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Z. PATH 2 > Outcome 4 Conception and Early Pregnancy > Flashcards

Outcome 4 Conception and Early Pregnancy Flashcards

1
Q

Abnormal proliferation of placental tissue than can take on characteristics of malignancy

A

hydatidiform (hydatid) mole

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2
Q

Placenta has a ___ appearance on ultrasound or the diagnosis may come from evaluation after miscarriage/abortion

A

grape cluster

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3
Q

Hydatid mole is caused by ___ during fertilization where the placenta develops abnormally as a mass of clear grape like vessels

A

genetic anomaly

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4
Q

How are hydatid moles treated?

A
  1. evacuation of the uterus by dilation
  2. chemotherapy
  3. hysterectomy
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5
Q

Pregnancy should be avoided for at least __ months after removal of a hydatid mole

A

6 months

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6
Q

Fertilized egg implants that grows outside of the endometrial canal, most often the fallopian tube

A

ectopic pregnancy

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7
Q

What medication is prescribed for early unruptured ectopic pregnancies?

A

methotrexate

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8
Q

Methotrexate causes the ___ to die and the products to be reabsorbed by the body

A

placenta

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9
Q

What surgeries treat ectopic pregnancy?

A
  1. laparoscopic surgery

2. tubal conservation if unruptured

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10
Q

Severe state of morning sickness that doesn’t respond to over the counter remedies, requires prescription medicine or hospitalization

A

hyperemesis gravidarum

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11
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum is ssociated with weight loss of more than __ and metabolic disturbances and dehydration

A

10%

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12
Q

Hyperemesis gravidum is linked to elevated ___ and ___

A

estrogen and hCG

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13
Q

Which patients have a higher risk for hyperemesis gravidum?

A

patients with underlying emotional disturbances with abusive relationships

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14
Q

What is ruled out with hyperemesis gravidum

A

hyperthyroidism

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15
Q

How is hyperemesis gravidum treated?

A
  1. patient hospitalized
  2. electrolyte imbalance corrected with salts
  3. antiemetics
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16
Q

Refer to number of times the patient has been pregnant

A

gravidity

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17
Q

Refer to number of past pregnancies that have gone to viability and have been delivered

A

para

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18
Q

Pregnant woman

A

gravida

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19
Q

Number of times the female delivered a baby

A

para

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20
Q

Woman who is not pregnant and has never been pregnant

A

nulligravida

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21
Q

Woman who has never delivered a child

A

nullipara

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22
Q

First pregnancy

A

primigravida

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23
Q

Female who has delivered a fetus that reached viability

A

primipara

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24
Q

Female that has been pregnant 2 or more times

A

multigravida

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25
Q

Female that has delivered more than one baby

A

multipara

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26
Q

Female who have just given birth up to 42 days following delivery

A

puerpera

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27
Q

Naturally occurring loss of a fetus before the 20th week of pregnancy. Also called “missed” or “incomplete”

A

spontaneous abortion or miscarriage

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28
Q

__% of all pregnancies end in spontaneous abortions.

A

10-15%

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29
Q

Spontaneous abortion results from ____.

A

abnormal chromosomes

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30
Q

What 4 factors are associated with increased risk of abortion?

A
  1. infection
  2. metabolic disturbances
  3. maternal antibody production
  4. lupus or clotting disorders
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31
Q

Spontaneous abortion with no severe bleeding is treated how?

A

Allowing the products of conception to pass on their own; given medication to expedite the passage of fetal and placental tissue

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32
Q

Spontaneous abortion with severe bleeding is treated how?

A

Dilation, other surgical interventions

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33
Q

What is checked in spontaneous abortion?

A

Rh factor of mother

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34
Q

Non-invasive test in pregnancy providing detailed information on the health of the fetus

A

18 week ultrasound

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35
Q

What 4 thingscan be detected at 18 week ultrasound?

A
  1. heart abnormalities
  2. developmental problems of genitoruinary system which are incompatible with life
  3. nervous system disorders
  4. dating
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36
Q

18-week ultrasound is completed at what gestational age?

A

16th-20th weeks

37
Q

Needle sample of chorion guided by ultrasound

A

chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

38
Q

What can be detected during a chorionic villus sampling?

A

early detection of abnormalities to ensure time to decide whether or not to proceed with the pregnancy

39
Q

CVS is completed at what gestational age?

A

10-12 weeks

40
Q

Maternal blood sample

A

Maternal Serum Screen (MSS)

41
Q

What does the maternal serum screen measure?

A
  1. bhCG
  2. maternal alphaprotein
  3. unconjugated estrogen
42
Q

What is detected during MSS?

A

estimates risk of

  1. spina bifida
  2. trisomy 21 or down syndrome
  3. trisomy 18 or edwards syndrome
  4. open neural tube defects
43
Q

MSS relies on accurate _____

A

gestational age

44
Q

MSS is is completed at what gestational age?

A

16 weeks

45
Q

Nuchal translucency screen (ultrasound measurement)

A

First Trimester Screen (FTS)

46
Q

BhCG, pregnancy associated with ___, risk of ___ can be detected in FTS

A

plasma protein A, down syndrome

47
Q

FTS is not useful in ____

A

multiple gestation

48
Q

False positives in FTS should follow ___ or ___ to confirm

A

CVS, amniocentesis

49
Q

FTS is completed at what gestational age?

A

11-14 weeks

50
Q

Combines use of FTS and MSS

A

integrated prenatal screen

51
Q

Integrated prenatal screen detects Down Syndrome in __% of pregnancies but should still be followed by _____ to confirm

A

85-90%, amniocentesis

52
Q

Integrated prenatal screen is completed at what gestational age?

A

1st: 11-14 weeks
2nd: 15-20 weeks

53
Q

Assessment of genetic karyotype allowing for accurate prenatal diagnosis of genetic abnormalities including down syndrome

A

amniocentesis

54
Q

Which is more accurate: amniocentesis or CVS?

A

amniocentesis

55
Q

Amniocentesis can reveal the maturity of the ___ and ___ defects

A

fetal lung, open neural tube defects

56
Q

AMniocentesis provides information on ______ affected pregnancies

A

Rh isoimmunization

57
Q

Amniocentesis is completed at what gestational age?

A

15-16 weeks

58
Q

Amniocentesis takes ___ days for results

A

10-14 days

59
Q

What days are the menstrual cycle?

A

Days 1-4

60
Q

During the menstrual cycle, __ and __ are rising

A

FSH and LH

61
Q

Proliferative phase days

A

5-14 but varies between women

62
Q

Secretory phase days

A

15-28

63
Q

Secretory phase is always __ days in length

A

14 days

64
Q

How many trimesters in a pregnancy?

A

3

65
Q

How long is the first trimester?

A

0-12 weeks

66
Q

How long is the second trimester?

A

13-26 weeks

67
Q

How long is the third trimester?

A

27+ weeks

68
Q

What are the 2 phases of pregnancy?

A
  1. embryonic

2. fetal

69
Q

Pregnancy phase spanning the first two months

A

embryonic

70
Q

Pregnancy phase spanning the third through ninth months?

A

fetal

71
Q

Hydatidiform is also called a ___

A

molar pregnancy

72
Q

T or F. Molar pregnancies can become cancerous.

A

T

73
Q

What are 5 risk factors for ectopic pregnancies?

A
  1. IUDs
  2. pelvic adhesions due to previous pelvic infection or surgery
  3. damaged fallopian tubes
  4. progesterone contraception
  5. previous tubal ligation
74
Q

What are the 3 categories for risk factors?

A
  1. past obstetrical history
  2. medical history
  3. problems in current pregnancy
75
Q

What ages are risk factors in pregnancy?

A

35

76
Q

What are the risks for having a baby past 35 years old?

A

down syndrome

77
Q

How many kg overweight must a woman be to be considered a risk factor in pregnancy

A

> 9kg

78
Q

What are problems in current pregnancy that are risk factors?

A
  1. membrane rupture before 37 weeks
  2. PIH
  3. gestational diabetes
  4. post term pregnancy (>42 weeks)
  5. absence of fetal movements
  6. exposure to smoking and drugs
79
Q

When is absence of fetal movements worrisome?

A
  1. more than 24 hours after the 20th week

2. fewer than 10 movements per hour after the 28th week

80
Q

GTPAL

A 
gravidity
term deliveries
preterm deliveries
abortions (all types: elective or miscarriage)
live births
81
Q

What are the 3 classifications of spontaneous abortions?

A
  1. missed
  2. incomplete
  3. complete
82
Q

What is a missed spontaneous abortion?

A

no tissue has passed

83
Q

What is an incomplete spontaneous abortion

A

some tissue has passed

84
Q

What is a complete spontaneous abortion?

A

all tissue has passed

85
Q

In 18-week ultrasound, a ___ is done and provides a score out of 2 for a possible total of 10

A

biophysical profile (BPP)

86
Q

What 5 things can a BPP indicate?

A
  1. amniotic fluid volume
  2. breathing movements
  3. limb (body) movements
  4. fetal tone (muscle)
  5. heart rate/non-stress test
87
Q

What is the difference between CVS and amniocentesis?

A

CVS can’t detect neural tube defects, is less accurate

88
Q

What is the main advantage of CVS over other screening tests?

A

more specificity, sensitivity

89
Q

Which two tests detect Down syndrome

A

FTS & MSS, integrated

Z. PATH 2 (17 decks)

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