NS4: PS Flashcards

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1
Q

cultural assimilation

A

Cultural assimilation is the process by which a particular group’s culture begins to resemble that of another.

Typically, the four factors that measure completeness of assimilation are geographic distribution, intermarriage, language acquisition, and socioeconomic status

Assimilation can be slowed by the development of cultural or ethnic enclaves, that is, neighborhoods or areas with a high concentration of people from one distinct culture or ethnicity.

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2
Q

define the following:

  • acculturation
  • social capital
  • chain migration
A

acculturation refers to developing the ability to interact within a dominant culture while internally preserving facets of one’s own culture of origin

Social capital is the value embedded in social networks, such as job connections, the ability to call in favors, and the ability to rely on others for support in difficult circumstances.

Chain migration is the tendency for people to follow family members and close friends to the same community in another country.

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3
Q

define the following:

  • surround suppression
  • proprioception
  • neuron potentiation
A

Surround suppression involves perceiving tactile information while ignoring stimuli immediately surrounding it.

Proprioception is the perception of the positioning of one’s own body parts in space.

Neuron potentiation: used in context of long-term potentiation bc defined as the strengthening of synapses with repeated use over time

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4
Q

kinesthetic system

A

focused on balance and an individual’s sense of his body in the world, relying on our ability to sense linear and rotational acceleration

organ responsible = ear

    • vestibule = senses linear rotation
    • semicircular canals = senses rotational acceleration
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5
Q

Anatomy of the Ear

  • Outer Ear (1)
  • tympanic membrane
A

Outer ear: collects sound and funnels it into your ear
– Auricle: aka pinna; cartilage + skin; basically, the shape of your ear

Auditory canal: aka ear canal
Tympanic membrane: aka eardrum; thin, cone-shaped membrane that separates the external ear from the middle ear

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6
Q

Anatomy of the Ear

  • middle ear (2)
  • 2 windows
A

Middle ear: aka tympanic cavity

    • Ossicles: three small bones that are connected and transmit the sound waves to the inner ear → Malleus, Incus, Stapes
    • Eustachian Tube: aka auditory tube; canal that links the middle ear w the back of the nose, helping to equalize the pressure in the middle ear in order to properly transfer sound waves; lined w mucous and can also help with draining fluid from the middle ear

Two windows that connect the middle ear w the inner ear

    • Oval window: directly contacted by the stapes, amplifying the vibrations
    • Round window: dampens vibrations as they reach the cochlea, translating them into fluid movement across the basilar membrane
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7
Q

Anatomy of the Ear

- 3 inner ear layers

A

Bony labyrinth: thick layer of bone that protects the inner ear

Perilymph: layer of fluid that transmits vibrations from the stapes but also protects the membranous labyrinth

Membranous labyrinth: filled with endolymph, a potassium rich fluid that generally resists motion

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8
Q

Anatomy of the Ear

- inner ear structures (3)

A

converts the sound waves into action potentials

Cochlea: contains Corti, the spiral shaped organ for hearing; transforms movement of liquid across haircells of the basilar membrane into signals that get sent to the brain – MECHANOTRANSDUCTION

Vestibule: contains the utricle and saccule; responsible for sensing linear acceleration, thus helping us with balance and our orientation in space; the utricle and saccule contain specialized hair cells, otoliths, that resist motion as the body accelerates, and send information to the brain

Semicircular canals: attached to cochlea and nerves; each canal ends in an ampulla, which houses hair cells; endolymph in the ampullas resists motion when the head rotates, stimulating hair cells to send information to the brain

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9
Q

gender v sex

A

Gender refers to the state of being a particular sex, either male or female, and corresponds not to physical differences (sex organs), but to behavioral, cultural, and psychological traits.

Sex refers to the biologically determined sex chromosomes of a person and the accompanying anatomy (the XX genotype corresponds to females and the XY genotype corresponds to males), while gender is a culturally conditioned phenomenon.

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10
Q

define the following:

  • gender inequality

- gender scheme theory

A

Gender inequality refers to the empowerment of one gender over another, either intentionally or not.

Gender schema theory describes how cultural constructs of gender are shaped and transmitted.

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11
Q

define the following:

  • gender identity

- gender dysphoria

A

Gender identity refers to how one experiences one’s own gender personally, and gender expression describes the many different ways in which gender identity manifests behaviorally in a given cultural context.

Gender dysphoria is the feeling of stress or discomfort in which one’s sense of one’s gender does not align with the gender assigned at birth (overwhelmingly the physiological sex of the person as determined by primary sex characteristics).

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12
Q

define the following:

  • paraphilia
  • sexual dysfunction
  • androgyny
A

Paraphilia is the experience of intense sexual arousal to atypical objects, situations, or individuals.

Sexual dysfunction is difficulty experienced by an individual or a couple during any stage of sexual activity, including physical pleasure, desire, preference, arousal or orgasm.

Androgyny is the combination of masculine and feminine characteristics. Sexual ambiguity may be found in fashion, gender identity, sexual identity, or sexual lifestyle. It can also refer to biological intersex physicality

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13
Q

define the following:

  • general paresis
  • delirium tremens
  • schizotypal personality disorder
A

General paresis, also known as general paralysis of the insane or paralytic dementia, is a neuropsychiatric disorder affecting the brain, caused by late-stage syphilis.

Delirium tremens is an acute episode of delirium that is usually caused by withdrawal from alcohol.

Schizotypal personality disorder is a personality disorder characterized by a need for social isolation, anxiety in social situations, odd behavior and thinking, and often unconventional beliefs.

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14
Q

define the following:

  • vygotsky’s social learning thoery
  • chomsky’s language learning theory
  • rater bias
A

Vygotsky’s social learning theory heavily stresses the role of people and interactions in language acquisition, which would involve mirror neurons.

Vs. According to Chomsky’s view, individuals have an innate language acquisition device.

Rater bias: tendency for raters to rate in the middle of a scale

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15
Q

define the following:

  • independent samples t test
  • paired samples t test
  • linear regression
  • pearson correlation coefficient
A

An independent samples t-test is conducted when researchers wish to compare mean values of two groups.

Vs. A paired samples t-test would be used if the results came from the same participants.

Vs. Linear regression is used to predict scores from independent variables.

Vs. A Pearson correlation coefficient is calculated to compare the association between two variables.

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16
Q

hypothalamus

A

the body’s primary “thirst center”; also regulates body temperature, sleep, and appetite

Special sensors in the hypothalamus are constantly monitoring the blood’s concentration of sodium and other substances.

17
Q

limbic system

A

The limbic system supports a variety of functions including adrenaline flow, emotion, behavior, motivation, long-term memory, and smell.

Emotion is also housed in the limbic system, and it has a great deal to do with the formation of memories

18
Q

define the following:

  • dementia

- paranoia

A

Dementia is a loss of brain function that occurs with certain diseases. Alzheimer’s disease is one form of dementia that gradually gets worse over time. It affects memory, thinking, and behavior.

Vs. Paranoia is a thought process believed to be heavily influenced by anxiety or fear, often to the point of irrationality and delusion.

19
Q

define the following personality disorders:

  • dependent
  • narcissistic
  • paranoid
  • antisocial
A

Dependent personality disorder is a mental health condition in which people depend too much on others to meet their emotional and physical needs.

Vs. Narcissistic personality disorder is a condition in which people have an excessive sense of self-importance, an extreme preoccupation with themselves, and lack of empathy for others.

Vs. Paranoid personality disorder is a mental health condition in which a person has a long-term pattern of distrust and suspicion of others, but does not have a full-blown psychotic disorder such as schizophrenia.

Vs. Antisocial personality disorder is a mental health condition in which a person has a long-term pattern of manipulating, exploiting, or violating the rights of others. This behavior is often criminal.

20
Q

Sleep cycle

  • definition
  • progression
  • length per cycle
A

A sleep cycle is a complete progression through all of the stages of sleep, from Stage 1 to REM and over again.

At the beginning of the night, a person spends most time in Stage 4, but as the night progresses, REM predominates, and a person may even have very brief moments of being awake.

The length of each stage of the sleep cycle increases from childhood to adulthood, from about 50 minutes to 90 minutes, respectively.

21
Q

brain waves during awake

A

The brain waves of a fully-awake person oscillate between a high-frequency, low-amplitude pattern (beta waves) and higher-amplitude, high-frequency, faster patterns (alpha waves), depending on the state of alertness.

Alpha waves are more consistent (synchronous) than beta waves.

22
Q

waves in each sleep stage

A

stage 1: theta waves (low amplitude, irregular frequency)

stage 2: theta waves continue but now interspersed with K-complexes (single high-amplitude, low-frequency waves) and sleep spindles (bursts of multiple high-frequency, moderate-amplitude waves)

** transition into slow-wave sleep, which includes both Stage 3 and Stage 4 **

stage 3: delta waves (high amplitude, low frequency) predominate

stage 4: as higher-frequency waves disappear, Stage 4 begins; still delta waves

REM: beta waves, just like the ones you have if you were awake

23
Q

physical happenings in each sleep stage

A

stage 1: light sleep; rolling movement of the eyes occurs with moderate skeletal muscle activity (twitching)

stage 2: no eye movement but still a moderate level of skeletal muscle activity; heart rate, temperature, and respiration rate decrease

stage 3/4: digestion and heart rate slow and growth hormones are released; sleepwalking, bed-wetting, or night terrors usually happen here

REM: rapid eye movement; brainwaves, heart rate, and respiration rate are very similar to what is observed when a person is awake; however, breathing becomes more rapid, irregular and shallow; eyes jerk rapidly, and limb muscles are temporarily paralyzed

24
Q

two types of stressors

A

autonomous stressors are traumatic events which the individual has no control over

Vs. subordinate stressors are those that the individual can influence

25
Q

motivation, drive, and need

A

Motivations can be intrinsic (internal forces; ie curiosity) or extrinsic (external forces; ie money).

Drives can be primary (related to basic needs) or secondary (related to emotions).

needs are rooted in higher-level desires

26
Q

define the following groups

  • ingroup
  • outgroup
  • family group
  • peer group
A

An ingroup is a group which a person has personal pride in and affinity for, both of which are characteristics of this group.

Vs. An outgroup is seen to be socially undesirable. Its members would not be viewed with high warmth and competence.

Vs. A family group is generally determined either by birth, adoption, or marriage, joining people of different ages and sexes through strong emotional ties; usually united by blood or law; not really self-selected

Vs. A peer group is self-selected and thus incl people of similar ages, statuses, and with similar interests; can provide individuals feelings of belonging and friendship.

27
Q

define the following groups

  • reference group
  • primary group
  • secondary group
A

A reference group is a social group against which individuals can evaluate themselves.

Vs. A primary group features direct interaction between members with close and intimate relationships made that tend to last a long period of time.

Vs. A secondary group features superficial interaction between members, with weak and not-so-intimate relationships made that tend to not last very long.

28
Q

define the following:

  • affect heuristic
  • stereotype threat
  • anchoring
  • behavioral anchor
A

The affect heuristic is the process of making a judgment based on emotions that are evoked.

Vs. A stereotype threat occurs when an individual’s behavior changes based on perceived negative stereotypes about himself or herself.

Vs. Anchoring is the act of relying too much on the first information encountered.

A behavioral anchor is a specific example of a behavior used to judge another behavior against.

29
Q

signal detection theory

  • hit
  • miss
  • false alarm
  • correct rejection
A

Signal Detection theory: points out that the perception of stimuli can be affected not only by the stimuli themselves, but also by nonsensory considerations like expectations, experiences, and motives

eg. Participant is given a set of words to read; later, the researchers reads out a series of words to which the participant responds as recalling it from the list or not.

Hit: participant says “present” when word actually was present

Miss: participant says “not present” when word actually was present

False alarm: participant incorrectly responds positively when the stimulus was in fact not present

Correct rejection: participant says “not present” when word actually was not present

30
Q

define the following:

  • context effects
  • de ja vu
  • alloparenting
A

context effects refer to increased recall when the subject is in a similar environment as the one in which the original learning took place

Déjà vu is an example of a context effect in which a person believes he has experienced an event before.

Alloparenting: caretaking of offspring by individuals other than the biological parents

31
Q

define the following perspectives

  • social cognitive
  • humanistic
  • behaviorist
  • biological
A

The social cognitive perspective is based upon expectations of others.

Vs. The humanistic perspective is centered on the use of free will and how to best apply it

Vs. The behaviorist perspective is related to external stimuli experienced by the person.

Vs. The biological perspective is based on biological inheritance

32
Q

theories of personality

  • sigmund frued
  • type
  • trait
A

Sigmund Frued proposed Three primary conflicts of interest
– Extraversion v introversion
– Sensing v intuiting
– Thinking v feeling
Myers-Briggs tests those three, as well as judging v perceiving

Type theories: categorize individuals according to set personality types

    • Type A: more compulsive and driven; hot headed
    • Type B: move relaxed and composed; chill dude

Trait theories: focus on personality traits
Big Five Factors (OCEAN): openness to change, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism → each of these traits also has an opposite trait

33
Q

sexual dimorphism

A

refers to the degree to which males and females resemble each other.

A species with low sexual dimorphism contains males and females that look mostly identical.

High sexual dimorphism signals intense competition for mates, while animals from species with low sexual dimorphism typically form pair bonds and mate for life.

34
Q

define the following:

  • stimulus motive
  • intrinsic motivation
  • intersectionality
A

A stimulus motive is defined as a motive that appears to be unlearned but causes an increase in stimulation, such as curiosity. These motives are not necessary for survival.

Intrinsic motivation is the form of motivation that is driven not by any external rewards, but rather by a person’s own desire to engage in an activity.

Intersectionality is concerned with the intersection of different identities and how this unique combination influences people.

35
Q

informative v normative pressure

A

Informative pressure is a subtype of conformity pressure. It occurs when an individual conforms his or her behavior to match that of the rest of a group out of the belief that the group is better informed and knows more than the individual.

Vs. Normative pressure is a subtype of conformity pressure in which the individual knows that the others are incorrect, but still feels pressure to not dissent from the rest of the group.

36
Q

theories of emotions:

  • schacter singer
  • james lange
  • cannon bard
A

The Schacter-Singer theory posits that emotions are based on a physiological stimulus which the mind then puts into a particular context → a stimulus first leads to physiological arousal, then a cognitive interpretation of the circumstances, and finally a perception of emotion

Vs. The James-Lange theory posits that emotions are solely the result of autonomic arousal causing the particular emotion experienced.

Vs. The Cannon-Bard theory asserts that the physiological arousal and subjective experience occur simultaneously and independently as a result of subcortical brain activity.