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Microbiology > Parasitology-2 > Flashcards

Parasitology-2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which malaria species can cause splenomegaly?

A

P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae (due to chronic immune activation).

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2
Q

What is “malarial retinopathy”?

A

Retinal hemorrhages and whitening seen in severe falciparum malaria.

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3
Q

What is “Recrudescence” in malaria?

A

Relapse of malaria due to incomplete clearance of RBC forms (without liver hypnozoites). Seen in P. falciparum and P. malariae.

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4
Q

Which type of reproduction occurs in mosquitoes for Plasmodium?

A

Sexual reproduction (sporogony).

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5
Q

What is the role of PfEMP1 in malaria?

A

PfEMP1 (Plasmodium falciparum erythrocyte membrane protein 1) mediates cytoadherence and antigenic variation, leading to immune evasion.

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6
Q

Why does P. vivax have lower parasitemia than P. falciparum?

A

Because P. vivax infects only young RBCs (reticulocytes).

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7
Q

What is the significance of Maurer’s clefts?

A

They are irregular cytoplasmic inclusions seen in P. falciparum-infected RBCs.

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8
Q

What is the role of Hemozoin in malaria?

A

Hemozoin is a byproduct of hemoglobin digestion by Plasmodium and is responsible for dark pigment in malaria-infected tissues.

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9
Q

Durck Granuloma is seen in

A

P. falciparum

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10
Q

Algid malaria

A

Malaria with circulatory failure

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11
Q

Screening method of choice for malaria

A

Kawamoto technique- acridine orange.

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12
Q

Thick smear vs thin smear for malaria diagnosis

A

Thick- to quantify
Thin- for identification

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13
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of malaria

A

Light microscopy

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14
Q

____ OIF is examined before reporting malaria negative

A

200-300

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15
Q

Thick smear vs thin smear sensitivity

A

Thick- 5 parasites/ microlitre
Thin- 200 parasites/ microlitre

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16
Q

Stains used for microscopy of malaria

A

Romanowsky stain
JSB stain

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17
Q

Ziemann’s dots seen in

A

P. malariae

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18
Q

James dots a/w

A

P. ovale

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19
Q

RDT for malaria
1. Principle
2. Sensitivity
3. Membrane used

A
  1. Immunichromatography
  2. 50-100/ microlitre
  3. Nitrocellulose membrane
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20
Q

Maltese cross appearance of RBC seen in

A

Babesia

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21
Q

Babesia
1. Definitive host
2. Intermediate host
3. Accidental dead end host

A
  1. Hard tick
  2. Rodent/ mammal
  3. Humans
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22
Q

Types of Babesia and CF

A

B. microti (host- rodent)
B. divergens (host- cattle)

CF- fever, chills, sweating

23
Q

Tx of Babesia

A

Azithromycin + Atovaquone
Severe: Clindamycin + Quinine

24
Q

Autofluorescence shown by which diarrhoea causing parasite

A

Cyclospora
Isospora

25
Q

Tx of
1. Cyclospora, Isospora
2. Cryptosporidium

A
  1. Cotrimoxazole
  2. Nitazoxanide
26
Q

What are the three main parts of a cestode?

A

Scolex (head), neck, and proglottids (body segments).

27
Q

Differences between heads of cestodes

A

Taenia solium (Pork Tapeworm)- 4 suckers, 2 rows of hooks
Taenia saginata (Beef Tapeworm)- 4 suckers
Diphyllobothrium latum (Fish Tapeworm)- 2 suctorial grooves/ bothria
Echinococcus granulosus (Dog Tapeworm)- 4 suckers, 2 rows of hooks
Hymenolepis nana (Dwarf Tapeworm)- 4 suckers, single row of 20-30 hooks
H.diminuta- 4 suckers

All of the ones with ‘ta’ doesnt have hooks

28
Q

What is the definitive host for Schistosoma?


A

Man

29
Q

What is the first intermediate host for Paragonimus westermani?


A

Snail

30
Q

What is the second intermediate host for Clonorchis sinensis?


A

Clonor fish

31
Q

What is the infective form of Schistosoma?


A

Cercaria larva

32
Q

How does Schistosoma transmit to humans?


A

Through skin penetration

33
Q

What type of eggs do adult Schistosoma produce?


A

Spinous egg

34
Q

What is the treatment for Schistosoma infection?


A

Praziquantel

35
Q

What clinical condition does S. Haematobium cause?


A

Haematuria

36
Q

Where does S. Mansoni primarily affect?


A

Inferior Mesenteric plexus

37
Q

What is a clinical manifestation of Fasciola hepatica?


A

Jaundice

38
Q

What is the infective stage of Ascaris Lumbricoides?


A

Embryonated egg

39
Q

What is the treatment for Ascaris Lumbricoides infection?


A

Albendazole

40
Q

What is the mode of transmission for Trichuris trichiura?


A

Ingestion

41
Q

What clinical condition is associated with Trichuris trichiura?


A

Dysentery

42
Q

What is the infective stage of Enterobius vermicularis?


A

Embryonated egg

43
Q

What is a diagnostic method for Enterobius vermicularis?


A

Scotch tape method

44
Q

What is the common name of Hymenolepis nana?

A

Dwarf tapeworm

45
Q

What is the mode of transmission of Hymenolepis nana?

A

Fecal-oral route (ingestion of eggs)
Autoinfection (eggs hatch in the intestine)
Ingestion of infected arthropods (like beetles)

46
Q

What are the characteristic features of Hymenolepis nana scolex?

A

Small, rounded scolex
Four suckers
Retractable rostellum with a single row of hooks

47
Q

What is the life cycle of Hymenolepis nana?

A

Eggs ingested → hatch into oncospheres
Penetrate intestinal wall → form cysticercoid larvae
Mature into adult worms in the intestine
Eggs released in feces or undergo autoinfection

48
Q

What are the clinical features of Hymenolepis nana infection?

A

Mostly asymptomatic
Abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea
Weight loss
Eosinophilia (mild)

49
Q

What is the diagnostic method for Hymenolepis nana?

A

Stool examination for eggs
Eggs are oval, thin-shelled, with polar filaments

50
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Hymenolepis nana?

A

Praziquantel (DOC)
Alternative: Niclosamide

51
Q

How does Hymenolepis nana differ from Hymenolepis diminuta?

A

H. diminuta is larger, has no hooks, transmits only via insects and shows no autoinfection

52
Q

How to differentiate between H. nana and H. diminuta life cycles?

A

Only between humans- H. nana
Btween humans and rats- H. diminuta

53
Q
A

Microbiology (19 decks)

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