Online 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What tube is inserted through the nasopharynx into the stomach, duodenum or Jejunum
A
NG: Nasogastric tube
2
Q
What type of tube pass into the duodenum & small intestine by PERISTALSIS
A
NE: Nasoenteric tube
3
Q
Patient with long term illness requiring FREQUENT IV medications or transfusion will have an Implanted_____
A
Port
4
Q
Implanted Port are made from which 3 materials
A
Plastic, Titanium, or stainless steel
5
Q
Can a Radiologic technologist perform suction on a patient?
A
No, it is not within our practice to perform suctioning.
6
Q
Tracheostomy
A
Opening into the trachea created surgically to provide a temporary or permanent artificial airway.
7
Q
A chest drainage apparatus should always be placed
A
Below the level of the Chest
8
Q
When a patient comes in the radiology department with a urinary Foley catheter bag, it is important to
A
place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder
9
Q
what type of tube is used to feed a patient or conduct gastric suction?
A
NG: Nasogastric tube
10
Q
What type of tube helps to remove fluid or air from the pleural space?
A
Chest tube
11
Q
when caring for a tracheostomy patient what is the first rule?
A
watch for secretions
12
Q
What is another name for a Manual ventilation?
A
Ambu bag or bagging
13
Q
the tube is passed through the mouth into the trachea and is connected to a ventilator
A
Endotracheal tube
14
Q
What are the 2 classifications of Mechanical Ventilators and which one is commonly used?
A
Negative and Positive. Positive pressure is mostly commonly used
15
Q
What unit is used to measure pulse rate?
A
Beats per minute.
16
Q
Normal blood pressure for an adult is
A
120/80
17
Q
hypertensive
A
high BP (blood pressure)
18
Q
hypotensive
A
low BP
19
Q
Systolic
A
the blood pressure reading taken during contraction of the ventricles while the blood is in the arteries
20
Q
Diastolic
A
the blood pressure reading that occurs during Relaxation of the ventricles.
21
Q
A rapid heart rate is know as
A
tachycardia
22
Q
The condition of a slow heart rate, below 60 bpm is known as
A
Bradycardia
23
Q
What site produces the most accurate pulse rate?
A
Apical artery
24
Q
Pyrexia is
A
Body temperature that is elevated above normal limits
25
What location of the body can you only use the stethoscope to detect a patient pulse?
Apex of the heart
26
What artery can you determine a patient pulse easily by palpation?
Radial
27
What is the Normal avg respiration rate for a healthy adult
15- 20
28
What is the normal avg Pulse rate for an adult
hypothermus
29
What location is the most common, most accurate, and the safest?
Oral Rectal Axillary
30
Avgerage adult temperature is
98.6 degree's F
31
Hypothermia is when
core temperature drops
32
The brian cannot function longer than___minutes w/out it.
4-5 mins
33
Hypoxia hypoxemia
Low levels of o2 below 80% Low level of o2 in the blood
34
What oxygen device is the most common?
Nasal Cannula
35
Simple face Mask requires no less than__lpm
5 [lpm = liters per minute?]
36
With a Central Venous Catheters the Location of a SVC should approximately be __-___cm above or below right atrial junction?
2-3 cm above
37
Apena
temporary not breathing
38
Dyspnea
Difficult breathing
39
Orthopnea
discomfort breathing laying down.
40
Cheyne stokes
breathing is of abnormal pattern. Shallow until breathing stops. Last breaths of ones life
41
Rate of respiration to heartbeat is
1:4 [1 to 4 ratio]
42
A contaminated needle which is responsible for an infectious condition in a healthcare worker could be known as?
fomite
43
The flow of oxygen delivery system is usually measured in units of
Liters per Minute
44
Complete removal of all microorganisms is
surgical asepsis
45
what equipment is used for high pressure steam sterilization?
Autoclave
46
The best way that a healthcare worker will prevent the spread of infectious disease is by
HAND WASHING
47
nosocomial infection occurs
when infected in a hospital.
48
list in order from start to finish the stage of infection
Incubation stage, Prodromal stage, Full Disease Stage, & Convalescent stage.
49
Elements needed for transmission in order
infectious agent, Reservoir or an environment to live & multiply, Portal of exit from the reservoir, Means of transmission, Portal of entry into a host
50
What are the 5 ways that infection can be transmitted
Indirect contact (fomites), Direct contact, Vector, Vehicle, Airborne
51
What is the finale stage of an infectious process during which symptoms are diminished is known as
convalescent stage
52
A person gets infected with the west nile virus by a mosquito bite. The mosquito will be known as a fomite or a vector transmission?
Vector
53
stethoscope
Use to listen to cardiac and respiratory noise/sound
54
Medical asepsis
the method that helps reduce the spread of microorganisms
55
Disinfectant
Chemical substance that is used to kill pathogenic bacteria on instruments and equipment
56
Syncope
Fainting
57
Vertigo
Dizziness
58
4 types of shock
Hypovolemic: Decreae in blood volume or blood plasma (trauma/hemorrhage). Vasogenic: A sudden,vasodilation(toxin, sepsis, or from anesthesia). Anaphylatic shock: Serve allergic reaction. Cardiogenic: Failure of the heart to pump blood. Heat attack.
59
CVA
Cerebral Vascular Accident. Stroke or brain attack. Due to occusion or rupture of the blood supply to brain. Paralysis on one or both sides, slurred speech, extreme dizziness, lost of vision, severe headache, temp loss of consciousness.
60
Hypoglycemia
excessive amount of insulin in the bloodstream. Increase in glucose metabolism Inadequate intake of food to utilize insulin Rapid onset of symptoms. intense hunger, weakness, shaky, sweat excessively, confused or irritable
61
The type of shock often associated with PE or myocardial infarction is?
Cardiogenic
62
An inanimate object that has been in contact with infectious microorganism is known as
Fomite
63
Nosocomial vs community-acquired
infection contracted in the hospital. infection acquired outside in the public.
64
How long should you wash your hands
15 seconds
65
PPE stands for
Personal protection equipment
66
Medical asepsis vs Surgical asepsis
Reduce probability of infection. Removal of spores
67
Sterilization
Heat, most frequently used , moist/dry heat
68
Disinfectant
Antiseptic (betadine & alcohol)
69
Tort and 2 types
rights between individuals in the noncriminal actions. Intentional and Unintentional
70
Intentional tort
Assault/battery False imprisonment defamation invasion of privacy
71
Unintentional
Negligence
72
What transmission based precautions also requires the use of standard precautions
Droplet, indirect, direct, airborne
73
Which term describes gentle touching to determine the precise location of an anatomical landmark?
Palpation
74
Body's center of gravity is
in the pelvis S2
75
writing an unprofessional letter with defamatory words that is false about someone is known as
Libel
76
Body Mechanics refers
safe movement and transfer of the patient
77
If patient is left unattended and somehow gets injured the tech could be charged with
negligence
78
To prevent the patient from spreading or contacting a disease and to prevent a healthcare employee from contracting a disease is what type of technique?
Isolation
79
Slander
verbal defamation
80
Res Ipsa Loquitur means
The things speaks for itself
81
Respondent Superior means
The master speaks for the servant. each person is liable for his/her own negligent conduct.
82
Types of consent
written, oral or express, implied.
83
HIPPA
Health Insurance portability & accountability act 1996 protects patient health information privacy
84
Veracity referes to
honesty in all aspects of ones professional life. one must be honest with patients, co-workers, and oneself.
85
What is a PEG tube
Percutanious Endoscopic Gastrostomy. It is used when patient cannot swallow or utilize the normal oral/esophagus route for food intake. They are sometimes placed to suction or aspirate stomach contents following surgery or bowel obstruction
86
What does ERCP stand for?
Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopanceatography
87
the correct placement for a Endotracheal tubes is __-__ above the tracheal bifurcation
5-7cm above
88
Is a CXR required to be taken after placement of an Endotracheal tube and if so why?
Yes to confirm proper placement of tube. If tube is placed too high it cause air into the stomach and possibly regurgitation leading to aspiration pneumonia
89
PICC line
Peripherally inserted Central catheters are inserted into the patient's upper arm (subclavian)G .
90
Is a CXR required after placement of a PICC line?
Yes. to make sure placement is correct and to rule out a pneumothorax
91
Is a CXR required after placement of a PICC line?
Yes. to make sure placement is correct and to rule out a pneumothorax
92
what's the difference between Assault vs Battery
unlawful attempt, coupled with a present ability, to commit a violent injury." Assault does not require injury, or contact for that matter. "Battery" requires contact; it is defined as "any willful and unlawful use of force or violence
93
base of support is
the foundation for which the body rest.
94
If a person is unlawful touched without their consent is it battery or assault?
Battery
95
Imagining the wrong patient is considered Battery or Assault?
Battery
96
The use of restraints on a patient that is not required is considered a form of
False imprisonment
97
A form which is required to be signed by the patient indicating that they understand the procedure and the potential risk of the procedure/exam is known as
Informed consent
98
Would it be okay for a patient to be left unattained?
No
99
The most common injury among healthcare workers is
back injuries
100
What are the 5 rights to drug administration
Right drug, right patient, right amount, right route, right time.
101
When a patient is concern of being injured or feel in danger under your care is Assault or Battery
Assault
102
The law governing patient confidentiality
Assault
103
The law governing patient confidentiality
HIPPA
104
when someone breaks out in hives after injection of contrast. What drug should be administered ?
Antihistamine
105
food, water, medication, and equipment are commonly what type of transmission
Vehicle
106
What is the most common means of spreading germs/ infections?
Hands
107
Pathogens are
viruses or microorganisms that causes disease
108
Safe movement and transfer of patient is known as
Body Mechanics
109
what type of transmission occurs when a person inhales infectious droplets or dust particles? Is it Airborne or Inhalation
Airborne
110
Aspirin is considered what type of drug? Sedative, antibiotics, or analgesics?
Analgesic
111
Diuretic
medication that increase urine output
112
Antiemetic
Medication to treat or prevent vomiting and nausea
113
Venous and Urinary catheter are common cause for nosocomial infections. T or F
True
114
Thrombolytic drug is used to
dissolve clots
115
Anticoagulant
A substance that prevents the clotting of blood
116
Which medication is used immediately for heart attacks and strokes?
Thrombolytic
117
To be a good communicator you need 4 types of skills which are?
observing, talking, listen, and writing.
118
After each exam , Radiologic technologist should use what type of cleaning substance to wipe down the table and other equipment which was used or touch during the procedure?
Disinfectant
119
The most effective method for sterilizing equipment is
Moist heat (steam)
120
Clorox and lysol are considered to be
disinfectant
121
Anaphylaxis is used to describe
An allergic shock
122
before helping a patient out of a wheel chair, what is the first thing you should do?
Make sure that the brakes are locked.
123
When dealing with a patient which is handicap, you should always
get assistance to avoid injury to you and the patient.
124
Pharmacology
the study of drug action and drug interactions with living organisms.
125
Generic Name
Name given before it's official approval for use.
126
Trade Name (brand name)
Name given by a specific company
127
Morphine, Oxycodine, demerol are what type of drug? NonNarcatic or Narcotic?
Narcotic that treats and help with Moderate to serve pain
128
What are Nonopioids and opioids?
Nonnarcotic mild to moderate pain. Tylenol Advil. Narcotic
129
Anesthetics acts on what system of the body. Name 2 types of anesthetic and 1 drug each.
CNS to produce a loss of sensation. GENERAL - surgical Propofol (Diprivan) Local block nerve conduction for a specific area of the body. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) dentist.
130
Valium is what type of drug
Antianxiety. Act on the cns to calm or relax patients with anxiety
131
what drug causes blood vessels to constrict? Vasodilator or Vasoconstrictor?
Vasoconstrictor
132
Three types of touching when in regards of communication
Emotional support, emphasis, and Palpation
133
When obtaining a patients information Chronology, localization, and onset are necessary to document? T or F
True
134
List in order stages of grief
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance
135
What is the age of a toddler
1 to 3 yrs old
136
What does NAT stand for
Non accidental Trauma aka battered child syndrome
137
1 of The general guidelines is to let the patient do as much as possible in regards of patient transfer. T or F
True
138
Abnormal rapid heart rate 100 beats/min is known as
Tachycardia
139
Abnormal slow heart rate below 60 beats/min is known as
Bradycardia
140
pyrexia is commonly known as
fever
141
Nasal cannula is long or short term ?
Long term
142
Cantor- harris(single) and Miller- abbott (double are what type of Tube?
NE Nasoenteric tube
143
Levin (single) and Salem-sump (double) or what type of tube?
NG Nasogastric tube
144
BUN
blood urea nitrogen
145
cyanosis
bluish discoloration is easily observed around the mouth, in the gyms in the nail beds or in the ear lobes. which is a sign of respiratory distress
146
A patient with a consistently systolic blood pressure of 140mm hg is considered
hypertensive
147
When a patient is consistently having systolic blood pressure of 90 mm hg are considered
hypotensive
148
sphygmomanometers (mercury manometer ) and aneroid manometer are equipment to measure?
Blood pressure
149
Hypercapina is
Carbon dioxide retain in the arterial blood and adequate oxygenation of the blood is not taking place.
150
a high blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level means your kidneys aren't working well, particularly if the result is above __ mg/dL
50
151
Lower than normal blood urea nitrogen levels may be a sign of liver damage. But low levels can also be caused by malnutrition, a low-protein diet or a high-carbohydrate diet. T or F
True
152
Creatinine and BUN tests are performed to measure
renal function, filtration and over all organ health.
153
BUN is directly related to the metabolic function of the liver and excretory function of the kidney. Patients who have elevated BUN levels are said to have
azotemia, or be azotemic.
154
Creatinine tests diagnose
impaired renal function and measures the amount of creatine phosphate in the blood.
155
Creatine phosphate is used as part
of skeletal muscle contraction; its daily production depends on muscle mass. Once creatine is used by the muscles it becomes creatinine and is excreted by the kidneys as BUN.
156
With normal kidney function, serum creatine levels should remain constant if not and it is abnormally elevated it is an indication of
renal disorders
157
Normal levels of BUN are between __to __ mg/dL for an adult
10 to 20
158
GFR
the glomerular filtration rate. It is a test that doctors use to show how well kidneys function by testing your blood for creatinine. A normal eGFR is 60 or more
