Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FINALS > Oral Surgery > Flashcards

Oral Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

what is an oral antral communication

A

an acute communication between the sinus and the oral cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is an oro-antral fistula

A

a chronic communication between sinus and oral cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are mucoceles

A

damaged minor salivary glands
where saliva gets trapped in the minor gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is a ranula

A

an enlarged mucocele in the floor of the mouth which results from damage to sublingual salivary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are cysts

A

epithelial lined fluid filled cavities in bone or soft tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is enucleation of the cyst

A

removal of the entire cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is marsupialisation of a cyst

A

removal of part of the cyst lining and leaving it open ‘de-roofing’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the straight upper anterior forceps used for

A

upper 3-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are upper universal forceps used for

A

upper 5-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where does the beak part of the upper molar forceps engage the tooth

A

the buccal aspect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the lower universal forceps used for

A

lower 5-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

can the lower molar forceps be used on both sides

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are lower cowhorn forceps used for

A

lower molars with separate roots
squeeze in the furcation to pull the tooth out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where should a right handed operator stand when taking out lower right molars

A

behind patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are upper bayonet forceps used for

A

upper 8 removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

where should a right handed operator stand when taking out upper teeth

A

in front of patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

where should a right handed operator stand when taking out lower left molars

A

in front of patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the advantage of using elevators

A

less likely to fracture tooth when removing with forceps
widen PDL space and elevate the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are cryers elevators used for

A

removal of remaining roots if fractured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

name three examples of soft tissue surgery

A

frenectomy
excisional papillary hyperplasia
excision of flabby ridges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

name five examples of hard tissue surgery

A

removal of retained roots
mandibular tori removal
palatine tori removal
maxillary tuberosity
implants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is a vestibuloplasty

A

extended ridges by deepening the sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when are NHS able to provide implants

A

if patient has hypoplasia, been in an accident or have (had) oral cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the blood supply to TMJ

A

deep auricular artery (branch of maxillary artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the three nerve supplies to TMJ

A

auriculotemporal
masseteric
posterior deep temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what other related structure does the auriculotemporal nerve supply

A

external auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the masseter

A

origin - zygomatic buttress
insertion - angle of mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the temporalis

A

origin - temporal fossa
insertion - coronoid process of mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the medial pterygoid

A

origin - medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate
insertion - medial side of angle of mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the lateral pterygoid

A

origin - bas of skull and lateral border of pterygoid plate
insertion - pterygoid fovea beneath mandibular condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the four suprahyoid muscles

A

digastric
mylohyoid
geniohyoid
stylohyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the four infrahyoid muscles

A

thyrohyoid
sternohyoid
sternothyroid
omohyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what causes pain in the TMJ

A

since anterior band of articular disc is not innervated
when the joint slips forward it compresses the bilaminar zone which causes pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

name difference causes of TMD

A

degenerative disease
myofascial pain
disc displacement
chronic recurrent dislocation
ankylosis
hyperplasia
neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are examples of degenerative disease that can cause TMD

A

osteoarthritis
rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how does myofascial pain occur in TMD

A

inflammation of MOM or TMJ secondary to parafunctional habits
trauma
stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how should the TMJ be assessed extra-orally

A

MOM
joint clicks
jaw movements
facial (a)symmetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how should the TMJ be assessed intra-orally

A

signs of parafunctional habits (linea alba, scalloped tongue, NCTSL occlusally)
MOM palpation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how can the TMJ be viewed radiographically

A

OPT to exclude a dental cause
CBCT
MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the clinical features of TMD

A

intermittent pain of several months
muscle, joint, ear pain especially in the morning
trismus or locking
clicking/ popping joint noises
headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are reversible treatments for TMD

A

counselling patient
jaw exercises
NSAIDs
muscle relaxants
tricyclic antidepressants
Botox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is involved in the counselling of TMD

A

reassurance
soft diet
masticate bilaterally
no wide opening
no chewing gum
stop parafunctional habits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are splints used for in TMD

A

bite raising appliances
must wear for a few weeks before improvement is felt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are two examples of irreversible treatment for TMD

A

occlusal adjustment
TMJ surgery (arthroscopy/ disc repositioning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how may patients with internal derangement of the TMJ present

A

with painful clicking
due to lack of coordinated movement between condyle and articular disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the most common cause of TMJ clicking

A

anterior disc displacement with reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is anterior disc displacement with reduction

A

disc is initially displaced anteriorly by condyle during opening until the disc reduction occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

name three events that could cause trismus from trauma

A

after IDB
after prolonged dental treatment
infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what can be used to aid in limited mouth opening

A

jaw screw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are the consequences dentally of an AOB

A

chronic gingivitis
dry mouth
increased caries risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

who makes up the MDT in orthognathic surgery

A

clinical psychologist
orthodontic specialist
orthognathic surgeon
restorative dentist
speech and language therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

how much gingival margin should show upon smiling

A

1-2mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

name three advantages of surgery first approach

A

reduction of duration of treatment time
faster orthodontic tooth movement
immediate improvement in facial appearance
cost effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

name the sinuses in the head

A

frontal sinus
sphenoid sinus
ethmoid air cells
maxillary sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

when do the sinuses form during embryological development

A

3rd and 4th months

56
Q

what are the three functions of the paranasal sinuses

A

resonance to the voice
reserve chambers for warming inspired air
reduce weight of the skull

57
Q

what is the opening to the maxillary sinus

A

middle meatus (hiatus semilunaris)
can become narrow or blocked during episodes of inflammation/ disease

58
Q

what is found on the posterior wall of the maxillary sinus cavity

A

alveolar canals that transport the posterior superior alveolar vessels and nerves to maxillary posterior teeth

59
Q

what epithelium is found in the paranasal sinuses

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar

60
Q

what is the function of cilia in sinus epithelium

A

mobilise trapped particles and foreign material
move the material down the ostia for elimination into the nasal cavity

61
Q

what are the clinical significances of maxillary sinuses

A

OAC
OAF
root in the antrum
sinusitis
benign or malignant lesions

62
Q

how would a possible OAC/F be diagnosed

A

size of tooth
radiographic position of roots related to the antrum
bubbling of blood
nose holding test

63
Q

how are OACs managed

A

inform patient
encourage clot
suture margins
possible abxs
minimise pressure formation within sinus and mouth

64
Q

how do small OACs (less than 2mm) usually heal

A

with normal blood clot formation and routine mucosal healing

65
Q

what may patients complain about in OAFs

A

problems with fluid consumption (runny nose)
problems with speech
problems with playing wind instruments
problems with smoking
bad taste/ odour/ halitosis
pain/ sinusitis like symptoms

66
Q

what are the common aetiological factors associated with fracture of maxillary tuberosity

A

single standing molar
inadequate alveolar support
unknown unerupted molar or wisdom tooth

67
Q

what is the management of a fractured tuberosity

A

reduce and stabilise
orthodontic buccal arch wire with composite
splint
dissect out and close wound primarily

68
Q

what should you remember to do if you are splinting teeth after maxillary tuberosity fracture

A

remove or treat pulp
ensure out of occlusion
consider abx
post-op instructions

69
Q

what is the aetiology of sinusitis

A

viral infection - inflammation and oedema, trapping of debris within the cavity

70
Q

why may mucociliary clearance patterns be altered

A

allergens
inflammation
anatomic abnormalities

71
Q

what dental factors have to be ruled out when investigating sinusitis

A

periapical abscess
periodontal infection
deep caries
recent extraction socket
TMD

72
Q

what is the treatment for sinusitis

A

ephedrine nasal drops 0.5% one drop each nostril up to TID for 7 days
humidified air

73
Q

what is the antibiotic regime for sinusitis when symptomatic treatment is not effective

A

amoxicillin 500mg TID for 7 days
doxycycline 100mg once daily for 7 days

74
Q

what is the advantage of an aspiration biopsy

A

prevents contamination by oral commensals
protects anaerobic species

75
Q

what is a fine needle aspiration biopsy

A

aspiration of cells from solid lesions
(neck swellings, salivary gland lesions)

76
Q

what is an excision surgical biopsy

A

removal of all clinically abnormal tissue
used for benign lesions

77
Q

what is an incision surgical biopsy

A

representative tissue sample for larger lesions
of an uncertain diagnosis

78
Q

what is a punch biopsy

A

type of incisional biopsy
hollow trephine removes core of tissue
minimal damage

79
Q

how is the area biopsied chosen

A

must be large enough
must be representative
include perilesional tissue

80
Q

how should a sample be sent to the pathology lab

A

should be placed immediately in 10% formalin
include relevant clinical information

81
Q

why is gauze not used for biopsy transfer

A

distorts the samples

82
Q

what is used in biopsy transfer to prevent distortion

A

filter paper

83
Q

what should be filled out on the lab card for a biopsy

A

date of birth of patient
sex
who has requested the sample
address of dentist
contact number
whether it is for histopathology or cytopathology
date and time collected
nature of specimen

84
Q

what is a fibrous epulis

A

swelling arising from gingivae
response to irritation
smooth surface rounded swelling that is pink
use excisional biopsy

85
Q

what is a fibroepithelial polyp

A

frictional irritation or trauma
pink
smooth surface
most common on buccal mucosa and inner surface of lip
surgical excision

86
Q

what is a giant cell epulis

A

peripheral giant cell granuloma
found in anterior regions of mouth
deep red or purple colour with broad base
requires x-ray to ensure not originating centrally
surgical excision required

87
Q

what is a haemangioma

A

collection of blood vessels causing a lump under the mucosa
developmental overgrowths
blue in colour
surgical removal required

88
Q

what is a lipoma

A

benign neoplasm of fat
soft swelling
pale yellow
excision required

89
Q

what is a neoplasm

A

abnormal mass of tissue that forms when cells grow and divide more than they should or do not die when they should

90
Q

what is a pregnancy epulis

A

related to calculus and often bleed easily
hormonal changes enhance response to tissue irritation
larger lesions should be excised

91
Q

what is a pyogenic granuloma

A

failure of normal healing and overgrowth of granulation tissue
red in colour
requires surgical excision

92
Q

what is a squamous cell papilloma

A

benign neoplasm
white surface and cauliflower appearance
excision at base required

93
Q

what causes denture hyperplasia

A

poorly fitting dentures

94
Q

what is a leaf fibroma

A

chronic irritation from denture
would be round if not covered by denture but because it is it becomes flattened
excision required

95
Q

what is a mucocele

A

mucous extravasation cyst
most common minor salivary gland problem
due to damage of minor salivary gland and leakage into duct

96
Q

what is a ranula

A

mucocele on floor of mouth

97
Q

what is the classic description of SCC

A

ulcer
rolled margin
induration
lump of red or white colour and non-healing

98
Q

what biopsy should be taken for suspected SCC

A

incisional

99
Q

what causes microtrauma to TMJ

A

chronic joint overloading secondary to stress related bruxism

100
Q

what occlusal and anatomical factors can cause TMD

A

occlusal - deep bite, occlusal disharmony, lack of teeth
anatomy - class II

101
Q

what does articular cartilage consist of

A

chondrocytes
collagen fibres in proteoglycan matrix (inflammatory disease produces proteases that degrade proteoglycans)

102
Q
A
103
Q
A
104
Q
A
105
Q

which parts of TMJ are innervated

A

capsule
synovial tissue
subchondral bone

105
Q

what are the functions of a bite appliance

A

eliminates occlusal interference
prevents joint head from rotating so far posteriorly in glenoid fossa
reduces loading on TMJ

105
Q

name four indications for TMJ reconstruction

A

joint destruction (trauma/ infection)
ankylosis
developmental deformity
tumours

106
Q

what tumours are related to TMJ

A

giant cell lesions
fibro-osseous lesions
myxomas

107
Q

what is the ankylosis classification of TMJ

A

type 1 - flattening of condyle
type 2 - bony fusion at outer edge of articular surface
type 3 - marked fusion between upper part of ramus and zygomatic arch
type 4 entire joint replaced by mass of bone

108
Q

name four causes of bone loss

A

congenital
traumatic
pathology
natural

109
Q
A
110
Q

what is arthrocentesis of TMJ

A

flushing saline into joint cavity to flush away inflammatory exudate

110
Q

what are three types of bone graft

A

onlay
interpositional
sinus lift

111
Q

name four indications for zygomatic implants

A

severe maxillary atrophy
sinus pneumatisation
avoid harvesting of bone graft
hemimaxillectomy

112
Q

how can airway emergencies present in facial trauma

A

primary - direct trauma to airway
secondary - loss of support to soft tissue leading to obstruction

113
Q

define three aspects of a difficult airway

A

uncleared neck
poor mouth opening
intoxicated/ abnormal GCS

113
Q

what adjuncts to stop bleeding can be used in OMFS

A

tranexamic acid
medication impregnated gauze/ packing

114
Q

what is considered in secondary survey of the patient brought to OMFS

A

dental injury
- avulsed teeth
- tetanus
soft tissue
- on top of cranial fractures
- tissue loss

115
Q

what would you do if a patient with a mandibular fracture presented to the practice

A

tell patient to FAST and go straight to OMFS centre
phone Maxfax and tell them patient is coming
have all relevant patient details ready
if not happy with conversation with DCT phone the consultant

116
Q

what are clinical signs and symptoms of mandibular fractures

A

pain/ swelling/ limited function
occlusal derangement
numbness of lower lip
loose or mobile teeth
bleeding
facial asymmetry

117
Q

what are the four classifications of maxillo-facial fractures

A

naso ethmoidal fractures
lateral middle third fractures (zygoma)
central middle third
mandibular fractures

118
Q

what are the five types of central middle third fractures

A

nasal bone
unilateral maxillary fractures
le fort 1
le fort 2
le fort 3

119
Q

what are malar fractures

A

zygoma displaced downwards
periorbital bruising and swelling
diplopia

120
Q

what is the initial care for malar fractures

A

exclude ocular injury
prophylactic abxs
avoid blowing nose

121
Q

what is definitive management for malar fractures

A

review once swelling subsides
more radiographs and CT scans
closed reduction and fixation
open reduction and internal fixation

122
Q

how are mandibular fractures classified

A

involvement of surrounding tissue (simple/ compound/ comminuted)
number of fractures (single, double/ multiple)
side of fracture (unilateral/ bilateral)
site of fracture
direction of fracture line
displacement of fracture

123
Q

how should radiographs be taken for mandibular fractures

A

2 radiographs at 90 degrees to one another (eg OPT and PA mandible)

124
Q

what is the treatment for undisplaced fractures

A

no treatment

125
Q

what is the treatment for displaced fractures

A

closed reduction and fixation
open reduction and internal fixation

126
Q

what are common features of mandibular fractures

A

2 point vertical mobility of mandible
sublingual haematoma
contralateral numbness to side of impact
ipsilateral numbness if impact was distant to mental nerve

127
Q

what are signs of orbital fractures

A

infra-orbital paraesthesia
diplopia
subconjunctive bleed

128
Q

what are signs of zygomatic fracture

A

unilateral epistaxis (nosebleeding) when nose is not injured
paraesthesia
buttress tender, arch tender

129
Q

what are signs of midface fractures

A

mobility of maxilla when skull is stabilised
numbness
nose bleeding common

130
Q

what are signs of naso-orbital-ethmoidal fractures

A

repositioned nose
buttress not tender
nose bleeding
numb

131
Q

what are signs of naso-maxillary fractures

A

buttress intact
numb
unilateral nose bleeding without blow to nose

132
Q

how long should mandibular surgery ideally be undertaken after injury

A

24-48 hours

133
Q
A

FINALS (25 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions