Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

HIV prophylaxis should begin w/i ____ of the exposure

A

72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Toxoplasmososis is transmited by:

A

Cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

serious side effect of Sulfa is:

A

Steven Jonhons Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

tx for Strep Throat in a pt with penicillin allergy is:

A

Clindamycin and clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

alcohol is contraindicated when taking what abx?

A

Metronidazole

Tinidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tx for Group B pneumonia is:

A

Penicillin

Ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

resistance to penicillins is through:

A

Beta lacatmase secreted by bacteria

destroy Beta lactam rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

tx for C Diff:

A

oral metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

organism that causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

abx that inhibit topoisomerase is

A

Fluoroquinolone’s

FLORO=TOPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Psuedomonas aeruginosa

A

ciprofloxacin

levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

important toxicities with Aminoglycosides:

A

Ototoxicity

and

Nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

diagnostic / confirmatory syphilis test is

A

fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

acute fluctuating weakness along with onset of double vision and inability to focus on near objects

sx of:

A

Botulinum toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CD4<200 requires prophylaxis of:

A

PCP

with TMP-SMX (bactrum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

typical HIV tx protocol

A

2 NRTI + a choice of:

NNRI

PI

INSTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi is:

A

Lyme Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

tx for uncompleted cystitis is:

A

3 day flouroquinolone

or

5 day nitrofurantoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

tx of otitis media in a pt with penicillin allergy is:

A

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

tx for Rabies:

A

immunoglobulins (5 day series)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Vancomycin side effects:

A

Ototoxic

Nephrotoxic

Red man syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tx for PUD is:

A

PPI + Clarithromycin + Amoxicilin

or

PPI + Metronidazole + Tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

tx for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever in a pregnant pt is:

A

Chloramphenicol

Doxycyclin in a non pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Neurological Sx seen in Lyme Disease:

A

Bell’s palsy (CN VII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ABX contraindicated in pregnancy:

FAST

A

Fluorquinolones (joints, tendons)

Aminoglycosides (audotory)

Sulfonamide (jaundice)

Tetracyclines (teeth/bone problems)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

most dangerous type of malaria is:

A

P falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

rash that began at the wrist or ankle is a sign of:

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

climing the mountaing with wrist and ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Primary agent to treat MRSA is:

A

Vancomycin

Linezolid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which group of pt ceftriaxone is contraindicated for:

A

neonates

causes: biliary sludging, displaces bilirubin>kernicterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

parasite in the RBC are known as

A

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

cicrular red papule

centrifugal spread

central clearing

bull’s eye

all known as Erythema migrans

discriptive of:

A

Lyme Diz - stage I

Erythema Limgrans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

MoA Vancomycin

A

Inhibit Cell Wall Production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Diangosing method for Lyme disease:

A

IFA

ELISE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

India ink Stain is used to diagnose

A

Cryptococcus

Indian Cryptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Typhoid Fever

Constipation or diarrhea

signs of:

A

Salmonellosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Lyme disease is transmitted by:

A

Deer tick

Dear Lyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

most important toxicity associated with antifungals is:

A

Hepatic toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

STD tx:

A

Azithromycin

Ceftriaxone

Doxycycline

STD=ACD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Red Man Syndrome is caused by:

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Most common intestinal wam is:

A

Ascariasis

ASS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

because Sulfa drugs inhibit folate synthesis, they are contraindicated in:

A

Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Prophilaxis of Cryptococcal meningitis when CD4<200 is:

A

Flucanazole

cryptococcus is a fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Photocensitivity is produced by:

A

Flouroqinalones

Cyclins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Cryptococcal meningitis is seen in pt’s with:

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Fluoroquinolones are contraindicated in:

A

Long QT syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

tx for CMV is:

A

Ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

bats, raccoons bite may transmit

A

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Disulfiram reaction is:

A

occurs if alcohol is taken concurrent with metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Sulfa drugs lead to the increase in:

A

K

therefore can not be combined with ACE-I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Sulfa drugs MoA

A

inhibit Folic Acid

Folic Sulfa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

screening syphilis test is:

A

PRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

2nd line of treatment of otitis media is:

A

Augmentin

Cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Tx for Lyme and Rocky Mount Spotted Fever

both transmitted by ticks:

A

DOXYCYCLINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Pinicilins MoA

A

bind to penicillin binding protein to inhibit cell wall synthesis

55
Q

diagnose/confirm HIV with

A

Western Blot

56
Q

CD4<100 requires prophylaxis of:

A

Toxoplasmosis with

TMP-SMX (bacturm)

CTO=TOXO

57
Q

Penicillin may cross react with

A

Cephalosporins

58
Q

important side effect of Macrolides:

A

Long QT

warfarin interaction>bleeing

Ototoxic

59
Q

metalic taste is produced by what medication:

A

Clarithromycin

clear metal

60
Q

Tabes Dorsalis refers to:

A

Neuro Syphilis

61
Q

tx for toxoplasmosis encephalitis is:

A

Pyrimethamine

62
Q

CD4<50 requires prophylaxis of:

A

Mycobacterium with

Azithromycin

63
Q

Photosensitivity is caused by:

A

Doxycycline

TMP/SMX (bactrum)

Ciproflaxin

Photo=BCD

64
Q

Penicillin coverage include:

A

good for Strep

poor for Staph (resistent)

poor coverage of - organisms

good anaerobe coverage

65
Q

Penicillin hypersensitivity refers to:

A

Hive: maculopapular rash

66
Q

organism that cause travel diarrhea:

A

E. Coli

Shigella

Campylobacter jeujuni

67
Q

thick gray pseudomembane in the throat is a signs of:

A

Diphtheria

68
Q

dangerous Penicillin adverse reaction:

A

anaphylactic reaction mediated through IgE antibodies

69
Q

most common side effeect of Augmentin is:

A

Diarrhea

Bite augmenting>Diarrhea

70
Q

Augment is:

A

Amoxicillin + Clavulanate

71
Q

MoA of Tetracycline

A

inhibit protein synthesis

cyclines inhibit protein synthesis

72
Q

abx most known to cause C Diff:

A

Clindamycin

73
Q

abx of choice for Human/Animal bites is:

A

Augmentin

Augmentin=Bugmentin

74
Q

tx for Clostridium Botulinum is:

A

botulinum antitoxins

75
Q

what is Amino Penicillins coverage

(ampicillin, amoxicillin)

A

good + coverage

some negative coverage (unlike penicillin)

76
Q

tx for Step pneumo, pneumonia in kids is:

A

Amoxicillin

Penicillin

Cephalosporin

77
Q

important consideration for pt with mononucleosis (EBV) is:

A

abstain from contact sports due to high risk of spleen rapture

78
Q

tx for bacterial sinusitis in a pt who is allergic to penicillin:

A

Doxycycline 1 st line

Moxifloxacin 2 nd line

79
Q

Pneumonia in pregnancy should be treated with?

A

Erythromycin

80
Q

tx for bacterial sinusitis is:

A

Augmentin (Amoxicillin-clavulanate)

81
Q

mainstay tx for Cholera is:

A

water replacement

82
Q

tx for MSSA

A

nafcicillin

dicloxacillin

mSSa=ciLLin

83
Q
A
84
Q

Shigellosis will produce what kind of diarrhea

A

Bloody

Bloody shigellosis

85
Q

Rice water stool is associated with:

A

Vibrio Cholera

86
Q

Treponema pallidum is:

corkscrew-shaped spirochete

A

Syphilis

87
Q

Diarrhea due to drinking of mountain water is usually caused by what organism:

A

Giardia lamblia

88
Q

1st line of treatment of otitis media is:

A

Amoxicillin

89
Q

pt becomes infected with Lyme Dz only if the tick remains on the skin for more than

A

24 hours

90
Q

Disulfiram reaction includes:

A

skin flashing

accelerated heart rate

SOB

N/V

Headaches

91
Q

the only cephalosporin that is eliminated through HepatoBilliary system is:

A

Ceftriaxone

92
Q

Cardiac Symptoms of Lyme Dz is:

A

AV blocks

93
Q

tx for Pinwarms

A

albendazole

mebendazole

94
Q

Painless ulcer / chancer on the genitals is a sign of:

A

Primary syphilis

95
Q

Tx for Diverticulitis is:

A

Ciproflaxcin + metronidazole

96
Q

1 cause of AIDS-associated blindness is caused by:

A

Cytomegalovirus

CMV=retinitis

97
Q

tx for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is:

A

Doxycycline

98
Q

first manifistation of Lyme Dz is:

A

Erythema Migrans

99
Q

Wood or dog ticks transmitt?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

100
Q

wart-like lesions on the genitals seen in syphilis are known as:

A

Condylamata lata

101
Q

most common organism producing bacterial prostatitis:

A

E.Coli

Proteus

102
Q
A
103
Q

tx for Syphilis:

A

Pencilllin

syPhilis=Pencillin

104
Q

orange-red body fluids caused by:

A

Rifampin

105
Q

+ Heterophile agglutination test is known as:

A

Mono test

indicative of EBV

106
Q

diagnosing method for Malaria is:

A

peripheral smear

107
Q

MoA of Macrolides

A

inhibit protein synthesis

108
Q

primary syphilis sx:

A

painless chancre

primary=painless

109
Q

Periodical chills/fever/sweats is typical for

A

Marlaria presentation

110
Q

Tx for bacterial prostatitis:

A

Cipro (for gram -)

Ampicillin (for gam +)

111
Q

most Peniceillins are eliminated through

A

Renal System

Penicillin=Penal elimination

112
Q

screening HIV is with:

A

ELISA

HIV scrEEn with E lisa

113
Q

tx of Strep Throut in conjunction with Mono is:

A

Penicillin or erythromycin

114
Q

what effect Rifampin has on INR

A

decreases

115
Q

tx for Bacterial Candidosis is:

A

Micnonazole

116
Q

Cephalosporins MoA is:

A

Beta lactam inhibitors

117
Q

condylomata lata corresponds to:

A

secondary syphilis

118
Q

Pinworms dx is:

A

scotch tape

119
Q

bilateral cranial nerve palsies

descending symmetrical weakness

respiratory paralysis

signs of:

A

Botulism

120
Q

multiple ring lesion on brain CT of an HIV pt are indicative of

A

Toxoplasma Encephalitis

121
Q

1st line tx for Strep Throat:

A

Penicillin V

Amoxicillin

122
Q

tx for intestinal worms is:

A

albendazole

123
Q

Cryptosporidium is usually found in:

A

swimming pools

124
Q

Chlamydia:

A

Azithromycin + doxycycline

+ ceftriaxone (for Gonorrhea)

125
Q

side effects of HIV drugs:

NRTI

NNRTI

Fussion inhibitors

Protiease inhibitors

INSTI

A

NRTI - anemia

NNRTI - rash, neuro

Fussion inhibitors - injection site pain

Protiease inhibitors - lipid abn

INSTI - headache

126
Q

important side effect of Fluorquinolones:

A

Tendon Rapture

Photosinsitivity=Fluoro

Long QT

Contraindicated in children and pregnancy

127
Q

most wide spectrum of antifungal coverage is:

A

amphoterocin

128
Q

Teeth discoloration is produced by:

A

Tetracyclines

Teeth discoloratio = TEETHRACycline

contraindicated in children >8 y.o

129
Q

Late Lyme Dz is manifested by:

A

Chronic Arthritis

130
Q

what can reduce the efficacy of Flouroquinolones

A

Chelattion by Mg, Ca, Al, Multivitamins, Zn

131
Q

most common Cephalosporins adverse reaction is:

A

GI: N/V

132
Q

Amoxicillin given to a pt with Mono may result in:

A

Maculapapular Rash

133
Q
A