Pacemaker questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are typical temporary epicardial pacemaker settings follow cardiac surgery

A
Rate 90 bpm
Atrial output 5mA
atrial sensitivity 1.0 mV
Ventricular 5mA
Ventricular sensitivity 2.0mV
Atrioventricular delay (AVD) 150 msec
Mode (DDD)
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2
Q

Compared to NSR VVI pacing causes decreased cardiac output. Describe 2 mechanisms that account for this decrease

A

Loss of atroventricular synchrony (atrial kick)

loss of depolarization via purkinje system resulting discordant ventricular contraction

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3
Q

List 3 diagnoses or groups of patients that are particulary adversely affected by the loss of sinus rhythm

A

Those with ventricular hypertrophy (aortic stenosis, severe HTN)
Those in congestive heart failure
mitral stenosis

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4
Q

List 5 items which may be tracked and used to modulate the rate in a rate responsive pacemaker

A
heat
carbon dioxide
electricity
lactic acid
intra-cardiac pressure
movement
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5
Q

How do rate responsive pacemakers work

A

Particular item is a product of increased metabolism and will be sensed by a transducer. This results in an electrical signal being sensed by the pacemaker electronic circuit and changes the pacemaker automatic interval and therefore the escape rate. As detectino of the item increases, the pacemaker output rate will icnrease, as the sensed paramter decrease, the pacemaker response will also decrease

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6
Q

Describe 2 ways which you would achieve permanent ventricular pacing in a patient with complete heart block and a previously placed mechanical valve in the tricuspid position

A

Epicardial pacing (subxyphoid, or anterior thoractomy approach)

Transvenous, transcoronary sinus, coronary vein LV wall pacing

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7
Q

Why not cross the Tricuspid valve

A

Potential damage to the valve
increasing tricuspid regurgitation
increasing possibility of jamming leaflet of a mechanical prosthesis

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8
Q

implanting an automatic internal defibrillator. What are anatomic boundaries that guide a cephalic vein cut down

A

Deltoid
pectoralis major
“Delto-pectoral groove”

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9
Q

List 2 advantages of cephalic vein cut down over direct subclavian percutaneous cannullation

A

less chance of lead trauma (crush injury)

less chance of hemothorax

less chance of pneuo

Less chance of chylothorax

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10
Q

Briefly describe the function of a pacemaker designated by the following 3 letters of the International pacemaker code

1) AOO
2) AAI
3) DVI
4) DDD
5) VOO

A

AOO: fixed-rate atrial pacer
AAI: (rate inhibited), atrial pacer
DVI: Double chamber pacing but only ventricular sensing
DDD: chamber pacing and double change sensing
VOO: Fixed rate, ventricular pacer

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11
Q

List 3 sensor that can be incorporated into a rate-adpative pacemaker

A

activity (movement)
minute ventilation
QT interval

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12
Q

What is pacemaker tachycardiac

A

Initiated when ventricular activity is conducted retrograde to the atria results in a premature atrial depolarization.
Pacemaker sense the retrograde-induced atrial event and paces the ventricle following the programmed AV delay. If the verntricular events is again conducted retrograde to the atraium, the endless loop cycle develops.

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13
Q

Why does PMT occur

A

Loss of AV synchorny

Can be be causes by over/under sensing or loos of atrial capture./PAV/magnet removal

retrograde conduction is related to status of AV node condution. If sinus node dysfunction and intact AV node then retrograde conduction is possible

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14
Q

What is treatment of PMT

A

Measure the VA conduction time and program a post ventricular atrial rerfractory period (PVRP) that is equal to the VA condution time plus 50ms

PVRP: is the period after a sensed or paced ventricular event which the atrial sensing circuit is refractory. Any atrial event occuring during the PVRAP will not be sense by the atrial circuit.

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15
Q

What features of the pacemaker must occur in order to have PMT

A

Dual chamber
atrial sensed
loss of AV snychrony.. (sinus node dysfunction with normal AV node condution)

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16
Q

What is Magnet Mode

A

Causing sensing to be inhibited

temporary turns pacemaker into asynchronus mode “set rate’ “VOO”

17
Q

What is DDD

A

paces atria and ventricle
senses atrial and ventricle
atria triggered and ventricle inhibited

18
Q

AAT

A

Paces atria
senses atria
triggers generator to fire if atria sensed

19
Q

What are actions of ICD

A

Perform cardioversion/defibrillation

Anti-tachycardia pacing–overdrive pacing in an attempt to terminate ventricular tachycardia.

20
Q

List absolute indications for PPM

A
  1. Sick Sinus syndrome
  2. Symptomatic sinus bradycardia
  3. trachy-brady syndrome
  4. 3rd degree heart block
  5. AF with slow ventricular response
  6. Chronotropic incompetence
  7. Prolonged QT syndrome
21
Q

What does magnet do for pts with ICD

A

Disables the tachyarrhythmia and therefore does not allows shocks

Magnet does NOT cause asynchronus pacing it would in a pacemaker

22
Q

Class I indications for AICD

A

Following sudden cardiac death due to VF or HD instability with VT after excluding reversible causes
Structural heart disease and spontateous sustained VT
Syncope of unclear origin and inducible VF or VT on EPS
LVEF <35% due to MI, 40 days post MI, NYHA II-III
DCM, LVEF <35%, NYHA II-III
LVEF 30%, prior MI, NYHA class I
NSVT due to prior MI, LVEF <40%, , VF or VT on EPS

23
Q

What are class IIa indications for AICD

A
IIa
Unexplained syncope, significant LV dysfunction, non-ischemic DCM
Sustained VT, normal EF
HCM with 1 or more RF for SCD
ARVD/C with 1 or more RF for SCD
Long QT with syncope and VT while on BB
Non-hospitalized pts awaiting transplant
Brugada syndrome with syncope
24
Q

Most common reasons to remove AICD

A

Infection

Lead fracture

25
Q

Most common reasons for inappropriate defibrillation/shock

A

SVT

fractured lead

26
Q

Where do you see the leads for ICD

A

leads go into the right atrium and the right ventricle

for for CRT you would see a third lead in that goes retrograde through the CS in the LV

27
Q

What percentage of pts receiving a CRT do not receive any benefit

A

about 30%

some actually get worse

28
Q

List 3 sensors that can be incorporated into a rate-adaptive pacemaker

A

Activity (movement
Minute ventilation
QT interval

29
Q

What type of pacemaker and why

79 yo pt with longstanding AF, R from 30 to 100bpm on medical treatment, good ventricular function

A

VVI/VVI(R)

VDD and DDD are contraindicated due to lack of organized atrial activity and risk of tracking atrial tachyarrhythmias

*pt has lived without atrial quick so will not benefit and if you place dual you run the risk of PMT

30
Q

What type of pacer and why

8 year old 23 KG with complete heart block

A

VDD

AV synchrony and rate responsiveness is maintained, single lead minimizes risk of subclavian vein thrombosis

DDD is acceptable but the 2 leads is less ideal in smaller children when the same effect can be had with single lead VDD system

31
Q

What type of pacer and why

80 year old F, with bradycardia persisting for 1 week following AVR. Pre-op EF at 35%. Rhytm strip shows sinus bradycardia with heart rates of 35bpm with PR interval and occasional 2:1 block

A

DDD

best due to reduced preoperative EF in a hypertrophied ventricle that would be very preload sensitive

VDD not ideal due to need for occasional atrial pacing

32
Q

What is the North Americans Society of Pacing and Electrophysiology five-position pacemaker classification system

A

I: Chamber paced–
O–(none); A (atrium), V (Ventriclle, D (dual A + V); S (single A or V)
II: Chamber sensed
O–None; A (atrium), V (ventricle); D (dual A + v); S (single A or V)
III: response to sensing
O—None; T (triggered) ; I (inhibitied); D (dual)
IV: Programmability
O–None, R (Rate modulation)
V: Multisite pacing
O (none), A (atrium), V (ventricle),D (dual A + V)