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HISTOPATHOLOGY > PART 1 - HP - IHC, CYTO > Flashcards

PART 1 - HP - IHC, CYTO Flashcards

1
Q

WHAT CONTROL IS THIS?

A section that is known and proven to contain the ANTIGEN in question

A

Positive control

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2
Q

WHAT CONTROL IS THIS?

Omits specific PRIMARY Ab or replaces an immunoglobulin that is directed against an unrelated antigen

OR

Control that test for the specificity of an Ab

A

Negative control

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3
Q

WHAT CONTROL IS THIS?

A substance that is similar to the analyte that is added in a constant amount to the blank, the standards, and the samples.

A

Internal standard control

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4
Q

WHAT CONTROL IS THIS?

Eliminates the variable of tissue fixation between specimens and controls but it contains TARGET antigen.

A

Built-in control/ Internal Tissue Control

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5
Q

Type of Necrosis

-this is the most common

-Tombstone formation

A

Coagulation necrosis

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6
Q

Type of Necrosis

Coagulation necrosis affects what ORGANS?

A

“MyLKS”

MYocardium
Lungs
Kidneys
Spleen

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7
Q

Type of Necrosis

refers to formation of pus

A

Liquefaction/colliquative necrosis

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8
Q

Type of Necrosis

Liquefaction/colliquative necrosis affects what part of the body?

A

Brain & spinal cord

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9
Q

Type of Necrosis

refers to Yellow, cheesy, crumbly material

A

Caseous/caseation necrosis

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10
Q

Type of Necrosis

conditions assoc w/ Caseous/caseation necrosis?

A

“TTSL”

TB

Tularemia

Syphilis

Lymphogranuloma inguinale

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11
Q

Type of Necrosis

refers to Sulfide gas production

A

Gangrenous necrosis

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12
Q

A type of Gangrenous necrosis refers to arterial occlusion?

A

Dry gangrene

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13
Q

A type of Gangrenous necrosis refers to venous occlusion?

A

Wet gangrene

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14
Q

Type of Necrosis

refers to Chalky white precipitates & Pancreatic degeneration

A

Fat necrosis

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15
Q

A type of necrosis that affects the LIVER?

A

Fatty degeneration

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16
Q

Urine cytology is the most widely used noninvasive test to detect what?

A

Urothelial carcinoma

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17
Q

what is the first step in IHC?

A

treating samples w/ formalin

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18
Q

A preparation step prior to staining that only applies to immunohistochemistry?

A

Antigen retrieval (uncover Ag para ma detect ni primary & secondary Ab)

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19
Q
A
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20
Q

BENIGN or MALIGNANT?

No metastasis

Slow

Within boundaries

Compresses tissue

A

BENIGN

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21
Q

BENIGN or MALIGNANT?

Metastasis

Fast

III-defined, Irregular boundary

Invades and destroys tissue

A

MALIGNANT

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22
Q

malignant tumor of EPITHELIAL TISSUE?

A

CARCINOMA

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23
Q

malignant tumor of CONNECTIVE TSE/MESENCHYMAL CELL?

A

SARCOMA

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24
Q

HP reports are provided w/ 3 copies

A

1 for doctor

1 for px

1 for lab (for filing)

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25
Q

signaturies for REQUEST FORM?

A

ATTENDING PHYSICIAN/DOCTOR

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26
Q

signaturies for RESULT FORM?

A

PATHOLOGIST AND MT

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27
Q

Primary signs of death (occur during somatic death)

A

“CRC”

CNS Failure

Respiratory failure

Cardiovascular failure

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28
Q

Secondary signs of death (occur after somatic death)

A

Algor mortis

Rigor mortis

Livor mortis

Dessication

Putrefaction

Autolysis

Post mortem clot

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29
Q

cooling of the body

1st demonstrate change after death

A

Algor mortis

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30
Q

Algor mortis rate of cooling?

A

1-1.5 deg F (0.5-1 deg C)

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31
Q

Stiffening of skeletal muscles after death

A

Rigor mortis

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32
Q

purplish discoloration or aka post mortem lividity

A

Livor mortis

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33
Q

drying and wrinkling of the anterior chamber of the eye and cornea

A

Dessication

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34
Q

Bacterial contamination

or

invasion of intestinal microorgs

A

Putrefaction

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35
Q

self digestion of ENZYMES

A

autolysis

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36
Q

formation of chicken fat and currant jelly like clot

A

post mortem clot

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37
Q

tumors are graded acc to the histologic features depends on what FACTORS?

A

-Polarity

-N:C ratio

  • # and char of mitoses

-Hyperchromaticity

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38
Q

Peyer’s patches function?

Peyer’s patches can be found on what organ?

A

-monitor growth of normal flora & prevent growth of pathogens

-ILEUM of small intestine

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39
Q
  1. when infected individual is negative for HIV but can transmit the infection, what period is this?
  2. the time after infexn but befor Ab/Ag is detected
A
  1. window period
  2. 12 weeks/more (gen.patho)
    3-9 upto 12 months (immunosero)
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40
Q

a condition refers to thickening of arterioles or small B.V in kidneys? it is the deposition of immune complex?

A

SLE

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41
Q

a term used for surgical connection b/w 2 structures

A

anastomosis

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42
Q

PROGRAMMED CELL DEATH (Cell suicide)

A

APOPTOSIS

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43
Q

Damage, trauma or toxicity-induced cell death (Cell injury),

Pathological cell death

A

NECROSIS

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44
Q

DESTRUCTION OF TISSUES OR CELLS BY SELF- PRODUCED ENZYMES (Self-digestion)

A

AUTOLYSIS

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45
Q

Reduction in size and CONDENSATION OF CHROMATIN in the nucleus, DARK & SHRUNKEN

A

pyknosis

46
Q

what are the nuclear changes in necrosis?

A

pyknosis, karyorrhexis, karyolysis

47
Q

SEGMENTATION AND FRAGMENTATION OF THE NUCLEUS

A

karyorrhexis

48
Q

DISSOLUTION OF THE NUCLEUS where all basophilia of the chromatin fades and the nucleus disappear

A

karyolysis

49
Q

what are the RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES?

A

-Hypoplasia

-Aplasia

-Agenesia

-Atresia

-Atrophy

50
Q

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGE

Incomplete development of the organ. Organ fails to achieve its full or adult size

A

Hypoplasia

51
Q

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGE

Incomplete or defective development of a tissue or organ

A

Aplasia

52
Q

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGE

Complete non-appearance of an organ

A

Agenesia

53
Q

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGE

Failure of an organ to form an opening

A

Atresia

54
Q

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGE

Acquired decrease in size of a normally developed tissue or organ, resulting from reduction in cell size or decrease in total number of cells or both

A

Atrophy

55
Q

what are the PROGRESSIVE CHANGES?

A

Hypertrophy

Hyperplasia

56
Q

PROGRESSIVE CHANGE

Increase in size of tissues or organs due to increase in the size of the individual cells

A

Hypertrophy

57
Q

PROGRESSIVE CHANGE

Increase in size of an organ or tissue due to increase in the number of cells

A

Hyperplasia

58
Q

what are the DEGENERATIVE CHANGES?

A

“MDAN”

Metaplasia

Dysplasia

Anaplasia

Neoplasia

59
Q

DEGENERATIVE CHANGE - Transformation of one type of adult cell to another caused by a certain type of stress different to what the cell is accustomed to

A

Metaplasia (reversible change)

60
Q

DEGENERATIVE CHANGE - Most often referred to proliferation of precancerous cells often arises from prolonged pathologic hyperplasia or prolonged metaplasia

A

Dysplasia (reversible change)

61
Q

DEGENERATIVE CHANGE - Cells have poor cellular differentiation; predominantly present are primitive cells types. Criterion toward malignancy

A

Anaplasia (irreversible change)

62
Q

DEGENERATIVE CHANGE - New tissue growth that is unregulated, irreversible and monoclonal accompanied by increase in size, pigmentation, mitosis, number, metaplastic and anaplastic changes of the cell

A

Neoplasia (irreversible change)

63
Q

OBSERVABLE IN PATIENT. Detected by someone other than the patient

A

SIGNS

64
Q

Pale face, sweating, abnormal heart rate, high blood pressure, yellow discoloration of the skin/mucous membrane (JAUNDICE)

A

SIGNS

65
Q

EXPERIENCED BY THE PATIENT.

Described by the patient feeling them

A

SYMPTOMS

66
Q

Anxiety, fatigue, pain (DYSURIA), numbness, lightheadedness, vision disturbances, noise/ringing in the ears (TINNITUS)

A

SYMPTOMS

67
Q

WHAT ARE THE CYTOLOGIC CHARACTERISTICS OF NORMAL PREGNANCY?

A

-marked Progesterone effect
-Absence of ferning
-presence of Doderlein-filled dirty bg
-presence of some typical Pregnancy cells
- presence of (50%) Intermediate cells in cluster
-presence of (less than 30%) Mature superficial cells

“PADPIM”

-Progesterone
-Absence of ferning
-Doderlein
-Pregnancy cells
-Intermediate cells (50%)
-Mature superficial cells (less than 30%)

68
Q

A combination of immunologic and histochemical techniques that is used for identification of specific or highly selective cellular epitopes or antigens

A

IHC

69
Q

Common Chromogens for Peroxidase?

A

DIAMINOBENZIDINE (DAB)

AMINOETHYL CARBAZOLE (AEC)

70
Q

Chromogen for Peroxidase that is insoluble dark brown reaction end product

A

DIAMINOBENZIDINE (DAB)

71
Q

Chromogen for Peroxidase that is insoluble rusty red reaction end product

A

AMINOETHYL CARBAZOLE (AEC)

72
Q

Sampling the T-zone is for the detection of:

A

T-zone/ transformation

detects DYSPLASIA & CARCINOMA OF CERVIX

73
Q
  1. term used refer to surgical procedure?
  2. term used refer to removal of uterus?
A
  1. ectomy
  2. hysterectomy
74
Q
  1. term used refer to removal of vas deferens?
  2. term used refer to reversal of vasectomy (pagbalik sa vas deferens)?
A
  1. vasectomy
  2. vasovasectomy
75
Q
  1. term used refer to surgical connection?
  2. term used refer to ballooning of Blood vessel?
  3. term used refer to pallor?
A
  1. anastomosis
  2. aneurysm
  3. anemia
76
Q

Can be a presenting feature of many serious medical conditions, notably MALNUTRITION, CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE, Nephrotic syndrome, lung, KIDNEY and LIVER DISEASES

A

edema
anasarca (generalized edema)

77
Q

Causes of air embolism

A
  1. decompression sickness (drivers are common)
  2. cunnilingus (oral sex- blowing into vagina)
  3. IV transfusion accident
  4. car crash (cause lung trauma)
78
Q

ESOPHAGUS WALL

  1. UPPER PART is composed of?
  2. LOWER PART is composed of?

and a mixture of the two in the middle.

A
  1. striated/skeletal muscle
  2. smooth muscle
79
Q

It forms the framework of Hematopoietic organs (LYMPHOID ORGANS lymph nodes, spleen, red BONE MARROW) and Parenchymal organs (Liver, Kidney and ENDOCRINE GLANDS)

A

reticular connective tissue

80
Q

color of reticular connective tissue on slide?

A

yellow and black

81
Q

what causes hard emboli?

A

bacteria
parasite
clots
tumors

82
Q

Microscopic examination of cells from different body sites for diagnostic purposes. It includes EXFOLIATIVE CYTOLOGY AND FINE NEEDLE ASPIRATION BIOPSY (FNAB), THORACENTESIS AND LUMBAR TAP.

A

diagnostic cytology

83
Q

a type of cytology that dislodge cells from body surfaces

A

abrasive cytology

84
Q

a type of cytology refers to Detection of MALIGNANCY, GENETIC SEX, INFECTIOUS AGENT and female hormonal status.

spontaneously shed cells in body fluids

A

exfoliative cytology

85
Q

The staining METHOD OF CHOICE for Exfoliative Cytology

A

Papanicolaou staining (pap smear)

86
Q

2ND BEST CHOICE method for routine cytologic examination; what microscopy it is?

A

phase contrast microscopy

87
Q

ROUTINE/MOST COMMON FIXATIVE for cytological specimens requiring fixation

A

95% ethanol

88
Q

The BEST FIXATIVE but has been abandoned because of the flammability, volatility and fire hazards associated with Ether

A

Ether Alcohol

Equal parts of 95% ethanol & ether

89
Q

Peritoneal, pericardial and pleural fluids are prone to jelly like clot formation how to prevent it?

A

one must add 300 UNITS of heparin/100 ml of aspirate

ex:

200 ml aspirate x 3 units/ml = 600 units
300 ml aspirate x 3 units/ml = 900 units

90
Q

Majority of cervical carcinomas and precancerous lesions of the cervix arise from the JUNCTION OF ENDOCERVICAL/ECTOCERVICAL MUCOSA

A

transformation zone/T-zone

91
Q

Cytologic Collection and Preparation:

it is a sample of endocervical canal

A

endocervical brush

92
Q

Cytologic Collection and Preparation:

for px with hysterectomy

A

vaginal scrape

93
Q

Cytologic Collection and Preparation:

for hormonal evaluation

A

lateral vaginal scrape

94
Q

Cytologic Collection and Preparation:

for localization of vaginal adenosis

A

four quadrant vaginal scrape

95
Q

Cytologic Collection and Preparation:

for detection of herpetic lesions or carcinoma

A

vulvar scrape

96
Q

SEX CHROMATIN (inactive x chromosome)

A

barr bodies

97
Q

in the nucleus of a female somatic cell In vaginal smears, the ESTROGEN EFFECT causes mature superficial cells to appear

A

true acidophilia (inc. affinity to acid dye - eosin pink)

98
Q

Dissects the cadaver

A

prosector

99
Q

Prosecutor of autopsy

A

main PATHOLOGIST

100
Q

First to perform autopsy

A

Giovanni Morgagni (anatomical pathology)

101
Q

Autopsy technician which means “SERVANT”

A

Diener

102
Q

Investigates the cause of death; policeman w/ training

A

coroner

103
Q

Autopsy technique: ORGANS ARE REMOVED ONE BY ONE

A

Virchow

104
Q

Autopsy technique: Characterized by IN SITU DISSECTION

A

Rokitansky

105
Q

Autopsy technique: Thoracic, cervical, abdominal and pelvic organs are removed EN MASSES

A

Letulle

106
Q

Autopsy technique: Thoracic, cervical, abdominal and pelvic organs are removed EN MASSES

A

Ghon

107
Q

Grossly normal lungs, when subjected to aqueous solution will what?

A

Float

108
Q

Abnormal/disease lungs will what?

A

Sink

109
Q

Cytokeratin 20 is expected to normally be positive with what tumor?

A

Colorectal Adenocarcinoma

110
Q

Cells that are found from two weeks of age to puberty, after childbirth, with abortions and after menopause are referred to as

A

Parabasal cells

HISTOPATHOLOGY (13 decks)

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