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Patient Care > Online 1 > Flashcards

Online 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What tube is inserted through the nasopharynx into the stomach, duodenum or Jejunum

A

NG: Nasogastric tube

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2
Q

What type of tube pass into the duodenum & small intestine by PERISTALSIS

A

NE: Nasoenteric tube

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3
Q

Patient with long term illness requiring FREQUENT IV medications or transfusion will have an Implanted_____

A

Port

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4
Q

Implanted Port are made from which 3 materials

A

Plastic, Titanium, or stainless steel

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5
Q

Can a Radiologic technologist perform suction on a patient?

A

No, it is not within our practice to perform suctioning.

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6
Q

Tracheostomy

A

Opening into the trachea created surgically to provide a temporary or permanent artificial airway.

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7
Q

A chest drainage apparatus should always be placed

A

Below the level of the Chest

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8
Q

When a patient comes in the radiology department with a urinary Foley catheter bag, it is important to

A

place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder

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9
Q

what type of tube is used to feed a patient or conduct gastric suction?

A

NG: Nasogastric tube

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10
Q

What type of tube helps to remove fluid or air from the pleural space?

A

Chest tube

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11
Q

when caring for a tracheostomy patient what is the first rule?

A

watch for secretions

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12
Q

What is another name for a Manual ventilation?

A

Ambu bag or bagging

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13
Q

the tube is passed through the mouth into the trachea and is connected to a ventilator

A

Endotracheal tube

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14
Q

What are the 2 classifications of Mechanical Ventilators and which one is commonly used?

A

Negative and Positive. Positive pressure is mostly commonly used

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15
Q

What unit is used to measure pulse rate?

A

Beats per minute.

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16
Q

Normal blood pressure for an adult is

A

120/80

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17
Q

hypertensive

A

high BP (blood pressure)

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18
Q

hypotensive

A

low BP

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19
Q

Systolic

A

the blood pressure reading taken during contraction of the ventricles while the blood is in the arteries

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20
Q

Diastolic

A

the blood pressure reading that occurs during Relaxation of the ventricles.

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21
Q

A rapid heart rate is know as

A

tachycardia

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22
Q

The condition of a slow heart rate, below 60 bpm is known as

A

Bradycardia

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23
Q

What site produces the most accurate pulse rate?

A

Apical artery

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24
Q

Pyrexia is

A

Body temperature that is elevated above normal limits

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25
Q

What location of the body can you only use the stethoscope to detect a patient pulse?

A

Apex of the heart

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26
Q

What artery can you determine a patient pulse easily by palpation?

A

Radial

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27
Q

What is the Normal avg respiration rate for a healthy adult

A

15- 20

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28
Q

What is the normal avg Pulse rate for an adult

A

hypothermus

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29
Q

What location is the most common, most accurate, and the safest?

A

Oral Rectal Axillary

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30
Q

Avgerage adult temperature is

A

98.6 degree’s F

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31
Q

Hypothermia is when

A

core temperature drops

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32
Q

The brian cannot function longer than___minutes w/out it.

A

4-5 mins

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33
Q

Hypoxia hypoxemia

A

Low levels of o2 below 80% Low level of o2 in the blood

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34
Q

What oxygen device is the most common?

A

Nasal Cannula

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35
Q

Simple face Mask requires no less than__lpm

A

5 [lpm = liters per minute?]

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36
Q

With a Central Venous Catheters the Location of a SVC should approximately be __-___cm above or below right atrial junction?

A

2-3 cm above

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37
Q

Apena

A

temporary not breathing

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38
Q

Dyspnea

A

Difficult breathing

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39
Q

Orthopnea

A

discomfort breathing laying down.

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40
Q

Cheyne stokes

A

breathing is of abnormal pattern. Shallow until breathing stops. Last breaths of ones life

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41
Q

Rate of respiration to heartbeat is

A

1:4 [1 to 4 ratio]

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42
Q

A contaminated needle which is responsible for an infectious condition in a healthcare worker could be known as?

A

fomite

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43
Q

The flow of oxygen delivery system is usually measured in units of

A

Liters per Minute

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44
Q

Complete removal of all microorganisms is

A

surgical asepsis

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45
Q

what equipment is used for high pressure steam sterilization?

A

Autoclave

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46
Q

The best way that a healthcare worker will prevent the spread of infectious disease is by

A

HAND WASHING

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47
Q

nosocomial infection occurs

A

when infected in a hospital.

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48
Q

list in order from start to finish the stage of infection

A

Incubation stage, Prodromal stage, Full Disease Stage, & Convalescent stage.

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49
Q

Elements needed for transmission in order

A

infectious agent, Reservoir or an environment to live & multiply, Portal of exit from the reservoir, Means of transmission, Portal of entry into a host

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50
Q

What are the 5 ways that infection can be transmitted

A

Indirect contact (fomites), Direct contact, Vector, Vehicle, Airborne

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51
Q

What is the finale stage of an infectious process during which symptoms are diminished is known as

A

convalescent stage

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52
Q

A person gets infected with the west nile virus by a mosquito bite. The mosquito will be known as a fomite or a vector transmission?

A

Vector

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53
Q

stethoscope

A

Use to listen to cardiac and respiratory noise/sound

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54
Q

Medical asepsis

A

the method that helps reduce the spread of microorganisms

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55
Q

Disinfectant

A

Chemical substance that is used to kill pathogenic bacteria on instruments and equipment

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56
Q

Syncope

A

Fainting

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57
Q

Vertigo

A

Dizziness

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58
Q

4 types of shock

A

Hypovolemic: Decreae in blood volume or blood plasma (trauma/hemorrhage). Vasogenic: A sudden,vasodilation(toxin, sepsis, or from anesthesia). Anaphylatic shock: Serve allergic reaction. Cardiogenic: Failure of the heart to pump blood. Heat attack.

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59
Q

CVA

A

Cerebral Vascular Accident. Stroke or brain attack. Due to occusion or rupture of the blood supply to brain. Paralysis on one or both sides, slurred speech, extreme dizziness, lost of vision, severe headache, temp loss of consciousness.

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60
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

excessive amount of insulin in the bloodstream. Increase in glucose metabolism Inadequate intake of food to utilize insulin Rapid onset of symptoms. intense hunger, weakness, shaky, sweat excessively, confused or irritable

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61
Q

The type of shock often associated with PE or myocardial infarction is?

A

Cardiogenic

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62
Q

An inanimate object that has been in contact with infectious microorganism is known as

A

Fomite

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63
Q

Nosocomial vs community-acquired

A

infection contracted in the hospital. infection acquired outside in the public.

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64
Q

How long should you wash your hands

A

15 seconds

65
Q

PPE stands for

A

Personal protection equipment

66
Q

Medical asepsis vs Surgical asepsis

A

Reduce probability of infection. Removal of spores

67
Q

Sterilization

A

Heat, most frequently used , moist/dry heat

68
Q

Disinfectant

A

Antiseptic (betadine & alcohol)

69
Q

Tort and 2 types

A

rights between individuals in the noncriminal actions. Intentional and Unintentional

70
Q

Intentional tort

A

Assault/battery False imprisonment defamation invasion of privacy

71
Q

Unintentional

A

Negligence

72
Q

What transmission based precautions also requires the use of standard precautions

A

Droplet, indirect, direct, airborne

73
Q

Which term describes gentle touching to determine the precise location of an anatomical landmark?

74
Q

Body’s center of gravity is

A

in the pelvis S2

75
Q

writing an unprofessional letter with defamatory words that is false about someone is known as

76
Q

Body Mechanics refers

A

safe movement and transfer of the patient

77
Q

If patient is left unattended and somehow gets injured the tech could be charged with

A

negligence

78
Q

To prevent the patient from spreading or contacting a disease and to prevent a healthcare employee from contracting a disease is what type of technique?

79
Q

Slander

A

verbal defamation

80
Q

Res Ipsa Loquitur means

A

The things speaks for itself

81
Q

Respondent Superior means

A

The master speaks for the servant. each person is liable for his/her own negligent conduct.

82
Q

Types of consent

A

written, oral or express, implied.

83
Q

HIPPA

A

Health Insurance portability & accountability act 1996 protects patient health information privacy

84
Q

Veracity referes to

A

honesty in all aspects of ones professional life. one must be honest with patients, co-workers, and oneself.

85
Q

What is a PEG tube

A

Percutanious Endoscopic Gastrostomy. It is used when patient cannot swallow or utilize the normal oral/esophagus route for food intake. They are sometimes placed to suction or aspirate stomach contents following surgery or bowel obstruction

86
Q

What does ERCP stand for?

A

Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopanceatography

87
Q

the correct placement for a Endotracheal tubes is __-__ above the tracheal bifurcation

A

5-7cm above

88
Q

Is a CXR required to be taken after placement of an Endotracheal tube and if so why?

A

Yes to confirm proper placement of tube. If tube is placed too high it cause air into the stomach and possibly regurgitation leading to aspiration pneumonia

89
Q

PICC line

A

Peripherally inserted Central catheters are inserted into the patient’s upper arm (subclavian)G .

90
Q

Is a CXR required after placement of a PICC line?

A

Yes. to make sure placement is correct and to rule out a pneumothorax

91
Q

Is a CXR required after placement of a PICC line?

A

Yes. to make sure placement is correct and to rule out a pneumothorax

92
Q

what’s the difference between Assault vs Battery

A

unlawful attempt, coupled with a present ability, to commit a violent injury.” Assault does not require injury, or contact for that matter. “Battery” requires contact; it is defined as “any willful and unlawful use of force or violence

93
Q

base of support is

A

the foundation for which the body rest.

94
Q

If a person is unlawful touched without their consent is it battery or assault?

95
Q

Imagining the wrong patient is considered Battery or Assault?

96
Q

The use of restraints on a patient that is not required is considered a form of

A

False imprisonment

97
Q

A form which is required to be signed by the patient indicating that they understand the procedure and the potential risk of the procedure/exam is known as

A

Informed consent

98
Q

Would it be okay for a patient to be left unattained?

99
Q

The most common injury among healthcare workers is

A

back injuries

100
Q

What are the 5 rights to drug administration

A

Right drug, right patient, right amount, right route, right time.

101
Q

When a patient is concern of being injured or feel in danger under your care is Assault or Battery

102
Q

The law governing patient confidentiality

103
Q

The law governing patient confidentiality

104
Q

when someone breaks out in hives after injection of contrast. What drug should be administered ?

A

Antihistamine

105
Q

food, water, medication, and equipment are commonly what type of transmission

106
Q

What is the most common means of spreading germs/ infections?

107
Q

Pathogens are

A

viruses or microorganisms that causes disease

108
Q

Safe movement and transfer of patient is known as

A

Body Mechanics

109
Q

what type of transmission occurs when a person inhales infectious droplets or dust particles? Is it Airborne or Inhalation

110
Q

Aspirin is considered what type of drug? Sedative, antibiotics, or analgesics?

111
Q

Diuretic

A

medication that increase urine output

112
Q

Antiemetic

A

Medication to treat or prevent vomiting and nausea

113
Q

Venous and Urinary catheter are common cause for nosocomial infections. T or F

114
Q

Thrombolytic drug is used to

A

dissolve clots

115
Q

Anticoagulant

A

A substance that prevents the clotting of blood

116
Q

Which medication is used immediately for heart attacks and strokes?

A

Thrombolytic

117
Q

To be a good communicator you need 4 types of skills which are?

A

observing, talking, listen, and writing.

118
Q

After each exam , Radiologic technologist should use what type of cleaning substance to wipe down the table and other equipment which was used or touch during the procedure?

A

Disinfectant

119
Q

The most effective method for sterilizing equipment is

A

Moist heat (steam)

120
Q

Clorox and lysol are considered to be

A

disinfectant

121
Q

Anaphylaxis is used to describe

A

An allergic shock

122
Q

before helping a patient out of a wheel chair, what is the first thing you should do?

A

Make sure that the brakes are locked.

123
Q

When dealing with a patient which is handicap, you should always

A

get assistance to avoid injury to you and the patient.

124
Q

Pharmacology

A

the study of drug action and drug interactions with living organisms.

125
Q

Generic Name

A

Name given before it’s official approval for use.

126
Q

Trade Name (brand name)

A

Name given by a specific company

127
Q

Morphine, Oxycodine, demerol are what type of drug? NonNarcatic or Narcotic?

A

Narcotic that treats and help with Moderate to serve pain

128
Q

What are Nonopioids and opioids?

A

Nonnarcotic mild to moderate pain. Tylenol Advil. Narcotic

129
Q

Anesthetics acts on what system of the body. Name 2 types of anesthetic and 1 drug each.

A

CNS to produce a loss of sensation. GENERAL - surgical Propofol (Diprivan) Local block nerve conduction for a specific area of the body. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) dentist.

130
Q

Valium is what type of drug

A

Antianxiety. Act on the cns to calm or relax patients with anxiety

131
Q

what drug causes blood vessels to constrict? Vasodilator or Vasoconstrictor?

A

Vasoconstrictor

132
Q

Three types of touching when in regards of communication

A

Emotional support, emphasis, and Palpation

133
Q

When obtaining a patients information Chronology, localization, and onset are necessary to document? T or F

134
Q

List in order stages of grief

A

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance

135
Q

What is the age of a toddler

A

1 to 3 yrs old

136
Q

What does NAT stand for

A

Non accidental Trauma aka battered child syndrome

137
Q

1 of The general guidelines is to let the patient do as much as possible in regards of patient transfer. T or F

138
Q

Abnormal rapid heart rate 100 beats/min is known as

A

Tachycardia

139
Q

Abnormal slow heart rate below 60 beats/min is known as

A

Bradycardia

140
Q

pyrexia is commonly known as

141
Q

Nasal cannula is long or short term ?

142
Q

Cantor- harris(single) and Miller- abbott (double are what type of Tube?

A

NE Nasoenteric tube

143
Q

Levin (single) and Salem-sump (double) or what type of tube?

A

NG Nasogastric tube

144
Q

BUN

A

blood urea nitrogen

145
Q

cyanosis

A

bluish discoloration is easily observed around the mouth, in the gyms in the nail beds or in the ear lobes. which is a sign of respiratory distress

146
Q

A patient with a consistently systolic blood pressure of 140mm hg is considered

A

hypertensive

147
Q

When a patient is consistently having systolic blood pressure of 90 mm hg are considered

A

hypotensive

148
Q

sphygmomanometers (mercury manometer ) and aneroid manometer are equipment to measure?

A

Blood pressure

149
Q

Hypercapina is

A

Carbon dioxide retain in the arterial blood and adequate oxygenation of the blood is not taking place.

150
Q

a high blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level means your kidneys aren’t working well, particularly if the result is above __ mg/dL

151
Q

Lower than normal blood urea nitrogen levels may be a sign of liver damage. But low levels can also be caused by malnutrition, a low-protein diet or a high-carbohydrate diet. T or F

152
Q

Creatinine and BUN tests are performed to measure

A

renal function, filtration and over all organ health.

153
Q

BUN is directly related to the metabolic function of the liver and excretory function of the kidney. Patients who have elevated BUN levels are said to have

A

azotemia, or be azotemic.

154
Q

Creatinine tests diagnose

A

impaired renal function and measures the amount of creatine phosphate in the blood.

155
Q

Creatine phosphate is used as part

A

of skeletal muscle contraction; its daily production depends on muscle mass. Once creatine is used by the muscles it becomes creatinine and is excreted by the kidneys as BUN.

156
Q

With normal kidney function, serum creatine levels should remain constant if not and it is abnormally elevated it is an indication of

A

renal disorders

157
Q

Normal levels of BUN are between __to __ mg/dL for an adult

158
Q

GFR

A

the glomerular filtration rate. It is a test that doctors use to show how well kidneys function by testing your blood for creatinine. A normal eGFR is 60 or more

Patient Care (19 decks)

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