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Z. PATH 2 > Outcome 11 Hematology & Immunology > Flashcards

Outcome 11 Hematology & Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Anemia can be a reduction of these 2 mechanisms

A
  1. quantity of rbc

2. quantity of hemoglobin

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2
Q

Anemia can be classified by what three characteristics

A
  1. colour
  2. size
  3. cause
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3
Q

3 classifications of colour in anemia

A
  1. hypochromic
  2. normochromic
  3. hyperchromic
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4
Q

3 classifications of size in anemia

A
  1. microcytic
  2. normocytic
  3. macrocytic
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5
Q

2 main causes of iron deficiency anemia

A
  1. blood loss

2. insufficient dietary intake of iron

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6
Q

What type of blood loss occurs in iron deficiency anemia?

A

slow, chronic hemorrhage

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7
Q

In folic acid deficiency anemia, red blood cells are prevented from maturing as there is not enough folic acid available for _____

A

DNA synthesis

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8
Q

Aplastic anemia is caused by an insult to the ____ cells in the bone marrow

A

hematopoietic

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9
Q

Sickle cell anemia can be caused by heredity; there is an inherited trait that causes red blood cells to acquire a sickle or elongated shape on _____

A

deoxygenation

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10
Q

Hemorrhagic anemia is caused by an acute, large decline in ____ in a short time

A

blood volume

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11
Q

Hemolytic anemia is caused by ____ of the red blood cells

A

abnormal destruction

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12
Q

Another term for agrunolocytosis

A

neutropenia

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13
Q

2 causes of agrunolocytosis

A
  1. drug toxicity

2. hypersensitivity

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14
Q

Polycythemia vera is an absolute increase in red blood cell mass due to an increase of what 3 substances?

A
  1. hemoglobin
  2. rbc count
  3. hematocrit
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15
Q

Cause of primary (absolute) polycythemia

A

unknown

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16
Q

Cause of relative polycythemia

A

reduction of plasma volume

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17
Q

Leukemia is classified by the ___ type and the degree of ___ of the ____ cells

A

cell type, degree of differentiation, neoplastic cells

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18
Q

Leukemia with a rapid onset and progression

A

acute leukemias

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19
Q

Leukemia where progression is slower, measured in years rather than months

A

chronic leukemias

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20
Q

ALL is an overproduction of ____ cells in the bone marrow and lymph nodes

A

immature lymphoid cells (lymphoblasts)

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21
Q

CLL causes an excess of _____ which are hypofunctional

A

mature-appearing lymphocytes

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22
Q

Most common staging system used for CLL

A

Rai system

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23
Q

Acute myelogenous leukemia is divided into seven subtypes using this classification

A

French-American-British (FAB) classification

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24
Q

3 phases of chronic myelogenous leukemia

A
  1. chronic phase
  2. accelerated phase
  3. blast crisis
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25
Q

Drug that can induce and maintain a remission of chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

Gleevec

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26
Q

Only risk factor for CML

A

exposure to radiation

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27
Q

Part of the body where the lymph normally collects in lymphedema

A

usually in the extremities

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28
Q

Lymphangitis is caused by a ____ at the site of local trauma or ulceration

A

bacterial invasion

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29
Q

2 main types of lymphoma

A
  1. Hodgkin’s disease

2. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL)

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30
Q

Staging system used to evaluate both types of lymphoma

A

Ann Arbor-Cotswolds staging system

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31
Q

What are the 3 “B symptoms” of lymphoma?

A
  1. unexplained weight loss
  2. persistent or recurrent fevers
  3. night sweats
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32
Q

The presence of ___ cells differentiates Hodgkin’s disease from other types of lymphoma

A

Reed-Sternberg cells

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33
Q

Treatment for multiple relapses of Hodgkin’s disease

A

bone marrow transplant

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34
Q

3 categories for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma based on aggression

A
  1. indolent lymphomas
  2. aggressive
  3. highly aggressive
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35
Q

What is the effect on the red blood cells of an antigen-antibody incompatibility reaction?

A

hemolysis or agglutination of the RBCs that obstructs the flow of blood through capillaries

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36
Q

Most common type of hemophilia

A

classic hemophilia

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37
Q

Clotting factor that is deficient in classic hemophilia

A

Factor VIII

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38
Q

Cause of classic hemophilia

A

X-linked genetic inheritance (affects males)

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39
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) causes these 2 process to occur simultaneously

A
  1. hemorrhage

2. thrombosis

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40
Q

DIC occurs secondary to a ____

A

major event (obstetric complications, septicemia, trauma, etc.)

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41
Q

reduction in quantity of either RBCs or hemoglobin

A

anemias

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42
Q

anemia is not a disease, it is a ____ of various diseases

A

symptom

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43
Q

3 color classifications of RBCs

A
  1. hypochromic
  2. normochromic
  3. hyperchromic
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44
Q

3 size classifications of RBCs

A
  1. microcytic
  2. normocytic
  3. macrocytic
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45
Q

4 causes of anemia

A
  1. acute or chronic blood loss
  2. impaired production of RBCs
  3. inherited hemolytic conditions
  4. anorexia nervosa
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46
Q

6 types of anemia

A
  1. iron-deficiency
  2. folic-acid deficiency
  3. aplastic
  4. sickle cell
  5. hemorrhagic
  6. hemolytic
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47
Q

type of anemia: secondary to blood loss through hemorrhage; insidious bleed and even heavy menstrual flow or insufficient intake of dietary iron

A

iron deficiency

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48
Q

type of anemia: results when insufficient amounts of folic acid are available for DNA synthesis, thus preventing the maturation of blood cells

A

folic acid deficiency

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49
Q

folic acid deficiency is clinically similar to ___ anemia

A

pernicious

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50
Q

type of anemia: results from an insult to hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow

A

aplastic

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51
Q

in aplastic anemia, production of these 3 cells are reduced

A
  1. erythrocyte
  2. leukocyte
  3. thrombocyte
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52
Q

type of anemia: chronic HEREDITARY hemolytic form of anemia

A

sickle cell

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53
Q

in sickle cell anemia, sickle or elongated shaped cells obstruct ____ and lead to tissue hypoxia

A

capillary flow

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54
Q

type of anemia: results from large decline in blood volume or hypovolemia in a short time

A

hemorrhagic

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55
Q

type of anemia: caused by abnormal destruction of RBCs

A

hemolytic

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56
Q

3 other causes of hemolytic anemia

A
  1. heredity
  2. toxins
  3. certain bacteria
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57
Q

blood dyscrasia in which leukocyte levels become extremely low; can have a rapid onset

A

agranulocytosis

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58
Q

aagranulocytosis is also called ____

A

neutropenia

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59
Q

2 causes of agranulocytosis

A
  1. drug toxicity

2. hypersensitivity

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60
Q

agranulocytosis is treated with aggressive ____ therapy

A

anti-microbial

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61
Q

abnormal increase in amount of hemoglobin, RBC count, or hematocrit, causing an increase in RBC mass

A

polycythemia

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62
Q

polycythemia is also known as ____

A

polycythemia vera

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63
Q

polycythemia is caused by a sustained increase in _____ of bone marrow

A

hematopoiesis

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64
Q

polycythemia is also caused when ____ is reduced by dehydration, plasma loss, burns, fluid and electrolyte imbalance

A

plasma volume

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65
Q

family of drugs to treat polycythemia

A

myelosuppressive drugs

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66
Q

polycythemia is treated through ____ to reduce blood volume

A

periodic phlebotomy

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67
Q

overproduction of immature lymphoid cells in bone marrow and lymph nodes

A

acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

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68
Q

ALL tends to occur in ____ or those older than ____

A

children; 65

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69
Q

contributing factors in ALL

A

radiation, exposure, chemicals, drugs, smoking, genetic factor

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70
Q

diagnostic test for ALL

A

peripheral blood smear

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71
Q

in ALL, aggressive chemo is used for 2 to 3 years and the central nervous system is treated ____

A

prophylactically

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72
Q

type of radiation therapy to treat ALL

A

intracranial

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73
Q

type of transplantation for adult ALL patients with poor prognostic features

A

allogenic bone marrow transplantation

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74
Q

slowly progressing disease; neoplasm that involves lymphocytes; most patients are males

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

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75
Q

CLL is caused by _____ changes

A

chromosomal

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76
Q

CLL is caused by the deletion of chromosome #__

A

13

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77
Q

2 diagnostic tests for CLL

A
  1. peripheral blood smear

2. bone marrow studies

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78
Q

treatment for CLL is held until ____

A

symptomatic

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79
Q

rapidly progressive neoplasm of cells committed to the myeloid line of development

A

acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

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80
Q

in AML, leukemic cells accumulate in these 3 areas

A
  1. bone marrow
  2. peripheral blood
  3. other tissues
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81
Q

3 other names for AML

A
  1. acute myeloid
  2. myelocytic
  3. granulocytic
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82
Q

rapid accumulation of myeloblasts in AML lead to these 2 conditions

A
  1. pancytopenia

2. anemia

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83
Q

most common adult leukemia

A

AML

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84
Q

risk factors for AML include family Hx, previous treatment with ionizing radiation, chemo, ovarian cancer, breast cancer and chronic exposure to _____

A

benzene

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85
Q

many cases of AML are related to _____

A

treatment such as chemotherapy or radiation

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86
Q

chemo is the first treatment approach to AML and ____ during the first remission may improve survival

A

bone marrow transplantation

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87
Q

slowly progressing neoplasm arising in hematopoeitic stem cell or early progenitor cell

A

chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

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88
Q

2 other names for CML

A
  1. chronic myeloid

2. myelocytic

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89
Q

CML results in excess of mature-appearing but hypofunctioning ____

A

neutrophils

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90
Q

CML occurs most often in adults over age ___

A

40

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91
Q

CML is caused by exposure to ____ radiation

A

ionizing

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92
Q

CML is associated with abnormal chromosome #___

A

22

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93
Q

triphasic course for CML

A
  1. chronic
  2. accelerated
  3. blast
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94
Q

only chance for complete CML cure

A

bone marrow transplantation

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95
Q

bone marrow transplantation is an option for about __% of patients

A

25

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96
Q

abnormal collection of lymph; usually in extremities

A

lymphedema

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97
Q

in lymphedema, patient experiences no pain but extremities become swollen and ____

A

grossly distended

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98
Q

t or f. lymphedema can only be inflammatory

A

f. lymphedema may be inflammatory or mechanical

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99
Q

t or f. if untreated, lymphedema becomes permanent

A

t

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100
Q

treatment for lymphedema is aimed at reducing ____

A

swelling

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101
Q

the affected limb in lymphedema is elevated above the heart to encourage ____

A

drainage of lymph

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102
Q

inflammation of lymph vessels

A

lymphangitis

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103
Q

in lymphangitis, ____ may develop in surrounding tissue

A

cellulitis

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104
Q

lymphangitis is caused by ____ into lymph vessels at the site of local trauma or ulceration

A

bacterial invasion

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105
Q

t or f. occasionally, no portal of entry is detectable in lymphangitis

A

t

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106
Q

family of drugs to treat lymphangitis

A

systemic antibiotics

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107
Q

2 types of lymphoma

A
  1. hodgkins

2. non-hodgkins

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108
Q

cancer of the body’s lymphatic system in which tumors arise in lymph tissue and spread to other lymph nodes, spleen, liver and bone marrow

A

hodgkin’s disease

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109
Q

2 peaks of incidence in hodgkin’s disease

A
  1. patients in their 20s

2. patients over the age of 50

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110
Q

4 risk factors in hodgkin’s disease

A
  1. previous Hx of malignancy
  2. prior chemo/radiation
  3. family Hx
  4. exposure to EPV
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111
Q

stage 1 and 2 of hodgkin’s disease may be treated with ____ alone

A

radiation

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112
Q

stages 1, 2, and 3 of hodgkin’s disease is treated with ____

A

combined chemoradiotherapy

113
Q

higher stages of hodgkins is treated with ____ alone

A

chemo

114
Q

preferred therapy for hodgkin’s

A

ABVC therapy

115
Q

number of heterogenous neoplasms of lymphoid cells

A

non-hodgkin’s disease (NHL)

116
Q

incidence of NHL reaches a peak in this group

A

preadolescents

117
Q

2 risk factors of NHL

A
  1. personal Hx
  2. family Hx
  3. previous chemo/radiation/immune therapy
118
Q

lymphomas where treatment is put on hold until symptomatic

A

indolent lymphomas

119
Q

type of chemotherapy to treat aggressive lymphomas

A

CHOP chemotherapy

120
Q

transfused blood has antibodies to the recipient’s RBCS; the recipient has antibodies to the donor RBCs

A

transfusion incompatibility reaction

121
Q

most severe transfusion incompatibility reactions are related and characterized by ____ or ____

A

hemolysis; agglutination

122
Q

ABO- and Rh- incompatible blood and antigens are not revealed in screening

A

transfusion incompatibility reaction

123
Q

reaction that produces hemolysis or agglutination

A

antigen-antibody reaction

124
Q

treatment for transfusion incompatibility reaction include ___ before a transfusion

A

transfusion protocol mandates

125
Q

family of drugs to treat mild transfusion incompatibility reaction

A

antihistamines

126
Q

hereditary bleeding disorder resulting from deficiency of clotting factors

A

classic hemophilia

127
Q

classic hemophilia is caused by this type of genetic disorder in males

A

x-linked

128
Q

classic hemophilia may also be caused when hemophilia is transmitted from asymptomatic carrier ____ to ____

A

mother to son

129
Q

classic hemophilia may also be caused when ____ is functionally inactive; any minor trauma can initiate a bleeding episode

A

clotting factor (factor viii)

130
Q

t or f. there is no cure for classic hemophilia

A

t

131
Q

treatment in classic hemophilia is to prevent ____

A

crippling deformities

132
Q

condition of simultaneous hemorrhage and thrombosis

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

133
Q

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) occurs when ____ activates ____

A

thrombin; fibrin

134
Q

in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) thrombin activating fibrin causes ____ to form where it is not needed

A

clots

135
Q

thrombin in clots causes excessive ____ and additional bleeding

A

fibrinolysis

136
Q

4 predisposing factors

A
  1. hypotension
  2. hypoxemia
  3. acidosis
  4. stasis of capillary blood
137
Q

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is treated with IV _____

A

heparin

138
Q

2 other treatment options for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) when serious hemorrhage is present

A
  1. platelet replacement

2. plasma clotting factors

139
Q

progressive impairment of immune system caused by HIV

A

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

140
Q

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) directly damages the _____ and is ultimately life threatening

A

nervous system

141
Q

cause for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

A

HIV types 1 or 2

142
Q

in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), HIV attacks ____, leaving the body defenseless against infection and malignancy

A

helper T lymphocytes

143
Q

t or f. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is cureable

A

t

144
Q

upon diagnosis of AIDS, the number of ___ and ___ present is measured to determine when to begin treatment

A
  1. CD4 T

2. HIV RNA

145
Q

treatment for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS); classification of drugs

A

HAART drugs

146
Q

there are __ drug combinations in HAART treatment

A

3

147
Q

HAART is a combination of 2 ___ and 1 ___

A

nucleoside reductase inhibitors; protease inhibitor

148
Q

acquired b-cell deficiency resulting in decreased antibody production and/or function

A

common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

149
Q

another name for common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

A

acquired hypogammaglobulinemia

150
Q

in common variable immunodeficiency (CVID), the patient has a Hx of ____

A

chronic or current infections

151
Q

common symptom of common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

A

GI disease

152
Q

2 peaks of incidence in common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

A
  1. ages 18-25

2. ages 1-5

153
Q

common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is thought to be the result of genetic defects leading to these 2 conditions

A
  1. immune system dysregulation

2. failure of B-cell differentiation

154
Q

t or f. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) treatment is aimed at preventing ____

A

infections

155
Q

failure to produce normal levels of IgA

A

selective immunoglobin A (IgA) deficiency

156
Q

t or f. the majority of IgA deficiency is symptomatic

A

t. asymptomatic

157
Q

inheritance that plays a role in IgA deficiency

A

autosomal dominant or recessive

158
Q

IgA deficiency is thought to progress to ______

A

common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

159
Q

t or f. there is no cure for IgA deficiency

A

t

160
Q

near absence of serum immunoglobulins and increased susceptibility to infection

A

x-linked agammaglobulinemia

161
Q

another term for x-linked agammaglobulinemia

A

bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

162
Q

infants with agammaglobulinemia have absent or near absent ____

A

tonsils and adenoids

163
Q

in x-linked agammaglobulinemia, congenital x-linked disorder only affects ____

A

males

164
Q

x-linked agammaglobulinemia occurs due to a defect in the ____ gene

A

bruton tyrosine kinase (BTK)

165
Q

treatment for x-linked agammaglobulinemia is aimed at improving child’s ____

A

immune defenses

166
Q

group of disorders that result from a disturbance in the development and function of both T and B cells

A

severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

167
Q

severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) manifests as severe, recurrent infections with these 6 factors

A
  1. bacteria
  2. viruses
  3. fungi
  4. protozoa
  5. chronic diarrhea
  6. failure to thrive
168
Q

2 common infections associated with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

A
  1. pneumocystis pneumonia

2. mucocutaneous candidiasis

169
Q

2 types of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

A
  1. x-linked

2. autosomal recessive

170
Q

both types of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) are due to ____

A

genetic mutations

171
Q

genetic mutations in severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) lead to defects in ____ into B and T cells

A

stem cell differentiation

172
Q

only curative treatment for most types of severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs)

A

bone marrow transplantation

173
Q

congenital condition of immunodeficiency that results from defective development of the pharyngeal pouch system

A

DiGeorge’s anomaly

174
Q

another term for DiGeorge’s anomaly

A

thymic hypoplasia or aplasia

175
Q

children with DiGeorge’s anomaly have these 4 structural abnormalities

A
  1. abnormally wide set eyes
  2. downward slanting eyes
  3. low set ears with notched pinnas
  4. small mouth
176
Q

DiGeorge’s anomaly is the result of abnormal development of the _____ during the 12th week of gestation

A

third and fourth pharyngeal punches

177
Q

DiGeorge’s anomaly causes these 3 conditions

A
  1. cardiac anomalies
  2. hypoplastic thymus
  3. hypocalcemia
178
Q

in DiGeorge’s anomaly, ____ is treated to restore electrolyte balance and reduce risk of seizures

A

hypocalcemia

179
Q

2 types of transplantation to treat DiGeorge’s anomaly

A
  1. thymic

2. bone marrow

180
Q

group of disorders characterized by persistent and recurrent candidal (fungal) infections of the skin, nails and mucous membranes

A

chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC)

181
Q

in chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC), symptoms develop during the first ___ years of life

A

2 to 3

182
Q

individuals with chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC) have a ____ deficit specific to ____ making them susceptible to infection

A

t-cell deficit; candida albicans

183
Q

treatment for chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC) is directed at eliminating infections along with correcting _____

A

immunologic defects

184
Q

congenital disorder characterized by inadequate B and T cell function

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

185
Q

in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, the child expereinces these 3 conditions

A
  1. eczema
  2. thrombocytopenia
  3. increased susceptibility to bacterial/viral infections
186
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is an ____ trait affecting only males

A

x-linked inherited trait

187
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is caused by mutations in gene encoding the _____

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome Protein (WASP)

188
Q

the only curative therapy for Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

bone marrow transplantation

189
Q

2 diagnostic tests for HIV/AIDS

A
  1. ELISA

2. Western Blot Test

190
Q

diagnotistic test for HIV/AIDS: enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

A

ELISA

191
Q

diagnotistic test for HIV/AIDS: done to confirm positive ELISA result

A

Western Blot Test

192
Q

autoimmune condition where RBCs are destroyed by antibodies

A

autoimmune hemolytic anemia

193
Q

2 types of autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A
  1. warm antibody anemia

2. cold antibody anemia

194
Q

in autoimmune hemolytic anemia, RBC’s are destroyed by antibodies which causes ____ to the cells

A

agglutination

195
Q

diagnostic test for autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Coombs test

196
Q

warm anemia is treated with these 2 families of drugs

A
  1. corticosteroids

2. cytotoxic drugs

197
Q

2 warm anemia treatments

A
  1. splenectomy

2. IV immune globulin administration

198
Q

cold anemia is treated by avoiding ____

A

cold

199
Q

in cold anemia, _____ is helpful for reducing hemolysis

A

plasmapheresis

200
Q

anemia caused by chronic atrophic gastritis

A

pernicious anemia

201
Q

in pernicious anemia, production of ____ and ____ are decreased

A
  1. HCI acid

2. intrinsic factor

202
Q

pernicious anemia results in ___ deficiency

A

vitamin B12

203
Q

vitamin B12 required for ____ is deficient; causing RBCs to be deformed and reduced in number

A

RBC formation

204
Q

majority of patients with pernicious anemia have ____ which are cytotoxic to the ____

A

antiparietal cell antibodies; parietal cells

205
Q

pernicious anemia is associated with these 2 other diseases

A
  1. Grave’s disease

2. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

206
Q

diagnostic test for pernicious anemia

A

schilling test

207
Q

treatment for pernicious anemia

A

B12 injection

208
Q

acquired disorder that results from isolated deficiency of platelets

A

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

209
Q

_____ with unknown cause in a patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) requires medical attention

A

multiple bruising

210
Q

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) may occur after ____

A

viral infections like rubella or mumps

211
Q

in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), ____ is administered to help with clotting

A

vitamin K

212
Q

decreased number of circulating neutrophils caused by production of anti-neutrophil antibodies

A

immune neutropenia

213
Q

in immune neutropenia, there is an almost complete absence of ____ in the blood

A

neutrophils

214
Q

rare disorder caused by trans-placental transfer of maternal IgG that reacts with fetal neutrophils

A

isoimmune neutropenia

215
Q

immune neutropenia is often associated with this

A

accelerated turnover of neutrophils or increased neutrophil production

216
Q

3 treatment options for immune neutropenia

A
  1. corticosteroids
  2. immune globulin
  3. G-CSF
217
Q

autoimmune kidney disease characterized by presence of antibodies directed against an antigen in glomerular basement membrane (GBM)

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome

218
Q

another name for Goodpasture’s syndrome

A

anti-GBM antibody disease

219
Q

t or f. there is no known cause for Goodpasture’s syndrome

A

t

220
Q

3 treatment options for Goodpasture’s syndrome

A
  1. plasmapheresis with immunosuppressive agents
  2. hemodialysis
  3. kidney transplants
221
Q

chronic, autoimmune disease characterized by unusual autoantibodies in the blood that target tissues of the body

A

systemic lupus erythemaosus (SLE)

222
Q

systemic lupus erythemaosus (SLE) is informally known as ____

A

lupus

223
Q

3 factors that may predispose individuals to lupus

A
  1. genetic
  2. hormonal
  3. environmental
224
Q

to prevent the exacerbation of lupus, avoid unnecessary _____

A

light exposure

225
Q

patterns of ____ occurs with SLE

A

butterfly rash

226
Q

immunosuppressive meds would be required to treat SLE when _____ is present

A

organ-threatening disease

227
Q

Chronic, progressive disease characterized by mostly sclerosis (hardening) of skin, with scarring of certain internal organs.

A

scleroderma

228
Q

another term for scleroderma

A

systemic sclerosis

229
Q

scleroderma is classified these 2 ways

A
  1. diffuse

2. limited

230
Q

scleroderma that involves symmetric thickening of skin of extremities, face and trunk

A

diffuse

231
Q

scleroderma that tends to be confined to the skin of fingers and face

A

limited

232
Q

t or f. scleroderma is an autoimmune disease

A

t

233
Q

prognosis of scleroderma depends on the ____ affected

A

organs

234
Q

autoimmune disease featuring inflammation in various glands of the body

A

Sjögren’s syndrome

235
Q

in Sjögren’s syndrome, this is the main result of inflammation of the glands

A

dryness

236
Q

Sjögren’s syndrome is often associated with this condition

A

rheumatoid arthritis

237
Q

Sjögren’s syndrome is more common in families that have a member with an _____

A

autoimmune disorder

238
Q

treatment for Sjögren’s syndrome include relieving symptoms where there is____, such as increasing fluid intake, chewing gum and using oral sprays

A

dryness

239
Q

2 families of drugs to lessen immune inflammation in Sjögren’s syndrome

A
  1. prednisone

2. antimalarial medications

240
Q

chronic inflammatory, systemic disease that affects the joints

A

rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

241
Q

one of the most severe forms of arthritis causing deformity and disability

A

rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

242
Q

rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is __ times more common in females than maes

A

3x

243
Q

if untreated, rheumatoid arthritis (RA) can cause these 3 conditions

A
  1. destruction of cartilage
  2. joint deformity
  3. destruction of adjacent bone
244
Q

form of rheumatoid arthritis that affects children less than 16 years old

A

juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)

245
Q

juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) begins most commonly between the ages ____

A

2 to 5

246
Q

in juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), it is believed that the _____ in the joints are related to an autoimmune disease

A

pathologic changes

247
Q

heredity may play a role in some children with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), particularly those with this condition

A

spondylitis

248
Q

in juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA), braces or splints may be needed to correct ____ and _____

A
  1. growth disturbances

2. joint contracture

249
Q

t or f. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) is treated exactly as adult rheumatoid arthritis

A

t

250
Q

systemic, usually progressive inflammatory disease affecting primarily the spinal column

A

ankylosing spondylitis

251
Q

ankylosing spondylitis typically affects the ____ area of the spine first

A

sacroiliac

252
Q

in ankylosing spondylitis, periods of _____ occur

A

exacerbation; remission

253
Q

ankylosing spondylitis may be related to genetic basis and an association with these genes

A

HLA-B27

254
Q

disease of muscle that features inflammation of the muscle fibres

A

polymositis

255
Q

in polymositis, muscle fibers affected are mostly closest to the ____

A

trunk and torso

256
Q

polymositis is ____; there are cycles of flares, relapses and remissions

A

cyclical

257
Q

polymositis occurs when ____ spontaneously invade and injure muscles

A

WBC

258
Q

screening for polymositis must rule out ____

A

cancer

259
Q

inflammatory disease of the CNS that attacks the myelin sheath

A

multiple sclerosis

260
Q

4 types of multiple sclerosis

A
  1. relapsing-remitting-relapsing
  2. primary-progressive
  3. secondary-progressive
  4. progressive-relapsing-progressive
261
Q

multiple sclerosis is an ____ that increases one’s susceptibility to the disease

A

inherited trait

262
Q

2/3rds of multiple sclerosis develop from ages ____

A

20 to 40

263
Q

therapy used to treat multiple sclerosis

A

immunosuppressive

264
Q

chronic progressive neuromuscular disease that stem from the presence of autoantibodies to the acetylcholine receptor

A

myasthenia gravis

265
Q

myasthenia gravis is characterized by extreme muscular weakness without ____

A

atrophy

266
Q

myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune mechanism in which a faulty transmission of nerve impulse to and from the CNS, especially in the ____

A

neuromuscular junction

267
Q

myasthenia gravis is associated with these 2 conditions

A
  1. thymus hyperplasia

2. thymoma

268
Q

family of drugs to treat myasthenia gravis

A

anticholinesterase drugs

269
Q

surgical intervention to treat the tumor in the thymus gland in myasthenia gravis

A

thymectomy

270
Q

inflammation in the walls of the blood vessels

A

vasculitis

271
Q

2 types of vasculitis

A
  1. small vessel

2. systemic necrotizing

272
Q

vasiculitis in which the affected vessel becomes necrotic when it is obstructed by a thrombus and results in an infarct of adjacent tissue

A

small vessel vasculitis

273
Q

small vessel vasculitis affects these 3 areas

A
  1. capillaries
  2. arterioles
  3. venules
274
Q

vasculitis that primarily affects medium and large arteries

A

systemic necrotizing vasculitis

275
Q

systemic necrotizing vasculitis occurs in ____ and ____ conditions

A

cutaneous; systemic

276
Q

systemic necrotizing vasculitis can result in these 2 conditions

A
  1. ulceration

2. paralysis of an affected nerve

277
Q

some forms of systemic necrotizing vasculitis are related to these 2 factors

A
  1. amphetamine use

2. development of hepatitis b and c

278
Q

2 tests to diagnose systemic necrotizing vasculitis

A
  1. CBC ESR RA factor determinaton

2. serum tests for immunoglobulin

279
Q

treatment for systemic necrotizing vasculitis involves decreasing the ____ of the arteries

A

inflammaton

Z. PATH 2 (17 decks)

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