Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

CN VI?

A

Abducence CN

Lateral (abduction) eye muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

sx of middle cerebral artery stroke:

A

contralateral homonymous hemianopia

arm/face sx > legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what brain changes occure in Huntingtpon’s disease?

A

Atropy of caudate nucleus

Cerebral atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Seizure that involves only one hemisphere is known as:

A

Focal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Moderate Head Inury corresponds to GCS of:

A

9-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

closes the eyelid, CN

A

VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

LP in aseptic / viral meningitis:

A

normal glucose

normal protein

lymphocytes

normal opening pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pupillary response to light, CN?

A

III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Homonymous hemianopsia is:

A

Bilaterally symmetric loss of vision in half the visual fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

big toe going up on plantar reflex is known as:

A

positive Babinski sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

generalized (entire head)

neck pain / stiffness

non pulsatile

vise like

band like

A

Tension headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

tx of essential tremor:

A

EtOH

Propranalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Thunderclap

Worse headache of my life

indicative of:

A

Subarachnoid hemmorhage

aneurysm rapture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

LP in Bacterial meningitis:

A

elevated protein

decreased glucose<40

elevated opening pressure

cloudy color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

tx for H.influenza meningitis is:

A

Cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

most common type of dementia is:

A

Alzheimer’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Neuropathy associated with Camylobacter jejunie is:

A

Gullian Barre Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

viruses that cause meningitis are:

A

Echovirus

Coxsackie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Severe Head Injury corresponds to GCS of

A

<8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

tx for Cluster headaches?

A

triptans

TRIPTAN, OXIGAN clustran

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

most common finding in CP is:

A

muscle spasticity

muscular hypertonicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which chromosome is affected in Huntington’s Disease?

A

Chromose 4

for Hungtington’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

factors the predispose to bacterial meningitis are:

A

existing bacterial infection

Immunocompromised status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Lower motor neuron facial nerve paresis

A

Bell’s palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

positive Babinsky signs is indicative of:

A

Postictal state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

prevention of Tension Headaches:

A

Amitriptyline

t Tension Headaches -line- TriCyclic Antidepressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

carbamazepine, ethosuximide are known to cause:

A

anemia and blood dyscrasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

common virus associated that causes encephalitis is:

A

Herpes Simplex Virus

West Nile Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Sequence of events in Epidrual Hematoma

A
  1. Head Trauma
  2. Unconsious

3. Brief return of connsious - Lucid interval

  1. Becoming unconsiou again
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

most common tics in Tourette is:

A

Motor: sniffing, blinking, shrugging shoulders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

loss of consciousness with rigidity

followed by

jerking, convulsive movements

discriptive of

A

Tonic Clonic

Tonic=Rigid

Clonic=jerking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

bx results for Alzheimer’s Dz:

A

Beta - amyloid/neuritic plaques

neurofibrially tangles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

most common location of cerebral aneurysm is:

A

anterior circle of Willis

anterior circle of aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Distal weakness/ ascending paralysis after a recent GI infection or immunization is likely to be:

A

Gullian-Brre Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

2nd line of tx of Parkinson’s:

A

Anticholinergics:

Benztropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

CN IV?

A

Trochlear CN

oblique eye muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

tx for pneumococal meningtitis is:

A

Penicillin + Vancomycin

+

Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Horner’s syndrome is associated with what headache?

A

Cluster

Horny Cluster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Lateral Jaw movement

Temporal and Masseter muscle strenght

CN?

A

V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

plaques known as Dawson’s fingers seen on MR

are indicative of:

A

MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

most common sx of Alzheimer’s

A

Antergograde amnesia - loss of short term memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Brudzinksi sign:

A

neck flexition produces knee and hip flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Chorea

Demential

Behavioral changes

classic triad for:

A

Huntington Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

EEG positive for seizures will show:

A

paroxysmal spikes or sharp waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

most common seizure in children is:

A

Absence (ptit mal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

tx for Meningococal Meningitis is:

A

Penicillin + ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

viral meningitis is also known as:

A

aseptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

tx for Tonic Clonic Seizures:

A

Valproic acid

Lamotrigine

Topiramate

TonIC ClonIC ValporIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale Consists of:

A

Visual 4

Verbal 5

Motoric 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

tx for Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

A

NSAIDS - early stage

Antidepressant, gabapentin - late stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Visual Hallucination which began _at the same tim_e as Parkinsonian sx are indicative of:

A

Lewy Body Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Peak sign in a pt with Myasthenia Gravis reffers to:

A

unable to keep the eye closed for a long period of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

sensory optic information CN?

A

CN II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

seizure prophylaxis during a stroke is acheived with:

A

phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

stroke tx if tPA is not an option:

A

Aspirin

Clopidogrel

control HTN

prevent hyperthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

class of medication that can cause delirium:

A

Anticholinergics

opioids

benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

most common artery affected by ischemic stroke

A

Middle cerebral artery

Most Common Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

first presentation sx for Myasthenia Gravis:

A

ptosis

diplopia

diffeculty chewing/swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Tongue motor function is:

A

Hypoglossal CN XII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Dicreased sensation in the stocking glove distribution

A

Peripheral Neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

1 st line of tx for Parkinson’s

A

Levodopa + Carbidopa

Lovedopa: converted to dopamine

Carbidopa: prevent breakdown of levodopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

CN VII

A

Facial

faical muscles

+

2/3 anterior tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Petechial Rash seen in a child is a sign of:

A

Meningacocal meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

collection of blood above the dura matter but below the skull is knonw as:

A

Epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome is usually preceeded by:

A

trauma / injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Valporic acid is contraindicated in:

A

pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

delirium in alcoholics is caused by

A

low thiamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

GCS < 8 requires

A

Intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Triceps Reflex:

A

C 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

main stay of tx for Migraine is:

A

Triptans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Cardinal Parkinson sx:

A

Pill Rolling / Resting tremor

Rrigidity (cogwheeling)

Akinesia

Postural/gain instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

LP in MS will show:

A

Ologclonal bands (IgG)

Meyling basic protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

most common reason for hemorrhagic stroke is:

A

HTN

exsessive anticoagulation

trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

receptive aphasia is due to damage to what area?

A

Werneckes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

important criteria in diagnosing MS is:

A

dissemination/spread/dispersion of sx in time and space (anatomical locations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Cerebral perfusion pressure equals to:

A

CPP=MAP-ICP

= Mean arterial pressure - Intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Glossopharyngeal CN?

A

IX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures are followed by:

A

Postictal state - confusion, slugishness

80
Q

oculomotor CN?

A

III

81
Q

Definition of MS:

A

Multifocal demyelination of the white matter of the brain and spinal cord

82
Q

Meningococcal meningitis is caused by:

Pnumococcal meningitis is caused by:

A

Nieseria Meningitidis > N. Meningitidis

Steptococcus pneumooneia > Pneumococcal

83
Q

mild head injury correspond to GCS of:

A

13-15

84
Q

Diabetic Neuropathy follows what distribution?

A

Stocking glove

85
Q

according to Monro–Kellie doctrine intracranial structure will be damaaged in which order in case of icrease of intracranial pressure (tumor/swelling/bleed)

A

1. CSF (lowest pressure system)

2. Venous blood (sinuses compress)

3. Arterial flow (obstruction of arterial flow)

4. Brain (tissue starts to herniate)

86
Q

tx for absence seizure is:

A

Ethosuximide

87
Q

Pain out of proportion in distal limb which is exacerbated by light touch following an injury is suggestive of:

A

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

88
Q

expressive aphasia is due to damage to what area:

A

Broca

89
Q

Demyalination of white matter is known as:

A

MS

90
Q

Biceps tendon reflex

A

C6

91
Q

Radiological finding in Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

A

increased uptake on bone scan - early stage

severe osteopenia - late stage

92
Q

infection of the parenchyma of the brain is knonw as:

A

Encephalitis

93
Q

Bell’s palsy is linked to what virus?

A

Herpis Simplex

94
Q

Meinigococcal meningitis is caused by:

A

Neisseria meningitidis

95
Q

Postural tremor

A

Essential Tremor

96
Q

Bilat motor loss in UE > bilat motor loss in LE

is known as:

A

Central Cord Syndrome

seen in cervical spinal cord injury

97
Q

sx of Bell’s palsy:

A

ipsilateral ear pain

unable to close eye

diffeculty eating

unable to raise eyebrow

98
Q

Myasthenia Gravis is most common among:

A

women, mid 30’s

old men

99
Q

tx for Diabetic Peripheral Neuropathy:

A

Tricyclic antidepressants - line-

Gabapentin

100
Q

tx for Status epilepticus is:

A

Benzodiazepine

Status epilepticus BENZODIAZEPICUS

101
Q

MS is most common among:

A

Females

Northen European origins

mid 30’s

102
Q

Tensilon/edrophonium test is:

A

used to diagnose Myasthenia Gravis

administration of ant-acetyl cholinesterase > provides temporal improvement of Myasthenia Gravis sx.

103
Q

eyelid droop is indicative of damage to which CN

A

III

104
Q

Chorea in Huntington’s Disease is treated with:

A

Tetrabenazine

105
Q

symmetrical weakness of facial muscles:

worsens with use

A

Myasthenia Gravis

106
Q

Common cause of Epidural Hematoma is injury to:

A

Temporal artery

or

Middle meningeal artery

107
Q

progressive distal weaknes:

drop foot

high arches

hammertoes

A

Charco-Marie-Tooth neuropathy

108
Q

two events that are likely to preceed Guillian Barre Syndrome:

A

Immunization

GI infection (campylobacter)

109
Q

tx of Myasthenia Gravis:

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors:

pyridostigmine=sthenia

110
Q

Stroke + Fever =

A

Endocarditis

111
Q

intracranial pressure is controlled by what med?

A

mannitol

112
Q

onset of Huntington’s disease is usually at:

A

40 y.o.

113
Q

the cause of encephalits is often

A

viral

114
Q

most common inherited peripheral neuropathy

A

Charco-Marie-Tooth neuropathy

115
Q

Innervationto trapeziusand sternocledomastoidmuscles

A

CN XI

116
Q

Monro–Kellie doctrine is:

A

sum of volumes of brain, CSF, and intracranial blood is constant

if the volume brain increases (tumor) then the volume of another component (CSF or blood) must adjust (decrease)

Large cranial mass may lead to reduce blood flow to the brain >ischemia

117
Q

conVEXlesions on brain CT

usually corresponds to:

A

Epidural Hematoma

118
Q

Common medication that my cause delirium is:

A

Lorazepam (Ativan)

Lorazepam=deLirium

119
Q

Blockage of neuromuscular transmission at the acetylcholine receptors

A

Myasthenia Gravis

120
Q

1st line tx for Alzheimer is:

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors:

Denepezil Alzhimezil

121
Q

Stupor is:

A

temporal arousal only by vigourous stupor

122
Q

Relapsing-remitting neurological sx developing into chronic progressive course may be a sign of:

A

MS

123
Q

Acute, symmetric ascending weakness of limbs

Gait disorder common

Paresthesiasof hands and feet

followed by: GI infection, Diarrhea, Viral URI, Immunization

A

Guillain Barre Syndrome

124
Q

preventative tx for Cluster headaches?

A

Verapomil

125
Q

LR<strong>6</strong>(SO4)<strong>3</strong>

A

LR<strong>6</strong>(SO4)<strong>3</strong>

126
Q

most common cancer in pt with Myasthenia Gravis is:

A

Thymoma

127
Q

Diagnostic test for Myasthenia Gravis:

A

Elevated acetylcholine receptor antibody

128
Q

exsessive coagulation can be reveresed with:

A

vitamin K

FFP

129
Q

golden standard to diagnose cerebral aneurysm is:

A

angiography

130
Q

area of the brain the allows to produce meaningfull auditory information:

A

Broca

131
Q

preventative migraine tx:

A

Topiramate

Valporate

Propranalol

TOPIRAMATE and VALPORATE** will prevent your **migronate

132
Q

Intentional/essential tremor stops with _____ resumes with________

A

stops with intional movement

resume with rest

133
Q

Kernig sign is:

A

flexiton of the hip and knee results in painful knee extension

134
Q

GCS < 8

corresponds to

A

Sever Head Trauma

8=S

135
Q

removal of Thymus gland is recommended in pt with:

A

Myasthenia Gravis

136
Q

area of the brain responsible for comprehansion of auditory speech:

A

Wernicke

137
Q

tx for acute MS:

A

corticosteroids

138
Q

most common type of MS is:

A

Relapsing-Remitting

139
Q

tontraindicatoin to tPA includes:

A

NOthrombolytics if symptoms > 4.5 hours
BP > 185/110
Recent hemorrhage, GI bleed
Administration of anticoagulants
–Arterial puncture at non-compressible site
–Internal bleeding
–Platelets < 100,000
–Head trauma, prior stroke, cranial surgery

140
Q

opens the eye lid, CN?

A

III

141
Q

Imperic tx for bacterial meningitis is:

A

Ceftriaxon

+

Vancomycin

+ Dexamethasone

142
Q

what kinds of memory loss Delivrium involves?

A

retrograde and atregrade (short and long term)

143
Q

in additon to optic neuritis and double vision what are the other early sx of MS?

A

urinary incontinence

144
Q

tx for encephalitis caused by HSV is:

A

acyclovir

145
Q

conCAVE lesions on brain CT

Crescent shape collection in the frontotemproral region

corresponds to:

A

Subdural hematoma

146
Q

sx: anterior cerebral artery stroke

A

legs>arms/face

147
Q

first neurological sx of what can be a MS is:

A

optic neuritis

148
Q

Steroid tx in Bell’s palsy needs to be initiated w/i

A

first 5 days

149
Q

Seizure lasting > 30 min is known as:

A

Status Epilepticus

150
Q

Seizure that involves both hemisphere is known as:

A

Generalized

151
Q

subdural hematoma is b/w which layers

A

b/w dura and arachnoid membranes

152
Q

unilateral headache

males>females

periorbital

episodic

severe

may involve eye or nose sx:

A

Cluster

153
Q

tx of MS aimed at reducing relapses is:

A

beta interferon

154
Q

global expressive aphasia is seen in:

A

Middle cerebral artery stroke

affect Broca’s area

155
Q

inheritance pattern of Essential Tremor:

A

autosomal dominant

156
Q

Friedreich Ataxia

A
157
Q

Ipsilateral blindness corresponds to which artery occlusion?

A

Internal Carotid artery

158
Q

GCS 13-15

corresponds to:

A

Mild Head Trauma

159
Q

Lucid interval following by slowly progressive altered mental status with

unilateral headache

ipsilateral enlarged pupil

typical of:

A

Subdural Hematoma

160
Q

Pathophysiology of Parkin’s Disease is:

A

Reduce dopamine

Lewy bodies

Acetylcholine/Dopamine imbalance

161
Q

In Trigeminal Neuralgia the pain starts:

A

at the corner of the mouth and moves to the angle of the jaw.

unilateral

162
Q

muscle spasm in CP are tx with:

A

Baclofen

Botox

163
Q

acute and fluctuating state of confusion

A

Delirium

164
Q

CN X

A

Vagus

165
Q

Bell’s Palsy is usually preceeded by:

A

Infection

Infection

Diabetes

166
Q

most common organism that cause bacterial meningitis

A

H.influezna - children

Step. pneumonia - adults with comorbit condition

Neisseria meningitidis - dorms, jails, barracks

Listeria Monocytogenes - developing countries

group B strep (S agalactiae) - neonates

167
Q

stroke sx vs artery occlusion:

legs>arms/face impairement

vs

arms>legs/face impairemnt

A

legs>arms/face impairement: Anterior Cerebral Artery

arms>legs/face impairemnt: Middle Cerebral Artery

168
Q

head trauma where briding vessles are damaged will produce what type of hematoma:

A

subdural

169
Q

tx for Guillian-Barre Sydnrome:

A

Plasmaphoresis

IVIG (intravenous Immunoglobulin)

170
Q

Multiple motor and phonic tics

are indicative of

A

Tourette Syndrome

Tics=Tourette

171
Q

CN XI

A

Spinal Accessory

172
Q

Ipsilateral loss of position, motor, vibration

and

Contralaterl loss of pain and temperature

A

Brown Sequard Syndrome

173
Q

Hemorrhagic stroke will produce_____ bleeding:

A

intracerebral bleeding

174
Q

GCS 9-12

corresponds to:

A

Moderate Head Injury

175
Q

Bell’s Palsy affects which CN?

A

VII (7)

176
Q

Seizure meds can be discountinued after

A

two years of seizure free period

177
Q

Tourette Syndrome must onset before:

A

age of 21 y.o

178
Q

Masked Like Facies

A

Parkinson’s Disease

179
Q

CN VIII

A

Acustic / Vestibulocochlear

180
Q

Alcohol withdrawal is treated with:

A

Benzidizapine

181
Q

Triptans can not be use in:

A

pregnancy

CAD

PVD

182
Q

1st line of tx for Trigeminal Neuralgia:

A

Carbamazepine

183
Q

LP results for viral encephalitis:

A

lymphocytic

normal glucose (vs low glucose in bacterial)

184
Q

sudden cessation of activity

blank stare

brief impairment

discriptive of:

A

Absence seizure

185
Q

Patern for vascular dementia is:

A

Sudden onset

stepwise progression

186
Q

most Ischemic Strokes are Thrombotic or Embolic?

A

Thrombotic>Embolic

187
Q

MR findings in MS will include:

A

Black holes - axonal damage

Dawson’s finger - extending from ventricles

188
Q

female>males

unilateral

throbbing/pulsatile

photophobia

phonophobia

Visual Aura

N/V

A

Migraine

189
Q

tPA can be given with in the ___ of sx onset

A

4.5 hours

190
Q

Key Dermatomes
Thumb
Nipple
Umbilicus
Great toe
Anal sphincter

A

C6 Thumb
T4 Nipple
T10 Umbilicus
L5 Great toe
S5 Anal sphincter

191
Q

rapture of aneurysm results in:

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

192
Q

Subclavian steal syndrome results into retrograde flow in:

A

vertibral artery

193
Q

significant BP differences in the upper extermeties are often due to:

A

Sublcavian steal syndrome

194
Q

one of the distinguishing sx of sublcavian steal syndrome is:

A

Bilateral blurred vision

195
Q
A
196
Q

Donepezil is the tx of choice for:

A

Alzheimer

Donepezil (Cholinesterase inhibitor)