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Z. PATH 2 > Outcome 12 GI System > Flashcards

Outcome 12 GI System Flashcards

1
Q

treatment options for dental caries

A

fillings, root canals, tooth extraction

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2
Q

most common cause of gingivitis

A

plaque

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3
Q

cause of periodontitis

A

unchecked gingivitis

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4
Q

4 causes of malocclusion

A
  1. inheritance
  2. early loss of primary teeth
  3. thumb or finger sucking
  4. airway problems
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5
Q

4 causes of TMJ syndrome

A
  1. bruxism (grinding)
  2. malocclusion
  3. poorly fitting dentures
  4. arthritis
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6
Q

3 last resort surgical treatments options for TMJ syndrome

A
  1. TMJ arthroscopy
  2. joint restructuring
  3. joint replacement
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7
Q

definitive treatment for tooth abscess

A

root canal following antibiotic therapy

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8
Q

2 types of mouth ulcers

A
  1. aphthous

2. traumatic

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9
Q

mouth ulcers; source not established

A

aphthous ulcers

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10
Q

mouth ulcers; usually caused by mechanical trauma, viral and bacterial infection, stress, illness

A

traumatic ulcers

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11
Q

virus typically the cause of cold sores

A

herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) though there can be cross- contamination from HSV-2

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12
Q

organism that causes thrush

A

candida: most commonly Candida albicans

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13
Q

necrotizing periodontal disease most often seen today in association with this disease

A

HIV/AIDS: anaerobic opportunistic bacteria

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14
Q

another term for necrotizing periodontal disease

A

Vincent’s angina

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15
Q

oral leukoplakia causes ____

A

hyperkeratosis

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16
Q

what normally causes oral leukoplakia

A

chronic irritation

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17
Q

mild cases of GERD is described as ____

A

heartburn

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18
Q

4 treatment options for GERD

A
  1. elevate the head of the bed
  2. light evening meal 4 hours before bedtime
  3. antacids
  4. drugs
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19
Q

surgical treatment for GERD; used conservatively

A

anti-reflux surgery

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20
Q

patients have this underlying condition in esophageal varices

A

portal hypertension

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21
Q

2/3 of patients with esophageal varices have this condition

A

cirrhosis of the liver

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22
Q

2 treatment options for esophageal varices

A
  1. sclerotherapy and/or ligation if bleeding

2. emergency portal decompression

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23
Q

most common cause of esophagitis

A

reflux

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24
Q

replacement of normal stratified squamous epithelium of the distal esophagus with abnormal columnar epithelium

A

Barrett’s esophagus

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25
Q

__% patients with chronic GERD develop Barrett’s esophagus and have a ___x higher risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus and proximal stomach

A

15%; 30x

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26
Q

most common type of peptic ulcer

A

duodenal ulcers

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27
Q

most common cause of peptic ulcers

A

helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) bacteria

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28
Q

second most common cause of peptic ulcers

A

NSAID use

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29
Q

surgical treatment for peptic ulcers is required when in cases of ____ and ____

A

perforation and hemorrhage

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30
Q

which form of gastritis is more common

A

acute form

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31
Q

main cause of gastritis

A

H. pylori

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32
Q

significant diagnostic indicator of acute appendicitis

A

maximal tenderness at McBurney’s point

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33
Q

in appendicitis, what can rebound tenderness on examination indicate

A

peritoneal irritation

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34
Q

defect in the diaphragm permitting a segment of the stomach to slide into the thoracic cavity

A

hiatal hernia

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35
Q

2 causes of hiatal hernia

A
  1. congenital defect in the diaphragm

2. weakness in the diaphragm due to obesity, old age, trauma, or intraabdominal pressure

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36
Q

6 types of hernia

A
  1. hiatal
  2. abdominal
  3. femoral
  4. umbilical
  5. inguinal
  6. incisional
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37
Q

what can result from a trapped or strangulated (incarcerated) hernia

A

gangrene

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38
Q

types of hernias are based on ____

A

location

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39
Q

surgical treatment option for hernias in an otherwise healthy child or adult

A

herniorrhaphy

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40
Q

crohn’s disease can cause these 4 things on the intestines

A
  1. deep ulcerations
  2. bowel obstruction
  3. adhesions
  4. abscesses
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41
Q

x-rays can reveal ____ as a diagnostic indicator for crohns

A

skip lesions

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42
Q

chronic inflammatory bowel disease affecting the mucosa and submucosa of the rectum and colon

A

ulcerative colitis

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43
Q

treatment for severe cases of ulcerative colitis

A
  1. proctocolectomy with either ileostomy or ileoanal anastamosis
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44
Q

4 causes of gastroenteritis

A
  1. traveler’s diarrhea
  2. intestinal influenza
  3. food or chemical poisoning
  4. allergic reactions to food and drug
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45
Q

ingestion of disease-causing bacteria or parasites from contaminated food or water

A

traveler’s diarrhea

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46
Q

causes of intestinal obstruction

A

mechanical obstructions

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47
Q

t or f. mechanical intestinal obstructions may require surgical removal of the lesion or blockage

A

t

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48
Q

another term for diverticulosis

A

diverticular disease

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49
Q

term for the defects in the muscular wall of the large bowel that result from diverticulosis

A

outpouches

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50
Q

part of the large intestine where diverticulosis is most common

A

sigmoid colon

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51
Q

cause of diverticulosis

A

diet inadequate in roughage

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52
Q

cause of diverticulitis

A

trapped fecal matter in the out pouches associated with diverticular disease

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53
Q

when is surgical removal of the diseased portion performed for diverticulitis

A

Perforation and/or hemorrhage

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54
Q

pseudomembraneous enterocolitis causative bacteria:

A

Clostridium difficile: C diff.

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55
Q

cause of pseudomembranous enterocolitis

A

broad-spectrum antibiotics

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56
Q

2 other treatments for pseudomembraneous enterocolitis

A
  1. discontinue the antibiotic

2. isolation

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57
Q

virulent strain has been associated with hospital outbreaks of pseudomembraneous enterocilitis

A

BI/NAPI

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58
Q

short bowel syndrome occurs when a length of intact or functioning bowel is altered by ___ or ___

A

disease or surgery

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59
Q

4 main symptoms of IBS

A
  1. chronic abdominal pain
  2. discomfort
  3. bloating
  4. erratic dysfunction of bowel habits
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60
Q

is there a cure for IBS?

A

no

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61
Q

Is peritonitis acute or chronic?

A

can be both

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62
Q

Is peritonitis local or generalized?

A

can be both

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63
Q

cause of primary peritonitis

A

Blood-borne organisms originating in the GI or genital tract

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64
Q

cause of secondary peritonitis

A

perforation in the GI tract or intra-abdominal organs

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65
Q

Internal hemorrhoids are with the ____ above the ___

A

rectum; junction of the skin and rectal mucosa

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66
Q

external hemorrhoids are those lower in the ____ covered by skin

A

anal area

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67
Q

5 surgical treatment for hemorrhoids

A
  1. band ligations
  2. cryosurgery
  3. photocoagulation
  4. electrocoagulation
  5. hemorrhoidectomy
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68
Q

replacement of normal liver cells with hard, fibrous scar tissue

A

hobnail liver

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69
Q

most common cause of liver cirrhosis

A

chronic alcoholism

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70
Q

HAV is transmitted by ____ route from contaminated food, water and stools

A

fecal-oral route

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71
Q

recommended before travel into areas where hep A is prevalent

A

vaccination

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72
Q

HBV is considered chronic when the Hep B antigen is present in the blood for more than ___ months

A

6

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73
Q

Primary method if transmission for HBV is through the _____ and ____ routes (blood and body fluid)

A

percutaneous and perimucosal routes

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74
Q

HCV is transmitted through ___ and ____

A

blood; body fluids

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75
Q

Patients can recover completely but most develop ___ hep C

A

chronic

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76
Q

4 contributing factors to the formation of cholelithiasis

A
  1. aging
  2. high-calorie and high-cholesterol diet
  3. being female
  4. ocp use
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77
Q

3 treatment options for recurring cholelithiasis pain

A
  1. ERCP
  2. ESWL
  3. cholecystectomy
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78
Q

usual cause of cholecystitis is obstruction of the biliary duct caused by ___

A

gallstones

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79
Q

most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

gallstones

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80
Q

this can result in severe cases of pancreatitis

A

multi-organ failure

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81
Q

Kwashiorkor malnutrition is a deficiency of ___ in the presence of adequate ___

A

protein; energy

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82
Q

In industrialized societies, Kwashiorkor is usually caused by these 3 factors

A
  1. trauma
  2. burns
  3. illness
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83
Q

Marasmus malnutrition is a combined ___ and ___ deficiency

A

protein and energy

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84
Q

In industrialized societies, Marasmus is usually caused by ____

A

chronic diseases like COPD, CHF, AIDS

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85
Q

Main cause of malabsorption syndrome

A

defective mucosal cells in the small intestine

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86
Q

3 characteristics of celiac disease

A
  1. malabsorption
  2. gluten intolerance
  3. damage to the lining of the intestine
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87
Q

Treatment for food poisoning

A

symptom management

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88
Q

2 precipitating factors in anorexia

A
  1. family factors

2. social factors

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89
Q

Condition that can arise in a bulimic patient that can cause sudden death

A

hypokalemia

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90
Q

Motion sickness is caused by a disturbance in the ____

A

sense of balance

91
Q

infection resulting in erosion of the tooth surface

A

dental caries

92
Q

4 step process behind dental caries

A

cavity causing bacteria > acid plaque > demineralization > cavity

93
Q

dental caries is also caused by ____ from GERD or bulimia burging

A

stomach acid

94
Q

Inflammation and swelling of the gums

A

gingivitis

95
Q

2 demographics susceptible to gingivitis

A
  1. pregnant women

2. diabetics

96
Q

untreated gingivitis leads to the destruction of the gums and bone disease, called ____

A

periodontitis

97
Q

destructive gum and bone disease around one or more of the teeth

A

periodontitis

98
Q

another term for periodontitis

A

periodontal disease

99
Q

3 treatment options for periodontitis

A
  1. SRP scaling
  2. root planing
  3. curettage
100
Q

this periodontal surgery may be required if pockets are deep and nonresponsive

A

respective periodontal surgery

101
Q

specific angles of malposition and contact of the maxillary and mandibular teeth

A

malocclusion

102
Q

4 treatment options for malocclusion

A
  1. braces
  2. tooth extraction
  3. surgical removal of portions of jaw
  4. combined crowns or bridges
103
Q

symptom complex related to inflammation, disease or dysfunction of the temporomandibular joint

A

temporomandibular joint syndrome (TMJ)

104
Q

TMJ is also treated with ____ injections of hydrocortisone

A

intraarticular

105
Q

Pus-filled sac that develops in the tissue surrounding the base of the root

A

tooth abscess

106
Q

3 causes of tooth abscess

A
  1. dead pulp w/ invading bacteria
  2. exposure of nerve due to decayed tooth
  3. exposure of nerve due to tooth structure loss
107
Q

a surgical procedure to treat tooth abscess if a lesion is long standing, large or doesn’t heal after a period of time

A

apicectomy

108
Q

lesion on the mucous membrane, exposing the underlying sensitive tissue

A

mouth ulcers

109
Q

informal term for mouth ulcers

A

canker sores

110
Q

mouth ulcers are usually caused by ____ trauma

A

mechanical trauma

111
Q

mouth ulcers may be the first sign of these 3 conditions

A
  1. tumor in mouth
  2. anemia
  3. leukemia
112
Q

contagious, recurrent viral infection affecting skin and mucous membranes

A

herpes simplex

113
Q

informal term for herpes simplex

A

cold sores

114
Q

rubbing eyes after touching ulcer could form ___, which can produce severe illness

A

herpetic corneal ulcers

115
Q

viral cause of herpes simplex

A

HSV-1 (herpes simplex type 1)

116
Q

herpes simplex tend to recur because the virus can be ___

A

dormant

117
Q

burning, tingling sensation with herpes simplex that occurs in the soon to be affected area

A

prodome

118
Q

t or f. there is no known cure for herpes simplex

A

t

119
Q

Candidiasis of the oral mucosa, involving the mouth, tongue, palate, and gums

A

thrush

120
Q

t or f. thrush rarely becomes systemic or infectious

A

t

121
Q

fungus that causes the most cases of thrush

A

Candida albicans

122
Q

common infection affecting the gums and the anchoring structure of the teeth

A

necrotizing periodontal disease

123
Q

another term for necrotizing periodontal disease

A

Vincent’s angina

124
Q

necrotizing periodontal disease is formerly called ____ or ___

A
  1. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

2. trench mouth

125
Q

necrotizing periodontal disease is caused by _____ bacteria

A

anaerobic opportunistic bacteria

126
Q

hyperkeratosis or epidermal thickening of the buccal mucosa, palate, or lower lip

A

oral leukoplakia

127
Q

oral leukoplakia is considered ____ until proven otherwise

A

precancerous

128
Q

Clinical manifestations of regurgitation of stomach and duodenal contents into the esophagus

A

GERD

129
Q

GERD is caused by relaxation of the ____ or an increase in ____

A

lower esophageal sphincter (LES); intra-abdominal pressure

130
Q

Dilated submucosal veins that develop in patients with underlying portal HTN; may result in serious upper GI bleeding

A

esophageal varices

131
Q

with rupture in esophageal varices, pt experiences these 3 conditions

A
  1. hematemesis
  2. melena
  3. hypovolemic shock
132
Q

esophageal varices are caused by increased pressure within the veins when the ____ to the liver is impeded

A

venous return

133
Q

common complication of esophageal varices

A

liver cirrhosis

134
Q

inflammation and tissue injury of the esophagus

A

esophagitis

135
Q

severe inflammation of the esophagus resulting from ingestion of a caustic chemical

A

corrosive esophagitis

136
Q

esophagitis can be a GI manifestation of an ____ infection

A

HIV

137
Q

treatment for esophageal perforation in esophageal varices

A

emergency endoscopic or surgical repair

138
Q

treatment for esophageal stricture in esophageal varices

A

dilation procedure

139
Q

protective mucous membrane of the stomach or upper intestinal tract breaks down, making the lining prone to ulceration

A

gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers

140
Q

internal surface lesions from gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers can be these 3 things

A
  1. acute or chronic
  2. clustered or singular
  3. shallow or deep
141
Q

inflammation of the lining of the stomach

A

gastritis

142
Q

bacterial cause of acute gastritis

A

H. pylori

143
Q

disease that causes of chronic gastritis

A

peptic ulcer disease

144
Q

chronic gastritis can also be caused by a history of chronic disease like ____

A

pernicious anemia

145
Q

inflammation of the appendix

A

acute appendicitis

146
Q

if appendicitis is untreated, necrosis and rupture can result in _____ which is life-threatening

A

peritonitis

147
Q

defect in the diaphragm permitting a segment of the stomach to slide into the thoracic cavity

A

hiatal hernia

148
Q

in hiatal hernia, the ____ malfunctions, allowing the contents of the stomach to regurgitate into the esophagus

A

lower esophageal sphincter muscle (LES)

149
Q

hiatal hernia can cause this condition

A

GERD

150
Q

to treat hiatal hernia, minimize activities that increase ____ such as straining or coughing

A

intra-abdominal pressure

151
Q

an organ protrudes through an abnormal opening in the abdominal wall

A

abdominal hernia

152
Q

abnormal hernia occurs when an _____ develops in a weak area

A

abnormal opening

153
Q

device worn for uncomplicated hernias

A

truss

154
Q

chronic, relapsing inflammatory disorder of the GI tract

A

Crohn’s disease

155
Q

Chron’s disease is also called _____

A

regional enteritis

156
Q

goals of treating Crohn’s involve treating the _____ and maintain remission

A

acute disease flareups

157
Q

chronic inflammatory bowel disease affecting the mucosa and submucosa of the rectum/colon

A

ulcerative colitis

158
Q

fulminant ulcerative colitis may cause severe complications including ____

A

perforation

159
Q

drug treatment for severe ulcerative colitis

A

anti-TNF (antibodies to tumor necrosis factor)

160
Q

acute inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines

A

gastroenteritis

161
Q

in gastroenteritis, ___ and ___ fail to rid the body of toxins or large numbers of disease-causing bacteria and viruses

A

normal bacteria flora and acid secretions

162
Q

avoid using ____ to treat traveler’s diarrhea as they may delay body’s elimination of organisms

A

anti-diarrheal agents

163
Q

mechanical or functional blockage of the intestines; occurs when contents of intestine can’t move forward because of a blockage of the bowel

A

intestinal obstruction

164
Q

treatment of mechanical intestinal obstruction may required these 3 procedures

A
  1. surgical removal of lesion/blockage
  2. resection of diseased bowel
  3. 2nd surgery to take down ostomy and rejoin the bowel
165
Q

treatment of nonmechanical or functional intestinal obstruction doesn’t usually involve surgery; ____ used in cases of fecal impaction

A
  1. manual disimpaction

2. enemas

166
Q

progressive condition characterized by defects in the muscular wall of the large bowel

A

diverticulosis or diverticular disease

167
Q

in diverticulosis, these penetrate weak points in the muscular layer of large intestine

A

diverticula

168
Q

treatment of diverticulosis includes diet with adequate fluids and ___ to produce soft, formed stool

A

roughage

169
Q

infection of one or more diverticula; not nearly as common as diverticulosis

A

diverticulitis

170
Q

diverticulitis when one or more diverticula become ____

A

inflamed

171
Q

contributing factors to diverticulitis include lack of ____, inadequate fluid intake, constipation are contributing factors

A

dietary bulk

172
Q

acute inflammation with a plaque like adhesion of necrotic debris and mucus adhered to the damaged superficial mucosa of the small and large intestines

A

pseudomembranous enterocolitis

173
Q

small bowel fails to absorb nutrients because of inadequate absorptive surface; interferes with digestion and absorption of needed nutrients

A

short-bowel syndrome

174
Q

functional bowel disorder characterized by chronic abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and erratic dysfunction of bowel habits

A

irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

175
Q

IBS incidence increases after ___, which suggests immune or neuro-immune contribution

A

GI infection

176
Q

inflammation of the peritoneum; can be acute or chronic and local or generalized

A

peritonitis

177
Q

varicose dilations of a vein in the anal canal or the anorectal area

A

hemorrhoids

178
Q

in hemorrhoids, veins in the rectal and anal area become ____ as a result of blockage

A

varicose, swollen, tender

179
Q

irreversible chronic degenerative disease; slow deterioration of liver resulting in replacement of normal liver cells with hard, fibrous scar tissue

A

cirrhosis of the liver

180
Q

2 predisposing conditions to liver cirrhosis

A
  1. wilson’s disease

2. hemochromatosis

181
Q

highly contagious and causes mild acute liver infection; only hep to cause spiking fevers

A

hep A (HAV)

182
Q

HAV is also called ____ hepatitis

A

infectious hepatiits

183
Q

2 usual results of HAV

A
  1. liver function fully recovered

2. lifelong immunity to HAV

184
Q

in HAV, intramuscular administration of ____ is recommended within 2 weeks of exposure

A

globulin

185
Q

more insidious than HAV; aminotransferase levels are higher

A

hep B (HVB)

186
Q

many HBV infections are due to ___ or ___

A

sexual contact; blood exchange from contaminated needles

187
Q

most at risk for HBV due to accidental inoculation

A

healthcare providers

188
Q

drug given to exposed, nonimmune HBV patient

A

hep B immune globulin (HBIG)

189
Q

widesperead epidemic; most common blood-borne infection

A

hep C (HCV)

190
Q

exposure to hep C is traced to these 4 factors

A
  1. blood transfusions
191
Q

t or f. hep C is cureable

A

f. incureable

192
Q

common condition in which there is an abnormal presence of calculi or gallstones that form in the bile

A

cholelithiasis or gallstones

193
Q

cholelithiasis form due to insoluble ___ and ____

A

cholesterol; bile salts

194
Q

3 risk factors for cholelithiasis

A
  1. ileal disease
  2. alcoholic cirrhosis
  3. biliary tract infections
195
Q

___ gallstones are left alone

A

asymptomatic

196
Q

acute or chronic inflammation of the gallbladder, associated with obstruction of cystic duct

A

cholecystitis

197
Q

surgical treatment for cholecystitis

A

cholecystectomy

198
Q

acute or chronic inflammation of the pancreas with variable involvement of adjacent and remote organs

A

acute and chronic pancreatitis

199
Q

acute pancreatitis occurs when there is an escape of activated pancreatic enzymes from _____ into surrounding tissues

A

acinar cells

200
Q

disorder of malnutrition caused by primary deprivation of protein-energy (poverty/self-imposed starvation) or secondary to deficiency diseases (cancer/diabetes)

A

malnutrition

201
Q

2 distinct syndromes in protein-energy malnutrition

A
  1. kwashiorkor

2. marasmus

202
Q

deficiency of protein in the presence of adequate energy

A

kwashiorkor

203
Q

extreme malnutrition and emaciation caused by combined protein and energy deficiency

A

marasmus

204
Q

group of disorders in which intestinal absorption of dietary nutrients is impaired; pts have impaired digestion and unable to absorb fat or other dietary componenents

A

malabsorption syndrome

205
Q

main cause of malabsorption syndrome is ____ cells in the small intestine

A

defective mucosal cells

206
Q

malabsorption is treated by targeting underlying cause and controlled with a high protein, high calorie diet with these vitamins

A

vitamins A, D, E and K

207
Q

toxic or immunologic reaction to a component of gluten; has multisystem effects that can produce serious health problems

A

celiac disease

208
Q

pts with celiac disease are more prone to develop these 2 conditions later in life

A
  1. abdominal lymphoma

2. cancer

209
Q

2 other names for celiac disease

A
  1. gluten enteropathy

2. celiac sprue

210
Q

resistant form of celiac diseases is called ____

A

refractory sprue

211
Q

treatment for celiac disease involves a lifelong ____ diet to allow the bowel to heal and reverse malabsorption

A

gluten-free

212
Q

family of drugs to treat refractory sprue

A

corticosteroid drugs

213
Q

illness resulting from eating food containing bacterial toxins and viral, chemical or toxic substances

A

food poisoning

214
Q

t or f. in severe cases, patient becomes disabled and becomes life-threatening

A

t

215
Q

true food poisoning includes poisoning from mushrooms, shellfish, and food contaminated with ____ substances

A

poisonous and toxic

216
Q

other causes of food poisoning include eating food that has undergone these 2 processes

A
  1. putrefaction

2. decomposition

217
Q

eating disorder linked to a psychological disturbance in which hunger is denied by self-imposed starvation resulting from distorted body image; compulsion to be thin

A

anorexia nervosa

218
Q

behavioral disorder characterized by recurring episodes of binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting or purging

A

bulimia

219
Q

personality traits that are characteristic in patients with bulimia

A

perfectionist trait

220
Q

anorexia is associated with these 2 mental illnesses

A
  1. depression

2. anxiety

221
Q

bulimia is associated with these 2 mental illnesses

A
  1. depression

2. compulsion

222
Q

loss of equilibrium experienced during motion; nausea and vomiting when riding transportation

A

motion sickness

223
Q

in motion sickness, fluid in the ____ of the ears become dislocated because of motion

A

semicircular canals

224
Q

treatment for motion sickness involves sitting in a vehicle in position that has the least amount of ___ and where the patient can see the ____

A

motion; horizon

Z. PATH 2 (17 decks)

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