proximal and distal end become separated by developing scar tissue - Intermediate regenerating axon from a thread like ball known as a neuroma
87
Identify one cause of neuropathic pain
- Postherpetic neuralgia (shingles)
88
Outline the axon reflex
- Skin is stroked by a sharp object - Red flare owing to arteriolar dilatation - White wheal owing to exudation of plasma - Due to release of Substance P which binds to surface of mast cells which release histamine
89
What is segmental antinociception?
- Large type A mechanoreceptive afferents from hair follicles synapse upon anterior spinothalamic relay cells - They (mainly GABA) gelatinosa cells which synapse in turn upon lateral spinothalamic relay cells. - Some of the internuncials also exert presynaptic inhibition upon C-fibre terminals. - Gating of the spinothalamic response to C-fibre activity can be induced by stimulating the mechanoreceptive afferents, thereby recruiting inhibitory gelatinosa cells.
90
What is supraspinal antinociception?
- Raphespinal tract descends from magnus raphe nucleus - Which descends in Lissauer's tract to terminate in substantia gelatinosa - Liberation of serotonin excites inhibitory internuncials causing synaptic inhibition.
91
Stimulation of which brain region results in stimulation of the magnus raphe nucleus?
- Periaqueductal grey of the midbrain
92
What is the role of beta-endorphin in analgesia?
- Released from hypothalamic neurons which project to PAG during stress - These neurons inhibitory internuncials on the PAG - Resulting in increased stimulation of the MRN and hence antinociception
93
What is cervical spondylosis?
- Osteoarthritis in the cervical spine | - Characterised by degeneration of the intervertebral disc and osteophyte formation
94
What is cervical spondylotic radiculopathy?
- Compression of a nerve root when a disc prolapses laterally
95
Outline the clinical features of cervical spondylotic radiculopathy.
- Pain in the neck and affected segment - Neck held rigidly and movements may exacerbate pain - Paraesthesia and sensory loss in the affected segment - Weakness, wasting, reflex impairment
96
Outline the muscle weakness, sensory loss and reflex loss associated with a C5 root compression
- Biceps, deltoid - Upper lateral arm - Biceps reflex
97
Outline the muscle weakness, sensory loss and reflex loss associated with a C6 root compression
- Brachioradialis - Lower lateral arm, thumb, index finger - Supinator
98
Outline the muscle weakness, sensory loss and reflex loss associated with a C7 root compression
- Triceps, fingers and wrist extensors - Middle finger - Triceps
99
Outline the treatment options for cervical spondylotic radiculopathy.
- Analgesics and physiotherapy | - Disc excision (MRI required)
100
What is cervical spondylotic myelopathy?
- Pressure on the spinal cord in the cervical region due to herniation of a disc
101
Outline the clinical features of cervical spondylotic myelopathy.
- Spasticity of legs comes first | - Sensory loss in upper limbs, tingling, numbness, proprioception loss in hands, with progressive numbness
102
Outline the treatment options for cervical spondylotic myelopathy.
- Anterior discectomy | - Which may arrest progression but may not result in neurological improvement
103
What is lumbar spondylosis?
- Degenerative disc disease and osteoarthritic changes in the lumbar spine - Sciatica
104
Outline the pathology of lumbar disc herniation
- Precipitated by trauma - Nucleus pulposus may budge or rupture through annulus fibrosus - Giving rise to pressure on nerve endings in spinal ligaments
105
Outline the clinical features of lumbar disc herniation
- Lasegues sign: limitation of flexion of the hip on the affected side if the straight leg is raised - Acute onset lower back pain and sciatica - Reflex loss - Sensory loss in affected dermatome
106
Outline the muscle weakness, sensory loss and reflex loss associated with a L4 root compression
- Inversion of foot - Inner calf - Knee
107
Outline the muscle weakness, sensory loss associated with a L5 root compression
- Dorsiflexion of great toe | - Outer calf and dorsum of foot
108
Outline the muscle weakness, sensory loss and reflex loss associated with a S1 root compression
- Plantar flexion - Sole and lateral foot - Ankle
109
Identify 4 things that X-rays of the skull and spine show
- Fracture - Vault and skull disease - Enlargement or destruction of pituitary fossa - Intracranial calcification
110
What is an opioid?
- A substance that produces morphine like effects | - That is blocked by naloxone, a complete antagonist
111
Identify the opioid receptor responsible for most of the analgesic effects.
- u receptor
112
Describe how opioids decrease neuronal excitability
- Opening inward-rectifying potassium channels, causing hyperpolarisation - Inhibiting the opening of N-type calcium channels, resulting in reduced neurotransmitter release
113
How are opioids inactivated?
- Hepatic metabolism | - In conjunction with glucuronide
114
Outline five adverse effects of opioids
- Tolerance - Dependence - Euphoria - Sedation - Respiratory depression
115
Outline the roles of COX-1 and COX-2
- COX-1 is involved in tissue homeostasis and prostaglandin production - COX-2 is involved in production of prostanoid mediators of inflammation
116
Describe the mechanism behind the anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs
- Decrease in prostaglandin E2 and prostacyclin | - Which reduces vasodilation and oedema
117
Describe the mechanism behind the anti-analgesic effects of NSAIDs
- Decrease prostaglandins generation | - So less sensitisation of nociceptive nerve endings to inflammatory mediators such as bradykinin and 5-HT
118
Describe the mechanism behind the anti-pyretic effect of NSAIDs
- Inhibit IL-1 beta release
119
Identify two examples of NSAIDs
- Ibuprofen | - Naproxen
120
What is the dosage of ibuprofen?
- 300-400 mg | - 3 - 4 times a day
121
Outline two unwanted effects of NSAIDs
- GI disturbances (gastric ulceration / bleeding) | - Skin reactions
122
Explain the rationale behind co-administration of NSAIDs and opioids
- Same degree of analgesia | - But reduced addiction
123
Explain the actions of paracetamol
- Antipyretic - Analgesic - But less anti-inflammatory effects
124
Identify two drugs that can prevent liver damage and how they work
- I. V Acetylcysteine - Oral methionine - Increase glutathione
125
What is the dosage of paracetamol?
- 0.5-1g | - Every 4-6 hours
126
What is neuropathic pain and when does it occur?
- Dysfunction of pain perception apparatus - Caused by trigeminal neuralgia / diabetic neuropathy - Opioid resistant
127
Explain how TCAs can be used to treat neuropathic pain
- Inhibit noradrenaline re-uptake
128
Explain how gabapentin can be used to treat neuropathic pain
- Bind to alpha 2 delta 1 and alpha 2 delta 2 subunits of potassium channels - And inhibit neurotransmitter release
129
What is the dosage of gabapentin?
- 300 mg once daily on day 1 - 300 mg twice daily on day 2 - 300 mg three times daily on day 3
130
Explain how lidocaine can be used to treat neuropathic pain
- Blocks spontaneous discharges from damaged sensory nerve terminals
131
How is lidocaine administered?
- Topically as a patch | - Or intravenously
132
Outline the WHO Analgesic Pain Ladder
- Step 1: Paracetamol - Step 2: If pain persists or increases (moderate pain), weak opioid such as codeine - Step 3: Severe pain, give a strong opioid such as morphine
133
What is drug dependence?
- Condition in which drug taking becomes compulsive, often with serious adverse consequences
134
Explain why psychoactive drugs produce a rewarding experience e.g. elevation in mood or feeling of euphoria
- Activate mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway running from the VTA to the nucleus accumbens - They enhance firing of VTA dopaminergic neurons - By reducing the level of GABAergic inhibition within the VTA
135
Explain how drugs alter memory formation to enhance the recollection of previous drug experiences
- Changes in synaptic plasticity by enhancing long-term potentiation - By increasing expression of AMPA receptors
136
What is withdrawal syndrome?
- Cessation of drug administration / administration of an antagonist producing adverse effects characteristic of the drug taken
137
Outline the mechanisms responsible for the withdrawal syndrome
- Increase in cAMP production as a result of super activation of adenylyl cyclase - Activation of protein kinases - Resulting in excitation of nerve terminals by phosphorylation neurotransmitter transporters - Thus increasing conductance and increasing neurotransmitter release
138
What is tolerance?
- Decrease in pharmacological effects on repeated administration of a drug
139
Outline the mechanisms responsible for tolerance
- u receptor is phosphorylated by various intracellular kinases - That desensitise the receptor or cause the receptor to be blocked by other binding proteins
140
Outline the process of plain radiography
- X rays are collimated (directed) to appropriate area - The X-rays are attenuated by the tissue - Air attenuates X-rays a little - Fat attenuates X-rays more than air but less than water - Bone attenuates X-rays the most - Differences in attenuation result in differences in level of exposure on the film
141
Why does bone appear white on plain radiography?
- Most attenuation of X-rays | - Meaning it is exposed to least amount of X-rays
142
Why does air appear black on plain radiography?
- Least attenuation of X-rays | - Meaning it is exposed to most amount of X-rays
143
Identify a substance used to fill structures to increase attenuation of X-rays
- Barium sulfate
144
Identify a contrast agent injected directly into veins or arteries during plain radiography
- Iodine based molecules
145
What does Computed Tomography involve?
- X-ray tube passes around the body - Creating a series of images - Which are transformed using a computer to produce final image
146
Identify 5 limitations of CT
- Lesions under 1 cm in diameter may be missed, - Lesions with attenuation close to bone may be missed if near the skull, - Lesions with attenuation similar to brain are poorly displayed e.g. MS plaques, isodense subdural haematoma. - CT is not good at detecting posterior fossa lesions because of surrounding bone, - Patient co-operation: an anaesthetic is very occasionally needed.
147
Outline the process of magnetic resonance imaging
- Protons in water molecules of patient act as magnet - Patient is placed in strong magnetic field which aligns the protons - Radio waves are passed through the body and cause the magnets to deflect - As they return to their aligned position they emit small radio pulses - The strength and frequency of pulses produces a signal which is analysed by a powerful computer
148
What are T1 and T2 images and how are they produced?
- Sequence of radio waves is altered to produce either T1 or T2 images - T1 images show dark fluid - T2 images show bright fluid
149
What i.v contrast is used during MRI when assessing cerebral circulation?
- Gadolinium
150
Identify five advantages of MRI
- Distinguishes between white and grey matter in the spinal cord, - MRI has resolution superior to CT (around 0.5 cm), - No radiation is involved - Capable of pituitary imaging - Tumours, infarction, haemorrhage, MS plaques, posterior fossa, foramen magnum and cord are demonstrated well by MRI.
151
Identify four disadvantages of MRI
- Time - Cost - Patients need to keep still within a narrow tube and thus claustrophobia is an issue - Patients with pacemakers or metallic fragments in the brain cannot be imaged - MR imaging frequently shows diffuse meningeal enhancement with gadolinium for some days after lumbar puncture.
152
Outline the process of PET scanning
- Positrons are positively charged 'anti-electrons'. - Which are emitted from the decay of proton-rich radionuclides. - The most commonly used radionuclide is fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) - Tissues actively metabolising glucose take up FDG, the resulting localised high concentration of this molecule compared to background emission is detected as a “hot spot.”
153
Define Gate Control Theory
- A gate exists that, when opened sends information to an action system which results in perception of pain - Pain is not only understood in terms of stimulus response pathways - But is also affected by emotional and behavioural factors
154
According to Gate Control Theory, identify physical factors that open and close the gate.
- Open: Injury or activation of large nociceptive fibres | - Closure: Medication, stimulation of small fibres
155
According to Gate Control Theory, identify emotional factors that open and close the gate.
- Open: Anxiety, worry, tension, depression | - Closure: Happiness, optimism, relaxation
156
According to Gate Control Theory, identify behavioural factors that open and close the gate.
- Open: Focussing on pain | - Closure: Concentration, distraction or involvement of other activities
157
Explain how learning plays a role in the processing of pain
- Classical conditioning: associating an environmental stimulus with pain - Operant conditioning: positive reinforcement includes sympathy, time off work
158
What are fear avoidance beliefs?
- Pain related fear results in hyper-vigilance towards the pain - Which would contribute to the progression from acute to chronic pain
159
Identify the three components of catastrophising
- Rumination: a focus on threatening information e.g. a symptom - Magnification: overestimating the extent of the threat e.g. the severity of the symptom - Helplessness: underestimating personal and broader resources that might help mitigate the danger e.g. visiting doctor / treatments
160
How does treatment of chronic pain differ to that of acute pain?
- Acute pain = pharmacological interventions - Chronic pain = multidisciplinary approach to pain with focus on: - Improving functioning - Decreasing reliance on medical services - Increasing social support
161
Outline three methods of pain relief that reflect an interaction between psychology and physiological factors
- Respondent methods: Reducing muscular tension and anxiety to reduce pain - Cognitive methods: modifying thoughts about pain that may exacerbate pain - Behavioural methods - Which draw upon operant conditioning and reinforcement
162
Outline Black Report
- Cultural explanation: health influenced by culture - Materialist explanation: health influenced by economic factors - Social selection hypothesis: health influences social class not the other way around - Artefact explanation: No significant relationship between health and class
163
What is drift hypothesis?
- Mental illness causes a downward shift in social class
164
What is social causation theory?
- Low social status causes stress that leads to mental illness