Arrhythmia Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What is incidence of atrial fibrillation

A

AF 1% in the general population
increase with age with an incidence of 0.2-0.3% at 25-35. 3-4$ at 55 to 65 and 6-9% at age 65 to 90.
most commonest arrhythmia occurring in all patients with an arrhymia.

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2
Q

Common causes of atrial fibrillation

A
Idiopathic (primary) 
Mitral valve disease (left atrial dilation) 
Ichemic heart disease
Hypertension
Post-cardiac surgery
alcohol
Thyrotoxiciosis
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3
Q

List risk factors for atrial fibrillation following cardiac surgery

A
Age
withdrawal of beta blockers
electrolyte imbalance
hypoxia
ischemia
pericardial effusion
infection, penumonia.
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4
Q

Pathophysiology of AF

A

AF is induced by focal areas of automaticity (mainly around the pulmonary veins) and is maintained by multiple march re-entry circuits within both atria

Treatment of parysymal AF–requires stopped the induction pathways (focal areas of automaticity) by pulmonary vein isolation

treatment of persistent AF requires elimination the maintaing pathways (macro re-rentry) using the Cox-maze procedure

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5
Q

What are surgical options for the treatment of AF

A

1) Cut and sew–surgical incisions using the lesion set described by Cox in the maze III operation
2) Radiofrequency ablation–employs an alternating current at 350kHz-1MHz to heat tissues to 70 to 80 degree for 1 mintue, creates a 3 to 6mm lesion using unipolar or bipolar devices. Transmurality is indicated by electrical conductance and impedance monitoring
3) Microwave–uses high-frequency electromagnetic radiation to induce oscillation of water molecules
4) Cryoablation, which uses nitrous oxide as a cooling agent for 2 minutes at -60 degree C to produce a transmural lesion that can be visualised as an iceball
5) Ultrasound, which uses high-frequency sound waves (2- 20 MHz) emitted by piezoelectric cyrstals to cause thermal heating and disruption of cell membranes.
6) Laster, which uses a monchromatic, phase coherent beam to cause heating and cellular destruction

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6
Q

What are principles of maze operation

A

A “maze” is created with a set of blind alleys with one entrance and one exit fro atrial electrical activation, thereby direction the electrical impulse along one specified route from the sino-atrial node to the atrioventrical node by interrupting conduction routes and re-entrant pathways.

Left atrial appendage excision is performed to reduce the area of blood stasis and potential site for thrombus

Less likely to be associated with successful outcome in patients with large left atria (>5c) or with lonstanding AF >5 year.

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7
Q

Describe management of atrial flutter

A

Aflutter is caused by a single macro re-entry circuit
Presents in variable block (2:1; 3:1;4:1) which represents an atral rate of 300 blom and a ventricular response of 150, 100, 75)
Treatment: amiodarone, calcium channel blockers, DC cardioversion, catheter ablation or surgical ablation of the flutter isthmus
Atrial flutter isthmus runs from the inferior vena caval opening along the eustachian valve and the coronary sinus, to the tricuspid valve

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8
Q

What is Vaughn-Williams classification of anti-arrhythmic drugs

A

I) Fast Sodium channel blockade 1a quinidine; procainamide;
1b lidocaine, phenytoin
1c propafenone, flecainide
II) Beta sympathetic blockade beta blockers

III) Potassium channel blockade amiodarone, sotalol

IV) Slow calcium channel blockade verapamil, diltazem, adenosine

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9
Q

What is incidence of AF in persons older then 65

A

5.9%

The absolute number of pts in AF will rise as population ages

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10
Q

What is Cox Maze III

A

This is the “cut-and-sew” technique

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11
Q

Study by Michael Argenziano (Coloumbia NY) JTCS 2013; 145:356-63

A

Right atrial lesions do not improve the efficacy of a complete left atrial lesion set in the surgical treatment of AF, but they do increase procedural morbidity

Success rates (freedom from AF or flutter at 3 months intervals)
Pulmonary vein isolation 56.7%, 56.9, 54
PVI + Mitral, + appendage 74.5%, 72%, 72%
Biatrial-extended 79%, 74, 83

Biatrial had a higher rate of pacemaker placement 16.5% vs 7.5%!

This is a weak study because it has many selection bias and it’s outcomes are not clear

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12
Q

List points of AF surgery

A

should not get heart block because you don’t ablate across the AV node

Multiple mapping studies have shown that with paroxysmal AF activation occurs from the pulmonary vein and the right atrium, indicate the left atrium set would be enough to terminate AF.

chronic AF shows a reentrant activation in the right atrium–indicating that biatrial lesion should be necessary to eliminate AF.

Right atrial size is very important in chronic AF

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13
Q

The CURE-AF trial: A prospective multicenter trial of irrigated radiofrequency ablation for the treatment of persistent AF during comcomitant cardiac surgery

Ralph Daminao, Jr
AATS

A

150 pts in 15 US centers, pts followed for 6 to 9 months and then had 24 hour holter.

All pts underwent standardized biatrial cox-max IV lesion set using irrigated RF ablation devices

total RF time was 9 min
Freedom from AF was 66% with 47% of pts off antiarrhythmic at 6-9 months
Success rate was 82% in persistent AF as opposed to 63% in permanent AF
Increased LA diameter, shorter RF ablation time, and increasing number of concomitant procedures were associated with occurrence of AF

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14
Q

What is WPW (wolff-parkinson white syndrome)

A
Short PR interval 
Wide QRS-delta wave
Accessory pathway 
	Free wall left atrium-type A 
	Right atrium==anterior superior type B 
Atrial fibrillation can be lethal due to rapid conduction via accessory pathway--can cause VF 

Catheter ablation is very successful> 99%

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15
Q

What are causes of VT

A

Idiopathic
Non-ischemic cardiomyopathy
Right ventricular dysplasia (Uhl’s anomaly)
Ischemic ventricular tachycardia

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16
Q

What is 4 letter code for International pacemaker

A

I chamber paced
II Chamber sensed
III Pacing algorith
IV Rate modulation

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17
Q

List different Demand (rate-inhibited) pacers

A

VVI and AAI

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18
Q

what is a VDD pacemakers

A

Pace maker that paces only the ventricle but sense both atrium and ventricle

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19
Q

List accepted indications for cardiac pacemaker in symptomatic patients with chronic conditions

A
Atroventricular block 
	Complete (3rd degree) 
	Incomplete (Second-degree) 
	Incomplete with 2:1 or 3:1
Sinus node dysfunction 
	sinus bradycardia
	sinoatrial block 
	sinus arrest
	bradycardia-tachycardia syndrome
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20
Q

List controversial indications for cardiac pacemaker implantation

A

In symptomatic patients
bifascicular/trifasiciular intraventricular block
hypersensitive carotid sinus syndrome
In asymptomatic patients
Third-degree block
Mobitz II
Mobitz II atrioventricular block following myocardial infarction
congenital atrioventricular block
Sinus bradycardia < 40 with long-term necessary drug therapy
overdrive pacing for ventricular tachycardia

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21
Q

What is definition of first degree atrioventricular block

A

Prolongation of R-R interval beyond 200 milliseconds

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22
Q

What is second degree block

A
Incomplete dissociation of the atrial and ventricular rates, with increasing P-R intervals and dropped beats
	Mobitz I (usally AV nodal block) 
	Mobitz II (usually in the HIS-Purkinje system)
23
Q

What is 3rd degree block

A

complete atrioventricular dissociation

the atrial rate usually exceeding the ventricular rate

24
Q

What are etiologies of AV block

A
Ischemic injury 
Idiopathic fibrosis 
cardiomyopathy 
iatrogenic injury 
AV node ablation 
Lyme disease
bacterial endocarditis 
systemic lupus erythematosus
congenital lesions
25
What type of cardiac pacemaker is recommended for sinus node dysfunction
Dual-chamber pacing (DDD or VDD) is favored because AV synchrony increases stroke volume and decreases symptoms
26
What is increase stroke volume with AV synchrony and who benefits from this approach
5 to 15% with AV synchrony Left ventricular hypertrophy, decreased diastolic compliance, and heart failure increase the importance of AV synchrony
27
What is ventricular resynchronization
Biventricular (RV apex and coronary sinus) pacing patients with advanced cardiomyopathy and an intraventricular conduction delay improves left ventricular function by restoring simultaneous contraction of the septum and free wall
28
What factors influence the rate response
``` increased ventricular contractility venous return heart rate body temperature venous oxygen saturation QT interval right ventricular systolic pressure right ventricular stroke volume ```
29
What is difference between Epicardial and endocardial leads
Epicardial leads are inferior in electrical characterisitcs and are prone to conduction fractures
30
What is Lone Atrial Fibrillation indication for surgery
1. Intolerance of arrhythmia in patients who have failed medical therapy 2. Development of tachycardia induced cardiomyopathy 3. contraindication to longer term anticoagulation
31
What are results of Cox-Maze III procedure
5.4 year F/U showing 97% NSR No difference if it was done for lone AF or as a concomitant procedure Medical therapy in lone AF is 80% in NSR at 5 years
32
What are results of Cox-Maze IV- atrial incisions and cryoblate
6 month results show 91-96% freedom from AF --no mortality
33
What are benefits of Cox IV over III
shorter cross clamp time for both lone and concomitant AF
34
What are indications for pacing in children
Congenital complete heart block: due to maternal lupus antibodies attacking the myocardium. Can also lead to cardiomyopathy symptomatic pts in CHF post operative CHB: should wait 7 to 14 days to see if there is recovery of conduction rate < 50 at rest long QT ventricular arrhythmias
35
What is acceptable Ventricular thresholds
Pacing threshold < 0.7 volts R wave amplitude > 5 mV Impedence: 400 to 1000 Ohms There should be no diaphragmatic pacing when 10mV
36
What is acceptable atrial threshold
pacing threshold < 2 volts sensingL if the atrial sensing is not satisfactory a DDD PM will not function AV delay is set shorter than the patients PR interval
37
what are complications of PPM
``` mortality-very rare Lead displacement MI Hemopneumothorax and tamponade < 2% pacemaker syndrome lead entrapment Infection/erosion generatory dysfunction undersensing oversensing cross talk exit block lead fracture subclavian crush air embolism nerve injury ```
38
What are indications for biventricular pacing
NHYA III-IV, now extended to NHYA II EF < 35% QRS > 150 seconds, LBBB PR interval > 200 ms
39
What is Radiofrequency
lesions formed from local tissue heating (coagulation necrosis) alternative current in range (0.5-1.0 MHz between 2 electrodes) homogenous lesions that measure 5 to 6 mm in diameter and 2-3 depth unipolar 50degree C for 60 seconds
40
What is cryoablation
``` Coldest temp (prime determinant of cell death) mat range btw-50 to -150 degree was a nitrous-based argon but newer ones are argon and helium which allow for much cooler temps used for endocardial ```
41
What is laser ablation
lesion formed thermally thru photon absorption at surface w deeper myocardial sites hearted through passive conduction creates a unidirectional linear ablation of 2 - 5 cm flexible configuration mechanism is wavelength dependent by creating harmonic oscillation in water molecules with resulting kinetic energy and heat generation used endocardial and epicardial because transmural lesions pass even through epicardial fat
42
What is Mircowave ablation
effective and controlled heating of large tissue volume w/o charring Frictional heating by induction of dielectric ionic movements
43
What are the 5 letter codes for pacing
``` Chamber paced chamber sensed response of pacemaker to sensing I= Inhibited; T = triggered; D = dual programmability O= none; P = simply programmability; M = multiprogrammability; C = communicating R = rate modult anti-tachycardia (position 5 is only for devices with ant-tachycardia function P = pacing stimuli S = countershock ```
44
What is dual chamber pacing algorithm
calculate lower rate and upper rate and AV delay if atrial rate lies between upper and lower limits, pacemaker will maintain 1:1 response b/w RA and RV w/o atrial pacing if atrial rate < lower rate limit then pacemaker adds atrial pacing if atrial rate > upper rate limit, then pacemaker maintains ventricular rate upper rate limit w loss of AV synchrony, resembling wenchebach when atria paced, physiologic P wave may occur as much as 100ms after atrial pacing artifcat. Longer delays are needed in AV pacing
45
What to do with surgery and pacemakers
Use of a unipolar electrocautery increases the chances of electromagnetic interference with pacemaker If patient is pacemaker dependent, back up pacing or chronotropic agents should be available pacemaker should be programmed to VOO, DOO, of VVT made to prevent inhibition
46
What is magnet mode
magnet placed over pacemaker closes a switch and converts pacemaker to "magnet mode". Initiats VOO mode making pacer insensitive to electromagnetic interference. Older pacemakers will convert to VOO for a few beats and then revert to underlying program
47
Who would you place a VVI pacer in
a patient with AV block with absence of reliable atrial function or sending. Sick sinus syndrom (most have intermitten AF--tachy-brady)
48
Who would you place a VDD pacer
Patient with AV block p waves and atrial function. Allows AV synchrony with only a single lead
49
Who would place a DDD
Patient with a AV block with functional atrium but slow atrial rate. This provides AV synchorny. Would help in HOCM, MR, This is common in about 60% of patients
50
What does DVI indicate
a pacer that does atrial and ventricle pacing but only only ventricular sensing
51
Why does biventricular pacing even work? and what is it?
It's pacing in the RV and the coronary sinus Improves left centricular function by restoring simultaneous contraction of the septum and free wall, so called ventricular resynchoronization.
52
What pacemaker do you place in a transplant
AAIR
53
What pacemaker do place in an atrial fibrillation pt
VVI or VVIR is appropriate for pts with bradycardia and chronic AF
54
CCS definitions of AF
1. First detected AF 2. Paroxysmal: AF is self-terminating within 7 days of onset 3. Persistent: AF is not self-terminating within 7 days or isterminated electrically or pharmacologically or 4. Permanent: AF in which cardioversion has failed or inwhich clinical judgment has led to a decision not topursue cardioversion