Patient Care Review Flashcards

1
Q

The best means of preventing the spread of microorganisms continues to be:

A

Hand hygiene or hand washing

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2
Q

Entry of pathogenic microorganisms into a new host can be by:

A

Ingestion / Inhalation / injection

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3
Q

What type of medication promotes the excretion of urine?

A

Diuretic (Lasix)

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4
Q

Directions given by a person while in a healthy state concerning wishes at time of death:

A

Advance directive

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5
Q

What is the term used for cases of medical negligence and switches the burden of proof from the patient to the imaging professional?

A

Res ipsa loquitor

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6
Q

Destruction of microbes by steam under pressure or other means, includes both chemical or physical means:

A

Sterilization

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7
Q

What type of medication causes constriction of the blood vessels?

A

Vasoconstrictor

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8
Q

What type of medication causes dilatation of the blood vessels?

A

Vasodilator

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9
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Hives

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10
Q

This method of transmission occurs when droplets contaminated with pathogenic microorganisms are placed in the air from a person infected with a droplet-borne infection:

A

Droplet isolation

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11
Q

What are the elements needed to transmit an infection?

A
Infectious agent
Reservoir or environment in which the microbe can live & multiply
Portal to exit the reservoir
Means of transmission
Portal of entry into a new host
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12
Q

When a susceptible person actually touches an infected person’s body surface in an area where infectious microbes are present:

A

Direct contact

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13
Q

The transfer of pathogenic microbes by touching objects that have been contaminated by an infected person

A

Indirect contact

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14
Q

What is a PE?

A

Occlusion of a pulmonary artery by a thrombus

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15
Q

What is the term for a patient’s claim that he/she has been wronged or has suffered some injury, other than a breach of contract, for which he/she believes cause exist for an action for damages:

A

Tort

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16
Q

Where is a chest tube inserted?

A

Dependent upon air or fluid to be removed

Placed in the pleural cavity

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17
Q

What is the chest tube attached to?

A

Water-sealed drainage unit

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18
Q

Contact with infectious secretions that come from the eyes, nose or mouth of a host or disease carrier as the person coughs, sneezes, or talks:

A

Droplet contact

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19
Q

What is orthostatic hypotension

A

A decrease in diastolic pressure caused by sudden movement from a recumbent to an upright position

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20
Q

What is orthostatic hypotension

A

A decrease in diastolic pressure caused by sudden movement from a recumbent to an upright position

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21
Q

Droplets can travel for how many feet?

A

3 feet

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22
Q

The CDC established a two-tier system for patients with particular diagnoses. The first tier is to be used at all times when any healthcare professional is caring for a patient.

A

Standard precautions

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23
Q

What is the length of time for a surgical scrub?

A

3 to 5 minutes

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24
Q

Which side of the patient is usually the best side to move a patient onto (strong/weak side)?

A

Strong side

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25
How far should one stand from a sterile table?
3 feet
26
What is the term for spoken defamation?
Slander
27
What is diabetic ketoacidosis?
Insufficient insulin causes liver to produce more glucose or hyperglycemia; kidneys then excrete glucose with water & electrolytes leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance
28
Insect or animal carriers of disease are called?
Vectors
29
What is a pulse oximeter?
It measures the amount of oxygen saturation
30
Which stage of an infection does the microorganism reproduce and the infection begins?
Prodromal stage
31
Infection is transmitted by what type of routes?
``` Direct or indirect contact Droplet Vehicle Vector Airborne ```
32
The ___ route of transmission indicates that residue from evaporated droplets of diseased microorganism are suspended in air for long periods of time.
Airborne
33
Microorganisms have been eliminated through the use of soap, water, friction and various chemical disinfectants Any practice that helps reduce the number and spread of microorganisms Decreases the probability of acquiring an infection
Medical asepsis
34
What are some of the clinical manifestations for a patient experiencing a diabetic complication?
``` Tachycardia Headache Blurred or double vision Extreme thirst Sweet odor to breath ```
35
Walking or the ability to walk
Ambulatory
36
Infection Controls: The medically aseptic hand washing procedure should last for ___ ___. This is considered the minimum amount of time.
15 seconds
37
Vital signs: A condition in which the blood does not supply enough oxygen to the body, causing a bluish tone to the lips and fingertips:
cyanosis
38
The ___ membrane thermometer is a small, hand-held device that measures the temperature of the blood vessels in the __ membrane of the ear.
tympanic
39
Medical Law: What are types of intentional torts?
False imprisonment Assault/battery defamation
40
Generalized brain function disturbance and are accompanied by changes in LOC: A symptom of an underlying condition
seizures
41
Infection control: This method of transmission occurs when microbes are spread on evaporated droplets that remain suspended in air or are carried on dust particles in the air and may be inhaled by persons in that room or air space:
Airborne isolation
42
Vital signs: Respirations of fewer than 10 breaths/min for an adult may result in ____, apprehension, restlessness and a change in LOC:
cyanosis
43
Infection control: When diseases require droplet isolation, what are the precautions that must be taken?
Private room or a room with another person infected with same disease Door may be left open Mask for any procedure that requires less than 3 feet in proximity to patient
44
Oxygen administration: What are the different types of oxygen devices used for patients?
Nasal cannula, face masks (nonrebreathing, partial rebreathing, Venturi mask or an aerosol mask
45
Infection control: When diseases require contact isolation, what are the precautions that must be taken?
Private room or room with another person infected with same disease Gloves to be worn by healthcare professional before entering patient’s room and removed before leaving Gown if possibility of touching patient or items in room Visitors must wash hands before and after entering room Equipment used in patient’s room must stay in patient’s room
46
Communication: Concrete evidence Based on facts that exist Patient’s chart
Objective information
47
Infection control: When cleaning an area such as an x-ray table, where should the cleaning first begin?
In the least soiled area and then finish in the most soiled area
48
Medical Law: What is the term for written defamation?
Libel
49
Communication: - Based on judgment by an individual - Personal opinion
Subjective
50
Aseptic Technique: Zone 1 or unrestricted zone Zone 2 or semi-restricted zone Zone 3 or restricted zone
Unrestricted – persons may enter in street clothing Semi-restricted – dressed in scrub attire with hair and shoes covered Restricted – appropriate scrub attire and mask
51
Aseptic Technique: | Who makes up the surgical team?
``` Surgeon Surgical assistant Anesthesiologist or nurse anesthetist Circulating nurse Scrub nurse or surgical technician Radiologic technologist ```
52
Microorganisms and their spores have been completely destroyed by means of heat or by a chemical process Complete removal of microorganisms and their spores Reduces the probability of acquiring an infection to zero
Surgical asepsis
53
Vital Signs: | A slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute:
Bradycardia
54
Infection control: | Contaminated objects are referred to as ____.
Fomites
55
The blood pressure reading that occurs during the relaxation of the ventricles:
Diastolic
56
Vital signs: Difficult breathing resulting from insufficient airflow to the lungs:
Dyspnea
57
Medical Law: What is the term for an intended threat or harm without physical contact?
Assault
58
Infection control: If a patient is highly susceptible to becoming infected because of a particular treatment or condition, isolation precautions are also used to protect the patient:
Expanded precautions Strict isolation Reverse isolation
59
Vital signs: A fast heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute:
Tachycardia
60
The human brain cannot function for longer than __ to __ ______ without an adequate oxygen supply.
4 to 5 minutes
61
Vital signs: What are the four areas of the body in which temperature is usually measured?
Oral Tympanic Rectal Axillary
62
Vital signs: The pulse can be detected most easily in which areas of the body?
``` Apical Radial Carotid Femoral Popliteal Temporal Dorsalis pedis Posterior tibial Brachial ```
63
How the patient transfer: | How should a wheelchair be placed when the patient needs to be transferred from the wheelchair to the imaging table?
at a 45 degree angle
64
What is the average pulse rate in an adult in a resting state?
60 to 90 beats/minute
65
The average oral temperature reading is __F.
98.6 degrees F
66
Standard Precaution: | Why is standard precautions considered effective?
Based on the assumption that every patient has the potential for having an infectious disease
67
What is the term for the master speaks for the servant? | What does “deep pocket approach” refer to?
Respondent superior | The physician or healthcare facility is responsible for the negligent acts of its employees
68
What is the average respiration rate for an adult?
15 to 20 breaths/minute
69
What are some of the uses for central venous catheters?
Long term medication Frequent blood transfusion Total parenteral nutrition
70
What are some of the rules for surgical asepsis
Gowns Gloves Sterile field
71
What is the term for physically touching another person without permission even if no injury arises?
Battery
72
The instrument used to measure blood pressure is called a ___.
sphygmomanometer
73
When diseases require airborne isolation, what are the precautions that must be taken?
Private room with negative air-pressure ventilation N95 respirator mask Surgical mask for visitors Door closed Surgical mask for patient when transferred within hospital
74
Medical Emergency: | Another term for fainting?
syncope
75
A chemical capable of destroying microorganisms or inhibiting their growth Same as antiseptic
disinfectant
76
Medical Equipment: | What is the difference between an NG tube and an NE tube?
NG tubes – stomach, duodenum or jejunum | NE tubes – pass into duodenum and small intestines by means of peristalsis
77
A patient is considered to be hypertensive if the systolic BP is consistently greater than ___ and if the diastolic BP is consistently greater than __.
140 mm Hg | 90 mm Hg
78
What are the five (5) rights to drug administration?
``` Drug Amount Patient Time Route ```
79
What is the difference between the nonrebreathing and partial rebreathing oxygen mask?
A nonrebreathing mask offers a high percent of oxygen (100%) while a partial rebreathing offers between 60 to 90%. Partial rebreathing has no valve (breathing a mixture of oxygen and carbon dioxide)
80
Who can be sued?
no answer
81
What are the stages of grief?
``` Denial Anger Bargaining Depression Acceptance ```
82
What is the term used for failing to follow the policies involving the use of restraints or unnecessarily confining or restraining a patient without their permission?
False imprisonment
83
When an infection is acquired within the healthcare environment, this is referred to as what type of infection?
nosocomial
84
When a patient enters the healthcare facility with an infection, this is referred to as what type of infection?
Community acquired infection
85
What considerations should be given before moving a patient?
Patient’s general condition Range of motion and weight-bearing ability Patient’s strength and endurance Patient’s ability to maintain balance Patient’s ability to understand what is expected during transfer Patient’s acceptance of the move Patient’s medication history
86
As the body’s temperature increases, the body’s demand for ___ increases.
oxygen
87
An infection that is a result of a particular treatment or therapeutic procedure is termed?
iatrogenic
88
Infection control: | What are the stages of infection?
Incubation Prodromal Full disease Convalescent
89
What are the symptoms associated with a mild anaphylactic reaction?
Nasal congestion, periorbital swelling, itching, sneezing and tearing of eyes Tingling or itching @ injection site Fullness or tightness of chest, mouth or throat Feeling of anxiety or nervousness
90
What does PPE stand for and what does it include?
Personal protective equipment | Gloves, gown, mask and safety glasses
91
What type of needle is used to access an implanted port?
Huber needle
92
The blood pressure reading taken during the contraction of the ventricles:
systolic
93
What type of catheter is the Hickman? | Where is the entry and exit locations for the PICC?
Hickman – tunnel type (inserted into the subclavian or internal jugular vein and advanced into the SVC or right atrium) PICC – peripherally inserted central catheter into patient’s arm and advanced until tips lies in central vein
94
What is the term used for information concerning a patient that has been leaked to individuals who do not need to know and the information was presented in such a way that the patient was subjected to ridicule, scorn or contempt or was injured in some way as through loss of a job or home?
Defamation
95
Which type of oxygen device is considered the most common to deliver low concentrations of oxygen? What is the LPM range for this type of device?
Nasal cannula | 1 to 4 LPM (greater than 6 tends to dry out nasal passages)
96
When taking a BP on a patient, one may hear extraneous sounds such as tapping, knocking or swishing. These sounds are known as?
Korotkoff sounds
97
The result of an exaggerated hypersensitivity reaction is termed?
Anaphylaxis | Allergic reaction
98
Where is the correct placement for an endotracheal tube?
5 to 7 cm above the tracheal bifurcation (carina)
99
The body’s pathological reaction to illness, trauma or severe physiologic or emotional stress is known as: It may be caused by body fluid loss, cardiac failure, decreased blood vessel tone, or obstruction of blood flow to vital body organs.
Shock
100
What type of medical situation is encountered when the patient has an excess amount of insulin in the blood stream? What symptoms are displayed?
Hypoglycemia | Symptoms include intense hunger, weakness, shaky, sweat excessively, confusion or irritability
101
Pharmacology: | What type of medication prevents and treats nausea and vomiting?
Antiemetic | Compazine/Zofran
102
What are two other terms used for CVA or cerebral vascular accident?
Stroke or brain attack
103
What are the symptoms associated with a cerebral vascular accident?
``` Paralysis on one or both sides Slurred or no speech Extreme dizziness Loss of vision Severe headache Temporary LOC ```
104
What are the two most common NG tubes used and what is the difference between these two types?
Levin – single-lumen with holes near the tip Sump – double-lumen tube with second opening that consists of a blue extension off the proximal end of the tube (remains outside and is called a “pigtail”)
105
What are the three most commonly used NE tubes and which ones are single or double lumen?
Cantor – single Harris – single Miller-Abbott – double
106
What type of medication inhibits clotting of blood (thrombus formation)? Name one IV and oral type.
Anticoagulant IV – Heparin/Lovenox Oral – Coumadin
107
What are NG and NE tubes used for?
NG – diagnostic exams, administration of feedings or medications, treat intestinal obstruction and to control bleeding NE – decompression, diagnosis and treatment purposes
108
What type of medication acts on the CNS to produce a loss of sensation? Name one general and local type.
Anesthetics General – diprivan Local – carbocaine
109
What type of tube is placed from inside the stomach to the external abdominal wall for the purpose of feeding patients who cannot tolerate the oral intake of food?
Gastrostomy tube
110
The term used for profuse sweating, heavy perspiration is known as?
diaphoresis
111
What four elements are needed to consider the radiographer was negligent?
Duty to the patient by the technologist Breach of that duty Compensable injury Relationship between injury and duty
112
What type of medication relieves pain without causing a loss of consciousness? What is a type of nonnarcotic? What is a type of narcotic?
Analgesics – reduce pain, fever and inflammation in tissues Nonnarcotic – acetaminophen (Tylenol) Narcotic (intense pain) – morphine, Demerol Less severe pain – codeine, Percocet, oxycodone
113
Another type of central venous catheter is called an __ ___. This type of catheter is used for patients who have long-term illnesses that require frequent intravenous medications or transfusions.
Implanted port
114
What type of medication is used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Oral hypoglycemic drug (Glucophage – metformin)
115
What is the term used for failure to use such care as a reasonable prudent person (healthcare worker) would use under like or similar circumstances?
negligence
116
What symptoms might be displayed by the patient if experiencing a possible fainting episode?
Dizziness, sweating, feeling warm or flushed
117
What type of medication is used to dissolve clots?
Thrombolytic
118
Communication: | Speechless
Support or encouragement Emphasis Palpate
119
The catheter from the implanted port is inserted into what vein?
Subclavian or internal jugular vein
120
What is the normal systolic/diastolic pressure for an adult?
Less than 120 mm Hg and less than 80 mm Hg
121
What can happen if an endotracheal tube is positioned too high within the trachea?
May cause air to enter the stomach and cause regurgitation with the possibility of aspiration pneumonia developing
122
What length of time is a mask good for?
15 minutes
123
What are some conditions that may indicate a patient may need a chest tube?
Pneumothorax Hemothorax Pleural effusion
124
What is the base of support?
Foundation on which the body rests
125
What type of stance should be used?
Wide/Narrow/Boxer’s stance
126
What is the Patient Self-Determination Act (1990)?
Establishes guidelines concerning patients’ wishes when confronted with serious illness Patient’s desire if an illness cannot be cured or if the illness renders life without quality
127
What are the three most common postoperative tissue drains?
Penrose Jackson-Pratt Hemovac
128
What is the most frequently used method for sterilization?
Moist heat - autoclave
129
What is an autoclave?
Steam under pressure
130
The following drugs may be found on an emergency drug cart. What is the purpose? Dopamine Epinephrine
Constricts blood vessels and stimulates the heart | Used in cardiovascular, respiratory and allergic reactions
131
What is the name of a urinary catheter?
Foley – double lumen tube with a small inflatable balloon
132
What concerns are there concerning the drainage bag?
Transporting patient with bag
133
What type of medication treats allergic disorders (acute & chronic)?
Antihistamines Benadryl (sedating) Claritin (nonsedating)
134
If an endotracheal tube is inserted too far, what can happen?
It can enter the right bronchus (due to anatomical position) and cause the left lung to collapse (atelectasis)
135
What does nitroglycerin do for the patient?
Relaxes the smooth muscle of both arteries and veins, short or long acting Used to treat sudden onset of angina pain Long-acting patch to prevent or minimize angina
136
Body temperature is elevated above normal limits:
Fever or pyrexia
137
If a microorganism is known to produce a disease, it is called ____ ____ or a _____.
Pathogenic microorganism | Pathogen
138
NE are ____ and more ___ than NG tubes. | Are NE tubes used with suction?
Thinner Flexible No suction
139
What are the signs that a patient may need to be suctioned?
Profuse vomiting in a patient who cannot voluntarily change positions Audible rattling or gurgling sounds coming from throat Signs of respiratory distress
140
``` Communication: Localization Onset Chronology Quality Aggravating/alleviating factors Associated manifestations ```
none
141
What’s next
Review your patient care PPTs from the course Review the techniques associated with patient transfer, vital signs and sterile gloving Study for test!!