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FINALS > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

how is angular cheilitis sampled

A

sample with sterile swab and moistened with sterile water

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2
Q

what type of agar plate should be used when sampling angular cheilitis

A

non-selective agar - blood agar

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3
Q

name three oral diseases that the bacteria staphylococus aureus can be attributed to

A

angular cheilisi
mucositis
bone infections

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4
Q

how can staph aureus be transmitted

A

hands
fomites

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5
Q

what is a non-selective agar

A

blood agar

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6
Q

how can bacterial infections be identified

A

growth on selective agar
colony morphology
gram stain

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7
Q

what is an example of selective agar for staph aureus

A

manitol salt sugar

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8
Q

what is the difference between selective and non-selective agar

A

non-selective will grow everything - can give overall appearance of pathogens present
selective agar only grows a specific pathogen

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9
Q

what is the typical gram stain appearance of staph aureus

A

grape-like appearance

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10
Q

why is there a colour change in the mannitol salt sugar agar if staph aureus is present

A

staph aureus ferments mannitol which lowers the pH - there is a pH indicator in the mannitol which is what causes the colour change

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11
Q

what colour does staph aureus turn mannitol agar

A

yellow

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12
Q

name three identifiable features of staph aureus’ colony morphology

A

round
convex
1-4mm in diameter with sharp border

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13
Q

what is the coagulation test

A

adding the suspected staph aureus to a test which then clumps

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14
Q

is staph aureus coagulase positive or negative

A

positive

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15
Q

what is the common microbe used that will not cause colour change on mannitol agar and is coagulase negative

A

staph. epidermitis

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16
Q

what are the two antibiotic susceptibility tests

A

discs on an agar plate
e-test strip - minimum inhibitory conc = 0.5mg/L

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17
Q

what are the difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

prokaryotes = bacteria
eukaroytes = our cells

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18
Q

name key anatomical features of a bacterial cell

A

outer capsule
cell envelop
bacteria flagellum
circular stranded DNA and ribosomes
Pili (fimbriae)

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19
Q

what aids attachment of bacteria to oral surfaces

A

pili (fimbriae)

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20
Q

name virulence factors of pili (fimbriae)

A

adhesion

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21
Q

name virulence factor of flagella

A

chemotaxis and penetration of mucus

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22
Q

what is the general rule for when metronidazole is used

A

gum infections because it targets anaerobes

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23
Q

what is the general rule for when PenV is used

A

teeth because specific for staph/ strep

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24
Q

what occurs in type B vacuum type sterilisers

A

pretreatment - air sucked out
sterilisation
posttreatment - drying by releasing the air

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25
Q

name the stages of gram stain reaction

A

flood with crystal violet - all cells take up dye]
flood with iodine - all cells appear blue- black
decolourise with acetone - gram +ve cells retain dye and gram -ve cells are decolourised
counterstain with red dye - gram +ve appear blue/black and -ve appears red

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26
Q

what colour are gram -ve cells after gram stain

A

red

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27
Q

what colour are gram +ve cells after gram stain

A

blue/ black

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28
Q

what does the crystal violet stick to in gram +ve cells

A

peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall

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29
Q

what is present in the peptidoglycan layer in gram +ve cells

A

penicillin binding proteins - penicillin antibiotic can bind here and stops further cross linking

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30
Q

how does the exotoxin leukocidin cause an inflamamtory reaction

A

secreted from staph aureus
assemble on polymorphonuclear white cell membranes (PMN)
cause PMN lysis
lysed PMNs cause inflammatory response and eventually tissue necrosis

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31
Q

what is an example of an endotoxin

A

LPS - lipopolysaccharide

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32
Q

name the links of the chain of infection in the correct order

A

infectious agent
reservoir
portal of exit
mode of transmission
portal of entry
susceptible host

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33
Q

explain the infectious agent

A

micro-organism that can cause infection

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34
Q

explain the reservoir

A

where the infectious agent lives and thrives

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35
Q

name actions we can use to break chain of infection

A

standard infection control precautions (SICPs)

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36
Q

when should SICPs be used

A

all staff in all healthcare settings whether infection is known to be present or not

37
Q

name the SICPs most relevant to dentistry

A

hand hygiene
PPE
respiratory and cough hygiene
safe management of blood and body fluid spillages
safe disposal of waste
safe management of care environment
safe management of care equipment
occupational safety - prevention and exposure management

38
Q

how should blood and body fluid spillages be managed

A

PPE worn
organic matter removed with disposable absorbent towel
apply sodium hypochlorite granules
remove granules with disposable scoop
clean using water and general purpose detergent
dispose of waste
perform hand hygiene

39
Q

name the agents used when dealing with a spillage

A

sodium hypochlorite
dichloroisocyanrate

40
Q

what is the contact time for chlorine releasing agents

A

3 minutes
according to manufacturer’s instructions

41
Q

at what concentrations should these granules be used

A

10, 000 ppm available chlorine

42
Q

give examples of waste disposed of in the orange waste stream

A

apron
gloves
mask
visor
gauze

43
Q

give examples of waste that goes into the black waste stream

A

hand hygiene paper towels
instrument wrapping that is uncontaminated

44
Q

when should the temporary closure mechanism used on a sharps box

A

when the container is left unattended or not in use

45
Q

how is the temporary closure mechanism engaged

A

press the lid down until you hear one click
two clicks for permanent closure

46
Q

what waste should be disposed of in orange sharps box stream

A

k files
needles
matrix bands

47
Q

what waste should be disposed of in blue topped sharps box stream

A

local anaesthetic cartridges that aren’t empty

48
Q

who is responsible for the disposal of sharps

A

the user/ operator

49
Q

who is responsible for carrying out a risk assessment following a sharps injury

A

supervising clinician
clinician
DN team leader
named nurse

50
Q

what action should be taken if you receive a sharps injury and your patient refuses consent for bloods to be taken

A

same protocol is observed whether patient gets bloods taken or not
contact occupational health and get your own bloods taken once risk assessment carried out

51
Q

what procedure must be followed if you receive a sharps injury while treating a patient

A

stop what you’re doing
inform the patient
make the sharp safe
first aid - encourage bleeding
notify supervising clinician
risk assessment carried out by appropriate person
contact occupational health
consent patient for bloods
paperwork
datix

52
Q

name the online system used for recording accidents/ incidents or near misses within the GDH

A

DATIX

53
Q

what happens to patient’s risk assessment paperwork after a sharps injury

A

must be destroyed after occupational health have been called
must not be written in the patient’s notes

54
Q

what are the five WHO moments of hand hygiene

A

before you touch a patient
before clean/ aseptic procedure
after procedure or body fluid exposure risk
after you touch a patient
after touching a patient’s surrounding

55
Q

what goes into the red top white bottom waste stream

A

amalgam capsules
extracted teeth with amalgam
left over amalgam

56
Q

what goes into the red top yellow bottom waste stream

A

extracted teeth with no amalgam restorations

57
Q

what is antimicrobial resistance

A

antimicrobials become ineffective as the organisms you are trying to kill go through genetic changes leading to resistance

58
Q

how do bacteria grow

A

by horizontal gene transfer

59
Q

name three issues with antimicrobial resistance

A

causes deaths
simple infections become difficult to treat
stagnant development of new antibiotics

60
Q

who does antimicrobial resistance affect

A

anyone needing routine operations (they will be given prophylactic antibiotics to reduce risk of post-op infections)
immunocompromised people
can effect anyone potentially

61
Q

name four ways of tackling antimicrobial resistance

A

drug development
alternative therapies
prevention
prescribing

62
Q

name a gram positive cocci and a disease it causes

A

strep. mutans
dental caries

63
Q

name a gram positive bacilli and a disease it causes

A

c. tetani
tetanus

64
Q

name a gram negative cocci and a disease it causes

A

N meningitidis
meningitis

65
Q

what shape of bacteria is associated with ulcerative gingivitis

A

spiral

66
Q

name gram negative bacilli and a disease it causes

A

prevotella intermedia
periodontal disease

67
Q

name three general properties of viruses

A

small size
they have RNA or DNA genome
metabolically inert

68
Q

what is a virion

A

complete virus particle

69
Q

what is the viral structure

A

envelope - lipid membrane
capsid - protein shell

70
Q

name the 6 key stages in viral replication

A

attachment
penetration
uncoating
synthesis of viral components
assembly
release

71
Q

what are the effects of virus on cells

A

cell death (HSV I)
transformation (HPV)
latent infection (HSV I)

72
Q

examples of virus transmission

A

inhalation via respiratory tract
ingestion via GIT
inoculation
sexually

73
Q

name types of specimens you can take for viral investigation

A

swabs
faeces
aspirates
plasma
CSF
urine

74
Q

what antibody is produced first in the acute phase of infection

A

IgM

75
Q

what antibody appears later in viral infection (2 weeks into infection)

A

IgG

76
Q

what type of viruses are influenza

A

RNA viruses

77
Q

what is antigenic drift

A

minor change
point mutations
causes epidemics

78
Q

what is antigenic shift

A

a major change in antigen structure
can result in pandemics
only A type influenza is subject to this

79
Q

what are prion diseases

A

transmissible spongiform encephalopathies - fatal neurological disease
accumulation of abnormal form of the prion protein - no immune response

80
Q

what is rare about prions and why may it be harder to sterilise

A

it is devoid of nucleic acid

81
Q

what are the three types of prion disease

A

infectious
genetic
sporadic

82
Q

what is CJD

A

Creutzfeldt Jackob’s disease

83
Q

why is vCJD relevant to dentistry

A

prion protein difficult to clean from instruments
residual infectivity can survive steam sterilisation
has an incubation period of decades

84
Q

what should happen to instruments used on a patient with CJD for a dental procedures

A

as dental procedures are considered low risk, the instruments are put through the regular disinfection and sterilisation regime and re-used

85
Q

name surface associated virulence factors of bacteria

A

pili - used in adhesion and can be antiphagocytotic

86
Q

what colour will staph aureus turn the mannitol agar plate if present

A

yellow

87
Q

what severe clinical complication is the endotoxin LPS associated with

A

sepsis

88
Q

what are the five cardinal signs of infection/ inflammation

A

redness, swelling, pain, heat, loss of function

FINALS (25 decks)

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