Outcome 12 GI System Flashcards
1
Q
treatment options for dental caries
A
fillings, root canals, tooth extraction
2
Q
most common cause of gingivitis
A
plaque
3
Q
cause of periodontitis
A
unchecked gingivitis
4
Q
4 causes of malocclusion
A
- inheritance
- early loss of primary teeth
- thumb or finger sucking
- airway problems
5
Q
4 causes of TMJ syndrome
A
- bruxism (grinding)
- malocclusion
- poorly fitting dentures
- arthritis
6
Q
3 last resort surgical treatments options for TMJ syndrome
A
- TMJ arthroscopy
- joint restructuring
- joint replacement
7
Q
definitive treatment for tooth abscess
A
root canal following antibiotic therapy
8
Q
2 types of mouth ulcers
A
- aphthous
2. traumatic
9
Q
mouth ulcers; source not established
A
aphthous ulcers
10
Q
mouth ulcers; usually caused by mechanical trauma, viral and bacterial infection, stress, illness
A
traumatic ulcers
11
Q
virus typically the cause of cold sores
A
herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) though there can be cross- contamination from HSV-2
12
Q
organism that causes thrush
A
candida: most commonly Candida albicans
13
Q
necrotizing periodontal disease most often seen today in association with this disease
A
HIV/AIDS: anaerobic opportunistic bacteria
14
Q
another term for necrotizing periodontal disease
A
Vincent’s angina
15
Q
oral leukoplakia causes ____
A
hyperkeratosis
16
Q
what normally causes oral leukoplakia
A
chronic irritation
17
Q
mild cases of GERD is described as ____
A
heartburn
18
Q
4 treatment options for GERD
A
- elevate the head of the bed
- light evening meal 4 hours before bedtime
- antacids
- drugs
19
Q
surgical treatment for GERD; used conservatively
A
anti-reflux surgery
20
Q
patients have this underlying condition in esophageal varices
A
portal hypertension
21
Q
2/3 of patients with esophageal varices have this condition
A
cirrhosis of the liver
22
Q
2 treatment options for esophageal varices
A
- sclerotherapy and/or ligation if bleeding
2. emergency portal decompression
23
Q
most common cause of esophagitis
A
reflux
24
Q
replacement of normal stratified squamous epithelium of the distal esophagus with abnormal columnar epithelium
A
Barrett’s esophagus
25
__% patients with chronic GERD develop Barrett's esophagus and have a ___x higher risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus and proximal stomach
15%; 30x
26
most common type of peptic ulcer
duodenal ulcers
27
most common cause of peptic ulcers
helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) bacteria
28
second most common cause of peptic ulcers
NSAID use
29
surgical treatment for peptic ulcers is required when in cases of ____ and ____
perforation and hemorrhage
30
which form of gastritis is more common
acute form
31
main cause of gastritis
H. pylori
32
significant diagnostic indicator of acute appendicitis
maximal tenderness at McBurney's point
33
in appendicitis, what can rebound tenderness on examination indicate
peritoneal irritation
34
defect in the diaphragm permitting a segment of the stomach to slide into the thoracic cavity
hiatal hernia
35
2 causes of hiatal hernia
1. congenital defect in the diaphragm
| 2. weakness in the diaphragm due to obesity, old age, trauma, or intraabdominal pressure
36
6 types of hernia
1. hiatal
2. abdominal
3. femoral
4. umbilical
5. inguinal
6. incisional
37
what can result from a trapped or strangulated (incarcerated) hernia
gangrene
38
types of hernias are based on ____
location
39
surgical treatment option for hernias in an otherwise healthy child or adult
herniorrhaphy
40
crohn's disease can cause these 4 things on the intestines
1. deep ulcerations
2. bowel obstruction
3. adhesions
4. abscesses
41
x-rays can reveal ____ as a diagnostic indicator for crohns
skip lesions
42
chronic inflammatory bowel disease affecting the mucosa and submucosa of the rectum and colon
ulcerative colitis
43
treatment for severe cases of ulcerative colitis
1. proctocolectomy with either ileostomy or ileoanal anastamosis
44
4 causes of gastroenteritis
1. traveler's diarrhea
2. intestinal influenza
3. food or chemical poisoning
4. allergic reactions to food and drug
45
ingestion of disease-causing bacteria or parasites from contaminated food or water
traveler's diarrhea
46
causes of intestinal obstruction
mechanical obstructions
47
t or f. mechanical intestinal obstructions may require surgical removal of the lesion or blockage
t
48
another term for diverticulosis
diverticular disease
49
term for the defects in the muscular wall of the large bowel that result from diverticulosis
outpouches
50
part of the large intestine where diverticulosis is most common
sigmoid colon
51
cause of diverticulosis
diet inadequate in roughage
52
cause of diverticulitis
trapped fecal matter in the out pouches associated with diverticular disease
53
when is surgical removal of the diseased portion performed for diverticulitis
Perforation and/or hemorrhage
54
pseudomembraneous enterocolitis causative bacteria:
Clostridium difficile: C diff.
55
cause of pseudomembranous enterocolitis
broad-spectrum antibiotics
56
2 other treatments for pseudomembraneous enterocolitis
1. discontinue the antibiotic
| 2. isolation
57
virulent strain has been associated with hospital outbreaks of pseudomembraneous enterocilitis
BI/NAPI
58
short bowel syndrome occurs when a length of intact or functioning bowel is altered by ___ or ___
disease or surgery
59
4 main symptoms of IBS
1. chronic abdominal pain
2. discomfort
3. bloating
4. erratic dysfunction of bowel habits
60
is there a cure for IBS?
no
61
Is peritonitis acute or chronic?
can be both
62
Is peritonitis local or generalized?
can be both
63
cause of primary peritonitis
Blood-borne organisms originating in the GI or genital tract
64
cause of secondary peritonitis
perforation in the GI tract or intra-abdominal organs
65
Internal hemorrhoids are with the ____ above the ___
rectum; junction of the skin and rectal mucosa
66
external hemorrhoids are those lower in the ____ covered by skin
anal area
67
5 surgical treatment for hemorrhoids
1. band ligations
2. cryosurgery
3. photocoagulation
4. electrocoagulation
5. hemorrhoidectomy
68
replacement of normal liver cells with hard, fibrous scar tissue
hobnail liver
69
most common cause of liver cirrhosis
chronic alcoholism
70
HAV is transmitted by ____ route from contaminated food, water and stools
fecal-oral route
71
recommended before travel into areas where hep A is prevalent
vaccination
72
HBV is considered chronic when the Hep B antigen is present in the blood for more than ___ months
6
73
Primary method if transmission for HBV is through the _____ and ____ routes (blood and body fluid)
percutaneous and perimucosal routes
74
HCV is transmitted through ___ and ____
blood; body fluids
75
Patients can recover completely but most develop ___ hep C
chronic
76
4 contributing factors to the formation of cholelithiasis
1. aging
2. high-calorie and high-cholesterol diet
3. being female
4. ocp use
77
3 treatment options for recurring cholelithiasis pain
1. ERCP
2. ESWL
3. cholecystectomy
78
usual cause of cholecystitis is obstruction of the biliary duct caused by ___
gallstones
79
most common cause of acute pancreatitis
gallstones
80
this can result in severe cases of pancreatitis
multi-organ failure
81
Kwashiorkor malnutrition is a deficiency of ___ in the presence of adequate ___
protein; energy
82
In industrialized societies, Kwashiorkor is usually caused by these 3 factors
1. trauma
2. burns
3. illness
83
Marasmus malnutrition is a combined ___ and ___ deficiency
protein and energy
84
In industrialized societies, Marasmus is usually caused by ____
chronic diseases like COPD, CHF, AIDS
85
Main cause of malabsorption syndrome
defective mucosal cells in the small intestine
86
3 characteristics of celiac disease
1. malabsorption
2. gluten intolerance
3. damage to the lining of the intestine
87
Treatment for food poisoning
symptom management
88
2 precipitating factors in anorexia
1. family factors
| 2. social factors
89
Condition that can arise in a bulimic patient that can cause sudden death
hypokalemia
90
Motion sickness is caused by a disturbance in the ____
sense of balance
91
infection resulting in erosion of the tooth surface
dental caries
92
4 step process behind dental caries
cavity causing bacteria > acid plaque > demineralization > cavity
93
dental caries is also caused by ____ from GERD or bulimia burging
stomach acid
94
Inflammation and swelling of the gums
gingivitis
95
2 demographics susceptible to gingivitis
1. pregnant women
| 2. diabetics
96
untreated gingivitis leads to the destruction of the gums and bone disease, called ____
periodontitis
97
destructive gum and bone disease around one or more of the teeth
periodontitis
98
another term for periodontitis
periodontal disease
99
3 treatment options for periodontitis
1. SRP scaling
2. root planing
3. curettage
100
this periodontal surgery may be required if pockets are deep and nonresponsive
respective periodontal surgery
101
specific angles of malposition and contact of the maxillary and mandibular teeth
malocclusion
102
4 treatment options for malocclusion
1. braces
2. tooth extraction
3. surgical removal of portions of jaw
4. combined crowns or bridges
103
symptom complex related to inflammation, disease or dysfunction of the temporomandibular joint
temporomandibular joint syndrome (TMJ)
104
TMJ is also treated with ____ injections of hydrocortisone
intraarticular
105
Pus-filled sac that develops in the tissue surrounding the base of the root
tooth abscess
106
3 causes of tooth abscess
1. dead pulp w/ invading bacteria
2. exposure of nerve due to decayed tooth
3. exposure of nerve due to tooth structure loss
107
a surgical procedure to treat tooth abscess if a lesion is long standing, large or doesn't heal after a period of time
apicectomy
108
lesion on the mucous membrane, exposing the underlying sensitive tissue
mouth ulcers
109
informal term for mouth ulcers
canker sores
110
mouth ulcers are usually caused by ____ trauma
mechanical trauma
111
mouth ulcers may be the first sign of these 3 conditions
1. tumor in mouth
2. anemia
3. leukemia
112
contagious, recurrent viral infection affecting skin and mucous membranes
herpes simplex
113
informal term for herpes simplex
cold sores
114
rubbing eyes after touching ulcer could form ___, which can produce severe illness
herpetic corneal ulcers
115
viral cause of herpes simplex
HSV-1 (herpes simplex type 1)
116
herpes simplex tend to recur because the virus can be ___
dormant
117
burning, tingling sensation with herpes simplex that occurs in the soon to be affected area
prodome
118
t or f. there is no known cure for herpes simplex
t
119
Candidiasis of the oral mucosa, involving the mouth, tongue, palate, and gums
thrush
120
t or f. thrush rarely becomes systemic or infectious
t
121
fungus that causes the most cases of thrush
Candida albicans
122
common infection affecting the gums and the anchoring structure of the teeth
necrotizing periodontal disease
123
another term for necrotizing periodontal disease
Vincent's angina
124
necrotizing periodontal disease is formerly called ____ or ___
1. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
| 2. trench mouth
125
necrotizing periodontal disease is caused by _____ bacteria
anaerobic opportunistic bacteria
126
hyperkeratosis or epidermal thickening of the buccal mucosa, palate, or lower lip
oral leukoplakia
127
oral leukoplakia is considered ____ until proven otherwise
precancerous
128
Clinical manifestations of regurgitation of stomach and duodenal contents into the esophagus
GERD
129
GERD is caused by relaxation of the ____ or an increase in ____
lower esophageal sphincter (LES); intra-abdominal pressure
130
Dilated submucosal veins that develop in patients with underlying portal HTN; may result in serious upper GI bleeding
esophageal varices
131
with rupture in esophageal varices, pt experiences these 3 conditions
1. hematemesis
2. melena
3. hypovolemic shock
132
esophageal varices are caused by increased pressure within the veins when the ____ to the liver is impeded
venous return
133
common complication of esophageal varices
liver cirrhosis
134
inflammation and tissue injury of the esophagus
esophagitis
135
severe inflammation of the esophagus resulting from ingestion of a caustic chemical
corrosive esophagitis
136
esophagitis can be a GI manifestation of an ____ infection
HIV
137
treatment for esophageal perforation in esophageal varices
emergency endoscopic or surgical repair
138
treatment for esophageal stricture in esophageal varices
dilation procedure
139
protective mucous membrane of the stomach or upper intestinal tract breaks down, making the lining prone to ulceration
gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers
140
internal surface lesions from gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers can be these 3 things
1. acute or chronic
2. clustered or singular
3. shallow or deep
141
inflammation of the lining of the stomach
gastritis
142
bacterial cause of acute gastritis
H. pylori
143
disease that causes of chronic gastritis
peptic ulcer disease
144
chronic gastritis can also be caused by a history of chronic disease like ____
pernicious anemia
145
inflammation of the appendix
acute appendicitis
146
if appendicitis is untreated, necrosis and rupture can result in _____ which is life-threatening
peritonitis
147
defect in the diaphragm permitting a segment of the stomach to slide into the thoracic cavity
hiatal hernia
148
in hiatal hernia, the ____ malfunctions, allowing the contents of the stomach to regurgitate into the esophagus
lower esophageal sphincter muscle (LES)
149
hiatal hernia can cause this condition
GERD
150
to treat hiatal hernia, minimize activities that increase ____ such as straining or coughing
intra-abdominal pressure
151
an organ protrudes through an abnormal opening in the abdominal wall
abdominal hernia
152
abnormal hernia occurs when an _____ develops in a weak area
abnormal opening
153
device worn for uncomplicated hernias
truss
154
chronic, relapsing inflammatory disorder of the GI tract
Crohn's disease
155
Chron's disease is also called _____
regional enteritis
156
goals of treating Crohn's involve treating the _____ and maintain remission
acute disease flareups
157
chronic inflammatory bowel disease affecting the mucosa and submucosa of the rectum/colon
ulcerative colitis
158
fulminant ulcerative colitis may cause severe complications including ____
perforation
159
drug treatment for severe ulcerative colitis
anti-TNF (antibodies to tumor necrosis factor)
160
acute inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines
gastroenteritis
161
in gastroenteritis, ___ and ___ fail to rid the body of toxins or large numbers of disease-causing bacteria and viruses
normal bacteria flora and acid secretions
162
avoid using ____ to treat traveler's diarrhea as they may delay body's elimination of organisms
anti-diarrheal agents
163
mechanical or functional blockage of the intestines; occurs when contents of intestine can't move forward because of a blockage of the bowel
intestinal obstruction
164
treatment of mechanical intestinal obstruction may required these 3 procedures
1. surgical removal of lesion/blockage
2. resection of diseased bowel
3. 2nd surgery to take down ostomy and rejoin the bowel
165
treatment of nonmechanical or functional intestinal obstruction doesn't usually involve surgery; ____ used in cases of fecal impaction
1. manual disimpaction
| 2. enemas
166
progressive condition characterized by defects in the muscular wall of the large bowel
diverticulosis or diverticular disease
167
in diverticulosis, these penetrate weak points in the muscular layer of large intestine
diverticula
168
treatment of diverticulosis includes diet with adequate fluids and ___ to produce soft, formed stool
roughage
169
infection of one or more diverticula; not nearly as common as diverticulosis
diverticulitis
170
diverticulitis when one or more diverticula become ____
inflamed
171
contributing factors to diverticulitis include lack of ____, inadequate fluid intake, constipation are contributing factors
dietary bulk
172
acute inflammation with a plaque like adhesion of necrotic debris and mucus adhered to the damaged superficial mucosa of the small and large intestines
pseudomembranous enterocolitis
173
small bowel fails to absorb nutrients because of inadequate absorptive surface; interferes with digestion and absorption of needed nutrients
short-bowel syndrome
174
functional bowel disorder characterized by chronic abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and erratic dysfunction of bowel habits
irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
175
IBS incidence increases after ___, which suggests immune or neuro-immune contribution
GI infection
176
inflammation of the peritoneum; can be acute or chronic and local or generalized
peritonitis
177
varicose dilations of a vein in the anal canal or the anorectal area
hemorrhoids
178
in hemorrhoids, veins in the rectal and anal area become ____ as a result of blockage
varicose, swollen, tender
179
irreversible chronic degenerative disease; slow deterioration of liver resulting in replacement of normal liver cells with hard, fibrous scar tissue
cirrhosis of the liver
180
2 predisposing conditions to liver cirrhosis
1. wilson's disease
| 2. hemochromatosis
181
highly contagious and causes mild acute liver infection; only hep to cause spiking fevers
hep A (HAV)
182
HAV is also called ____ hepatitis
infectious hepatiits
183
2 usual results of HAV
1. liver function fully recovered
| 2. lifelong immunity to HAV
184
in HAV, intramuscular administration of ____ is recommended within 2 weeks of exposure
globulin
185
more insidious than HAV; aminotransferase levels are higher
hep B (HVB)
186
many HBV infections are due to ___ or ___
sexual contact; blood exchange from contaminated needles
187
most at risk for HBV due to accidental inoculation
healthcare providers
188
drug given to exposed, nonimmune HBV patient
hep B immune globulin (HBIG)
189
widesperead epidemic; most common blood-borne infection
hep C (HCV)
190
exposure to hep C is traced to these 4 factors
1. blood transfusions
191
t or f. hep C is cureable
f. incureable
192
common condition in which there is an abnormal presence of calculi or gallstones that form in the bile
cholelithiasis or gallstones
193
cholelithiasis form due to insoluble ___ and ____
cholesterol; bile salts
194
3 risk factors for cholelithiasis
1. ileal disease
2. alcoholic cirrhosis
3. biliary tract infections
195
___ gallstones are left alone
asymptomatic
196
acute or chronic inflammation of the gallbladder, associated with obstruction of cystic duct
cholecystitis
197
surgical treatment for cholecystitis
cholecystectomy
198
acute or chronic inflammation of the pancreas with variable involvement of adjacent and remote organs
acute and chronic pancreatitis
199
acute pancreatitis occurs when there is an escape of activated pancreatic enzymes from _____ into surrounding tissues
acinar cells
200
disorder of malnutrition caused by primary deprivation of protein-energy (poverty/self-imposed starvation) or secondary to deficiency diseases (cancer/diabetes)
malnutrition
201
2 distinct syndromes in protein-energy malnutrition
1. kwashiorkor
| 2. marasmus
202
deficiency of protein in the presence of adequate energy
kwashiorkor
203
extreme malnutrition and emaciation caused by combined protein and energy deficiency
marasmus
204
group of disorders in which intestinal absorption of dietary nutrients is impaired; pts have impaired digestion and unable to absorb fat or other dietary componenents
malabsorption syndrome
205
main cause of malabsorption syndrome is ____ cells in the small intestine
defective mucosal cells
206
malabsorption is treated by targeting underlying cause and controlled with a high protein, high calorie diet with these vitamins
vitamins A, D, E and K
207
toxic or immunologic reaction to a component of gluten; has multisystem effects that can produce serious health problems
celiac disease
208
pts with celiac disease are more prone to develop these 2 conditions later in life
1. abdominal lymphoma
| 2. cancer
209
2 other names for celiac disease
1. gluten enteropathy
| 2. celiac sprue
210
resistant form of celiac diseases is called ____
refractory sprue
211
treatment for celiac disease involves a lifelong ____ diet to allow the bowel to heal and reverse malabsorption
gluten-free
212
family of drugs to treat refractory sprue
corticosteroid drugs
213
illness resulting from eating food containing bacterial toxins and viral, chemical or toxic substances
food poisoning
214
t or f. in severe cases, patient becomes disabled and becomes life-threatening
t
215
true food poisoning includes poisoning from mushrooms, shellfish, and food contaminated with ____ substances
poisonous and toxic
216
other causes of food poisoning include eating food that has undergone these 2 processes
1. putrefaction
| 2. decomposition
217
eating disorder linked to a psychological disturbance in which hunger is denied by self-imposed starvation resulting from distorted body image; compulsion to be thin
anorexia nervosa
218
behavioral disorder characterized by recurring episodes of binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting or purging
bulimia
219
personality traits that are characteristic in patients with bulimia
perfectionist trait
220
anorexia is associated with these 2 mental illnesses
1. depression
| 2. anxiety
221
bulimia is associated with these 2 mental illnesses
1. depression
| 2. compulsion
222
loss of equilibrium experienced during motion; nausea and vomiting when riding transportation
motion sickness
223
in motion sickness, fluid in the ____ of the ears become dislocated because of motion
semicircular canals
224
treatment for motion sickness involves sitting in a vehicle in position that has the least amount of ___ and where the patient can see the ____
motion; horizon
