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Step 1 Complete > Neuro 1 USMLE > Flashcards

Neuro 1 USMLE Flashcards

1
Q

decreased pain and temp sensation over lat. aspects of both arms. where is the lesion

A

syringomyelia

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2
Q

penlight in pts right eye produces bilateral pupillary constriction. when moved to the left eye, there is paradoxical dilation.
what is the defect?

A

atrophy of L optic nn

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3
Q

decresassed prick sensation on lateral aspect of leg and foot.

deficit in what mm action can also be expected

A

dorsiflexion & eversion of foot (common peronial nn)

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4
Q

pt presents w/ tingling over lateral digits of her R hand.

What is the dx

A

carpal tunnel syndrome.

median nn compression

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5
Q

decreased plantar flexion and decreased sensation over back fo thigh, calf, and latereal half of foot.
what spinal nn

A

tibial (L4-S3)

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6
Q

pt in MVA can’t turn head to L & has rightt shoulder droop.

What sx is damaged.

A

R CN XI (inn SCL & trap mm)

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7
Q

pt presents w/ one wild flailing arm. where is the lesion?

A

contralateral subthalamic nuccleus (hemiballismus)

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8
Q

pt w/ cortical lesion does not know he has a dz. where is the lesion?

A

right paraietal lobe

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9
Q

pt cannot protrude tongue toward L side and has a R-sided spastic paralysis. Where is the lesion?

A

L medulla, CN XII

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10
Q

teen falls while rollarblading and hurts his elbow. He can’t feel the medial part of his palm.
What is the nn & what is the injury.

A

ulnar nn due to broken medial condyle

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11
Q

pt presents to ER after falling on arm. X-ray shows midshaft break of the humerus? Which nn & aa are most lkely damaged?

A

radial nn & deep brachial aa (run together

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12
Q

pt cannot blink his R eye or seal his lips and has mild ptosis on R side. What is the dx and which nn is affected.

A

bell’s palsy; CN VII

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13
Q

pt c/o numbness, & tingling sensation. She has wasting of thenar eminence. What is the dx/ What nn is affected?

A

carpel tunnel syndrome (medial nn)

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14
Q

stage of sleep where there is variable BP, penile tumescence & variable EEG.

A

REM

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15
Q

person demands only the best & most famous doctor in town.

what personality d/o

A

narcissistic personality d/o

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16
Q

nurse has episodes of hypoglycemia; blood analysis shows no elevation in C protien. What is the dx.

A

factitious d/o. self scripted insulin

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17
Q

woman presents w/ headache, visual disturbance, galactorrhea and amenorrhea
what is the dx

A

prolactinoma

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18
Q

pt experiences dizziness & tinnitis. ct shows enlarged internal acoustic meatus. What is the dx

A

schannoma

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19
Q

25 y/o female presents w/ sudden uniocular vision loss & slightly slurred speech. She has hx of weekness & parasthesias that have resoved. what is the dx

A

MS

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20
Q

10 y/o child “spaces out” in class (e.g., stops talking midsentance & then continues as if nothing happened. During spells there is slight quivering of lips. Dx?

A

absence seizures

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21
Q

man on several meds including antidepressants and antihypertensives, has mydriasis and becomes constipated. What is the cause of his symptoms

A

TCA

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22
Q

woman on MAO inhibitor has hypertensive crisis after a meal. What did she ingest?

A

tyramine (wine or cheese)

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23
Q

This CNS support cell helps maintain the blood-brain barrier. It’s cell marker is GFAP

A

astrocyte

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24
Q

this CNS support cell makes up the inner lining of the ventricles

A

ependymal cells

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25
Q

this CNS support cell is the macrophage of the brain phagocytosing in areas of inflammation or neural damage. Like the macrophage, this cell is mesodermal in origen.

A

microglia.

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26
Q

This CNS support cell is responsible for myelin production

A

oligodendroglia

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27
Q

This pns support cell is responsible for peripheral myelin production

A

schwann cell

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28
Q

All CNS/ PNS support cells (except the microglia which originates from mesoderm)originate from this primary germ cell layer.

A

ectoderm

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29
Q

autopsy done on pt w/ HIV shows these support cells transformed into virus filled multinucleated giant cells in CNS

A

microglia

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30
Q

these CNS support cells are destroyed in MS

A

oligodendroglia

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31
Q

Acoustic neuroma is a neoplasm of this PNS support cell commonly associated with the internal acoustic meatus (CN VII, VIII)

A

schwann cell

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32
Q 
Give following peripheral nn layers from inner most to outermost :
nn fibers
endoneurium
epineurium
perineurium
A

endoneurium-perineurium-epineurium-nn fibers

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33
Q

this peripheral nn layer must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment

A

perineurium

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34
Q

this sensory corpuscle is a small, encapsulated nn ending found in the dermis of palms, soles, and digits of skin. It is involved in light discriminatory touch of glabrous (hairless) skin.

A

meissner’s corpuscle

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35
Q

this sensory corpuscle is a large, encapsulated nn ending found in deeper layers of skin at ligaments, joint capsules, serous membranes, and mesenteries. It is involved in pressure, coarse touch, vibration, and tension.

A

pacinian corpuscle

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36
Q

this sensory corpuscle is a cup-shaped nn ending in dermis of fingertips, hair follicles, hard palate. It is involved in light, crude touch

A

merkel’s corpuscle

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37
Q

when you hear high frequency sound, this part of the cochlea is responding (narrow & stiff)

A

base

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38
Q

when you hear low frequency sound, this part of the cochlea is responding (wide and flexible)

A

apex

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39
Q

perilymph in the inner ear is similar to (ECF or ICF)

A

ECF (high Na+)

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40
Q

when you hear high frequency sound, this part of the cochlea is responding (narrow & stiff)

A

base

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41
Q

endolymph in the inner ear is similar to (ECF or ICF)

A

ICF (K+)

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42
Q

Utricle and saccule of the inner ear contain maculae which detect which type of acceleration?

A

linear

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43
Q

Semicircular canals of the inner ear contain ampullae which detect which type of acceleration?

A

angular

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44
Q

hearing loss in the elderly usually begins with which type of frequency

A

high frequencies

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45
Q

blood brain barrier is formed by which 3 structures:

A

1) astrocyte processes
2) basement membrane
3) tight jx b/n nonfenestrated capillary endothelial cells

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46
Q

glucose and amino acids cross the blood-brain barrier by which method.

A

carrier mediated transport mechanism

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47
Q

what crosses blood brain barrier more redily. water soluble substances or lipid soluble substances?

A

lipid soluble

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48
Q

the hypothalamus wears TAN HATS is a mneumonic for the fxns of the hypothalamus?
What does the T stand for (2 chances to get it right.

A

either:
1)Thirst
or
2)Temperature

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49
Q

the hypothalamus wears TAN HATS is a mneumonic for the fxns of the hypothalamus?
What does the A stand for (2 chances to get it right.

A

Either
1) Adenohypophysis control
or
2)Autonomic regulation

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50
Q

the hypothalamus wears TAN HATS is a mneumonic for the fxns of the hypothalamus?
What does the A stand for (2 chances to get it right.

A

Either
1) Adenohypophysis control
or
2)Autonomic regulation

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51
Q

the hypothalamus wears TAN HATS is a mneumonic for the fxns of the hypothalamus?
What does the N stand for

A

Neurohypophysis hormones (synthesized in hypothalamic nucleii)

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52
Q

the hypothalamus wears TAN HATS is a mneumonic for the fxns of the hypothalamus?
What does the H stand for

A

Hunger

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53
Q

the hypothalamus wears TAN HATS is a mneumonic for the fxns of the hypothalamus?
What does the S stand for?

A

Sexual urges

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54
Q

destruction of the lateral nucleus of the hypothalamus results in what type of food intake?

A

anerexia & starvation

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55
Q

destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus results in what type of food intake?

A

hyperphagia and obesity

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56
Q

Anterior hypothalamus regulates what division of the ANS.

A

parasympathetic

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57
Q

Posterior hypothalamus regulates what division of the ANS.

A

Sypathetic

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58
Q

This nucleus controls circadian rhythms.

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus

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59
Q

This nucleus controls thirst and water balance

A

supraoptic nucleus

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60
Q

This part of the hypothalamus (anterior or posterior) kicks in and regulates heat concervation when cold.

A

posterior hypothalamus

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61
Q

This part of the hypothalamus (anterior or posterior) coordinates cooling when hot.

A

anterior hypothalamus

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62
Q

When this nucleus of the hypothalmus is destroyed–rage results?

A

septal nucleus

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63
Q

The posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis) recieves hypothalamic axonal projections from the supraoptic nucleii and releases what hormone?

A

ADH

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64
Q

The posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis) recieves hypothalamic axonal projections from the paraventricular nucleii and releases what hormone?

A

oxytocin

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65
Q

this part of the brain is the major relay for ascending sensory informationthat ultimately reaches the cortex?

A

thalamus

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66
Q

This geniculate nucleus of the thalamus (lateral or medial) is involved in relaying visual sensory information to the cortex.

A

lateral

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67
Q

This geniculate nucleus of the thalamus (lateral or medial) is involved in relaying auditory sensory information to the cortex.

A

medial geniculate nucleus (MGN)

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68
Q

This nucleus of the thalamus is involved in relaying BODY sensation information (proprioception, pressure, pain, touch, vibriation) to the cortex via the dorsal columns & the spinothalamic tract.

A

Ventral Posterior Nucleus, Lateral part (VPL)

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69
Q

This nucleus of the thalamus is involved in relaying FACIAL sensation information to the cortex via CN V

A

Ventral Posterior nucleus, medial part (VPM)

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70
Q

This nucleus of the thalamus is involved in relaying motor information to the cortex.

A

Ventral Anterior/Lateral nucleus (VL)

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71
Q

This “system” of the brain is responsible for the 5 Fs. Feeding, Fighting, Feeling, Flight, and Fucking.

A

limbic system

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72
Q

This part of the brain is important in voluntary movements and making postural adjustments.

A

basal ganglia

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73
Q

Parkinson’s dz symptoms are do to decreased imput from this part of the basal gangia.

A

substantia nigra.

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74
Q

In Parkinson’s dz the symptoms are due to decreased input from the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia. This leads to _______ (increased or decreased) stimulation of the direct pathway and _______ (increased or decreased) inhibition of the indirect pathway

A

decreased

decreased

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75
Q

In the basal ganglia, _________ (D1)facilitates movement

A

direct pathway

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76
Q

In the basal ganglia, _________ (D2)inhibits movement

A

indirect pathway

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77
Q

In the cerebral cortex associative auditoritory fx is associated with which area?

A

Wernicke’s area (22)

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78
Q

In the cerebral cortex speech motor fx is associated with which area?

A

broca’s area

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79
Q

Your pt has become recently more and more disorganized. He reports problems concentrating and poor social judgement. What lobe of the brain could be involved.

A

frontal lobe

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80
Q

anterior cerebral artery hemarrage could result in sensory motor problems in which location of the body?

A

lower extremity

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81
Q

anterior cerebral aa supplies what part of the brain

A

medial surface

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82
Q

hemhorrage of the middle cerebral aa would involve what part of the brain.

A

lateral

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83
Q

hemhorrage of the middle cerebral aa could involve what pathologies?

A

motor & sensory deficits of teh trunk-arm-face, Broca’s and Wernicke’s speech areas

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84
Q

Anterior communicating artery lesion is the most common circle of Willis aneurism. It may cause this deficit.

A

visual field defect

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85
Q

Posterior communicating artery is also a common area of aneurism. It can result in this cranial nn palsy.

A

CN III

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86
Q

A stroke in this general part of the circule of wilis can cause general sensory and motor dysfunction and aphasia

A

anterior circle

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87
Q

A stroke in this general part of the circle of wilis can cause cranial n deficits (vertigo, visual deficits), coma, cerebellar deficits (ataxia)

A

posterior circle

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88
Q

this division of the middle cerebral aa is a common site of stroke. It feeds the internal capsule, caudate, putamen, & globus pallidus

A

lateral striate

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89
Q

Cerebral veins drain into the venous sinuses which drain into what?

A

internal jugular vv

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90
Q

lateral ventricle drains into the 3rd ventricle via the foramen of _______.

A

monro

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91
Q

3rd ventricle drains into the 4th ventricle via the aquaduct of ________

A

sylvius

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92
Q

4th ventricle drains into the subarachnoid space via the foramina of ________ (laterally) and the foramina of ________ (medially

A

Luschka

Magendie

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93
Q

How many spinal nn are there total?

A 
31
8-C
12-T
5-L
5-S
1-coccygeal
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94
Q

Vertibral disk herniation usually occurs between what levels_______

A

L5-S1

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95
Q

At what levels do you want do a LP

A

L3-L5

spinal cord extends to lower border of L2; Subarachnoid space extends to lwer border of S2

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96
Q

You perform an LP at the level of L4/L5 (iliac crest levels). List the following sx in the order that you will pierce them?

Ligaments 
Arachnoid
Epidural space
Subdural space
skin/superficial fascia
Dural matter
Subarachnoid space CSF
A 
skin/superficial fascia
Ligaments 
Epidural space
Dural matter
Subdural space
Arachnoid
Subarachnoid space CSF
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97
Q

Should you pierce the Pia matter in a lubar puncture?

A

No

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98
Q

These columns relay sensation of pressure, vibration, touch, and proprioception to the cerebral cortex.

A

dorsal columns

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99
Q

This fasciculus within the dorsal column relays the sensation of pressure, vibration, touch, and proprioception from the upperbody and extremities to the cerebral cortex.

A

fascciculus cuneatus

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100
Q

This fasciculus within the dorsal column relays the sensation of pressure, vibration, touch, and proprioception from the lower body and extremities to the cerebral cortex.

A

fasciculus gracilis

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101
Q

These tracts relay sensation of pain and temperature up the spinal cord to the cerebral cortex

A

spinothalamic tract

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102
Q

These tracts relay motor signals from the brain down teh spinal cord.

A

lateral corticospinal tract

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103
Q

what is more lateral in the dorsal columns the fasciculus cuneatus or fasciculs gracilis

A

fasciculus cuneatus

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104
Q

Describe the path of a vibratory (or pressure, touch, proproceptive) sensation as after it signals a sensory nn up until its first synapse (must get 3 key points)

A

Sensation enters the DORSAL ROOT GANGLION to ascent the spinal cord IPSILATERALLY in the DORSAL COLUMN.

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105
Q

Describe the location of the first synapse of that vibratory (or pressure, touch, proproceptive) sensation (must give nucleus and brain location)

A

NUCLEUS CUNEATUS or GRACILIS in the MEDULLA

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106
Q

Describe the 2nd order neuron of that vibratory (or pressure, touch, proproceptive) sensation. (decussation & ascention)

A

decussates in the MEDULLA and ascends CONTRALATERALLY in the MEDIAL LEMNISCUS

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107
Q

Describe the 2nd synapse of that vibratory (or pressure, touch, proproceptive) sensation. (Nucleus and brain location)

A

VPL of the THALAMUS

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108
Q

Describe the final destination of the 3rd order neuron of that vibratory (or pressure, touch, proproceptive)sensation

A

SENSORY CORTEX

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109
Q

Describe the path of an ascending pain (or temperature) sensation after it signals a sensory nn up until its first synapse

A

travels from sensory nn endigns (A-delta and C-fibers)and enters spinal cord ipsilaterally.

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110
Q

Describe the first synapse of ascending pain and temperature sensation

A

IPSILATERAL synapse with gray matter in spinal cord.

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111
Q

Describe the 2nd order neuron transmission of the ascending pain and temperature sensation. (decussation & ascention)

A

Decussates at the ANTERIOR WHITE COMMISSURE and ascends CONTRALATERAL in the SPINOTHALAMIC TRACT

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112
Q

Describe the 2nd synapse of the ascending pain and temp sensation?

A

VPL of thalamus

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113
Q

Describe the 3rd order neuron final destination of the ascending pain and temperature sensation.

A

sensory cortex

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114
Q

You want to move you’re right arm? Describe the 1st order neuron pathway.

A

begin in the LEFT HEMISPHERE PRIMARY MOTOR CORTEX. The UPPER MOTOR NEURONS descends IPSILATERALLY until decussating at CAUDAL MEDULLA (PYRAMIDAL DECUSSATION) and then descend CONTRILATERALLY.

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115
Q

You want to move you’re right arm? Describe where the 1st synapse occurs.

A

CELL BODY OF THE ANTERIOR HORN (SPINAL CORD)

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116
Q

You want to move you’re right arm? Describe the 2nd order neuron.

A

LOWER MOTOR NEURON leaves the spinal cord.

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117
Q

You want to move you’re right arm? Describe where the 2nd synapse occurs.

A

neuromuscular jx

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118
Q 
Give the brachial plexus dx from the BP damage:
Upper trunk (C5, C6)
A

waiters tip

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119
Q 
Give the diagnosis from the location of Brachial Plexus damage:
Lower trunk (T1,C8)
A

claw hand

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120
Q 
Give the diagnosis from the location of Brachial Plexus damage:
Posterior chord (C5-T1)
A

Wrist drop

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121
Q

Give the diagnosis from the location of Brachial Plexus damage:
Long Thoracic Nerve

A

Winged scapula

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122
Q

Give the diagnosis from the location of Brachial Plexus damage:
Axillary nn

A

Deltoid paralysis

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123
Q

Give the diagnosis from the location of Brachial Plexus damage:
Radial nn

A

Sadurday night palsy

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124
Q

Give the diagnosis from the location of Brachial Plexus damage:
musculocutaneous nn

A

difficulty flexing elbow, variable sensory loss

125
Q

Give the diagnosis from the location of Brachial Plexus damage:
Median nn

A

decreased thumb fx-Pope’s blessing

126
Q

Give the diagnosis from the location of Brachial Plexus damage:
Ulnar branch

A

Intrinsic mm of hand, claw hand

127
Q

What mm protects brachial plexus from injury in the case of the relatively common clavicle fracture

A

subclavius

128
Q

This nn is known as the “great extensor nn” it provides innervation of the Brachioradialis, Extensors or the wrist and fingers, Supinator, and Triceps.

A

Radial nn.

mneu:RAD=BEST
Brachioradialis, Extensors or the wrist and fingers, Supinator, and Triceps.

129
Q

Thenar mm (3)

Hypothenar mm (3)

A

Opponens pollicis, Abuctor pollicis brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis

Opponens digiti minimi, Abductor digiti minimi, Flexor digiti minimi

Both groups perform the same fx: Oppose, Abduct, and Flex (OAF)

130
Q

Clinically important Landmarks:

  • Ischial spine?
  • 2/3 of the way from the umbilicus to the anterior superior Iliiac Spine
  • Iliac Crest
A

Pudendal nn block
McBurney’s Pt-Appendix
Lumbar puncture

131
Q

Landmark Dermatomes:

Posterior half of the scull “cap”

A

C2

132
Q

Landmark Dermatomes: high turtle neck shirt

A

C3

133
Q

Landmark Dermatomes: low collar shirt

A

C4

134
Q

Landmark Dermatomes: T4

A

nipple

T4 at the “teat pore”

135
Q

Landmark Dermatomes: xyphoid process

A

T7

136
Q

Landmark Dermatomes: Umbilicus

A

T10

T10 at the belly butTEN

137
Q

Landmark Dermatomes: Inguinal ligament

A

L1

L1 is IL

138
Q

Landmark Dermatomes: includes the kneecaps

A

L4

down on L4s (all 4s)

139
Q

Landmark Dermatomes:

erection, and sensation of penile and anal zones

A

S2,3,4

S2,3,4 keeps the penis off the floor

140
Q

Gallbladder pain is referred to the right shoulder via this nn

A

phrenic nn

141
Q

This work in prallel w/ mm fibers. When a mm is stretched it causes the intrafusal to stretch which stimulates the Ia afferent which in turn stimulates the alpha motor neuron which causes a reflex muscle (extrafusal ) contraction

A

muscle spindle

142
Q

these monitor mm lenth. For example help you pick up a heavy suitcase when you didn’t know how heavy it was.

A

muscle spindles

143
Q

This senses tension and provides inhibitory feedbach to alpha motor neurons

A

golgi tendon organs

144
Q

These monitor mm tension. For example make you drop a heavy suitcase you’ve been holding for too long

A

golgi tendon organs

145
Q

CNS stimulates the gamma motor neuron which contracts intrafusal fiber and causees an increased sensitivity of the reflex arc

A

gamma loop

146
Q

Clinical reflexes:

  • Achillies:
  • Patella:
  • Biceps:
  • Triceps:
A

S1,2
L3,4
C5,6
C7,8

147
Q

Dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of other toes; sign of UMN lesion, but normal reflex in 1st year of life

A

Babinski

148
Q

Primitive Reflexes:
extension of limbs when startled

(normally disappear w/in 1st year. May reemerge following a frontal lobe lesion)

A

moro reflex

149
Q

Primitive Reflexes:
nipple seeking

(normally disappear w/in 1st year. May reemerge following a frontal lobe lesion)

A

rooting reflex

150
Q

Primitive Reflexes:
grasps objects in palm

(normally disappear w/in 1st year. May reemerge following a frontal lobe lesion)

A

palmar reflex

151
Q

Primitive Reflexes:
large toe dorsiflexes w/ plantar stimulation

(normally disappear w/in 1st year. May reemerge following a frontal lobe lesion)

A

babinski reflex

152
Q

CNs that lie medially at brainstem

A

III, VI, XII

mneu: 3(x2)=6(x2)=12

153
Q

Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?
Fx:
smell

A

CNI-olfactory(S)

154
Q

Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?
Fx:
Sight

A

CN II: Optic (S)

155
Q

Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?
Fx:
Eye movement (up(lateral & medial) down (lateral), pupil constriction, accommodation, eyelid opening

A

CN III: Oculomotor (M)

156
Q

Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?
Fx:
Eye movement (down & medial)

A

CN IV: Trochlear (M)

157
Q

Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?
Fx:
Mastication, Facial sensiation

A

CN V: Trigeminal (B)

158
Q

Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?
Fx:
Eye movement (lateral)

A

CN VI: Abducens (M)

159
Q

Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?
Fx:
Facial mvmt, taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue, lacrimation, salivation (submaxillary and sublingual glands, eyelid closing.

A

CN VII: Facial (B)

160
Q

Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?
Fx:
Hearing, balance

A

CN VIII: Vestibulocochlear (S)

161
Q

Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?
Fx:
Taste from post 1/3 of tongue, swallowing, salivation (parotid gland), monitoring carotid body and sinus chemo-and baroreceptors

A

CN IX: Glossopharyngeal (B)

162
Q

Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?
Fx:
Tastte from epiglottic region, swallowing, palate elevaton, talking, throacoabdominal viscera, monitoring aortic arch chemo-and baroreceptors

A

CN X: Vagus (B)

163
Q

Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?
Fx:
Head turning, shoulder shrugging

A

CN XI: Accessory (M)

164
Q

Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?
Fx:
tongue mvmt

A

CN XII: Hypoglossal (M)

165
Q

Cranial nn nucleii located in the Midbrain

A

CN III, IV

166
Q

Cranial nn nucleii located in the Pons

A

CN V-VIII

167
Q

Cranial nn nucleii located in the Medulla

A

IX-XII

168
Q

Cranial nn nucleii located in the Midbrain

A

CN III, IV

169
Q

Cranial nn more lateral in the brainstem tend to be ______; those more medially tend to be _______

A

sensory

motor

170
Q

This vagal nucleii recieves visceral sensory information (e.g., taste baroreceptors, and gut distension) from cranial nn VII, IX, & X

A

Nucleus Solitarius

171
Q

This vagal nucleii is responsible for Motor inervation of the pharynx, larynx and upper esophagus (e.g, swallowing, palate elevation)via CN IX,X,XI.

A

Nucleus aMbiguous

172
Q

This vagal nucleii sends autonomic (parasympathetic) fibers to heart, lungs, and upper GI

A

Dorsal motor nucleus

173
Q

Crandial nn and vessel pathways:

Cribiform plate

A

CN I

174
Q

Crandial nn and vessel pathways:

optic canal

A

CN II, opthalmic artery, central retinal vein

175
Q

Crandial nn and vessel pathways:

Superior orbital fissure

A

(CN III, IV, V1,VI, opthalmic vv)

176
Q

Crandial nn and vessel pathways:

Foramen Rotundum

A

CN V2

177
Q

Crandial nn and vessel pathways:

Foramen Ovale

A

CN V3

178
Q

Crandial nn and vessel pathways:

Foramen spinosum

A

middle meningeal aa

179
Q

Crandial nn and vessel pathways:

Internal auditory meatus

A

CN VII, VIII

180
Q

Crandial nn and vessel pathways:

Jugular foramen

A

CN IX,X,XI, jugular vv

181
Q

Crandial nn and vessel pathways:

Hypoglossal canal

A

CN XII

182
Q

Crandial nn and vessel pathways:

Foramen magnum

A

Spinal roots of CN XI, brainstem, vertebral arteries

183
Q

a collectionof venous sinuses on either side of the pituitary

A

cavernous sinus

184
Q

nn that pass through cavernous sinuses

A

nn that control extaocular mm (CN III, IV, VI) plus V1 & V2

185
Q

pt presents w/ opthalmoplegia, & opthalmic and mandibular sensory loss
what is a possible dx?

A

Cavernous sinus syndrome (e.g., due to mass effect

186
Q

Muscles of mastication:
3 mm that close the jaw

innervated by?

A

Masseter, teMporalis, Medial pterygoid.

inn: V3
mneu: Ms Munch

187
Q

Muscles of mastication:
1 mm opens the jaw

innervated by:

A

Lateral pterygoid.
inn: V3

mneu: Lateral Lowers

188
Q

All mm with the root glossus in their names are innervated by?
Except one exception. What is it and what is the innervation.

A

hypoglossal.

palatoglossus (inn by vagus)

189
Q

All mm with the root palat in their names are innervated by this.
One exception what is it innervated by?

A

vagus

exception: tensor veli palatine (inn by Mandibular branch of CN V)

190
Q

CN IV innervates what mm? What direction would you look?

A

SO–towards your nose

191
Q

CN VI innervates what mm. What direction would you look

A

LR-laterally

192
Q

What reflex? Light in either retina sends a signal via CN III to PRETECTAL nucleii in midbrain that activate bilateral EDINGER-WESTPHAL nucleii;pupls contract bilaterally (consensual reflex)

A

Pupillary light reflex

193
Q

Saying KLM outloud tests what three CNs?

A

K (vagus) palate elevation
L (hypoglossal) tongue
M (facial) lips

194
Q

What waveform?

awake (eyes open), alert, active mental concentration

A

Beta (highest frequency, lowest amplitude)

195
Q

What waveform?

awake (eyes closed)

A

alpha

196
Q

What waveform?
light sleep
What stage of sleep is this? What percentage of total sleep time is this in young adults?

A

Theta
1
5%

197
Q

What waveform?
deeper sleep
What stage of sleep is this? What percentage of total sleep time is this in young adults?

A

Sleep spindles and K complexes
2
45%

198
Q

What waveform?

Deepest sleep; sleepwalking; night terrors, bed wetting

What stage of sleep is this? What percentage of total sleep time is this in young adults?

A

Delta (lowest frequency, hightest amplitude)
3-4
25%

199
Q

What waveform?

dreaming, loss of motor tone, possibly memory procesing fx, erections, increase brain oxygen use

What stage of sleep is this? What percentage of total sleep time is this in young adults?

A

Beta
REM
25%

mneu: At night, BATS Drink Blood

200
Q

What type of sleep is this?
increase variable pulse, rapid eye movements, inceased and variable blood pressure, penile/clitoral tumenescence. Occurs every 90 min; duration increases throughout the night.

A

REM

201
Q

principle neurotransmitter involved in REM sleep

A

Ach

202
Q

REM sleep _______ (increases or decreases) with age

A

decreases

203
Q

neural tube defects are associated with lack of this vitamen intake during pregnancy

A

folic acid

204
Q

neural tube defects are associated with elevated levels of this in amniotic fluid and maternal serum

A

alpha fetoprotein levels

205
Q

This describes failure of bony spinal canal to close, but no structural herniation. Usually seen at lower vertebral levels

A

spinal bifida occulta

206
Q

This describes when the meninges herniate throgh a spinal canal defect

A

meningocele

207
Q

This describes when meninges and spinal cord herniate through spinal canal defects

A

meningiomyelocele

208
Q

Give the area of the brain lesion?

motor (nonfluent/expressive) aphasia with good comprehension

A

broca’s area

209
Q

Give the area of the brain lesion?

sensory (fluent/receptive) aphagia with poor comprehension

A

Wernicke’s area

210
Q

Give the area of the brain lesion?

conduction aphagia; poor repitition with good comprehension, fluent speech

A

Arcuate fasciculus

(connects Wernicke’s to Broca’s area

211
Q

Give the area of the brain lesion?

Kluver-Bucy Syndrome (hyperorality, hypersexuality, disinhibited behavior)

A

Amygdala (bilateral)

212
Q

Give the area of the brain lesion?

Personality changes and deficits in concentration, orientation, and judgement; may have reemergence of primitive reflexes

A

frontal lobe

213
Q

Give the area of the brain lesion?

Spacial neglect syndrome (agnosia of the contralateral side of the world)

A

Right parietal lobe

214
Q

Give the area of the brain lesion?

coma

A

reticular activating system

215
Q

Give the area of the brain lesion?

wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

A

mamillary bodies (bilateral)

216
Q

Give the area of the brain lesion?

tremor at rest, chorea, or athetosis

A

basal ganglia

217
Q

Give the area of the brain lesion?

Intention tremor, limb ataxia

A

cerebellar hemisphere

mneu: cerebellar hemispheres are LATERALLY located–affect LATERAL limbs. Vermis is CENTRALLY located-affects CENTRAL body

218
Q

Give the area of the brain lesion?

truncal taxia, dysarthria

A

cerebellar Vermis

mneu: cerebellar hemispheres are LATERALLY located–affect LATERAL limbs. Vermis is CENTRALLY located-affects CENTRAL body

219
Q

Give the area of the brain lesion?

contralateral hemiballismus

A

subthalamic nucleus

220
Q

Chorea–sudden, jerky, purposeless movements are characteristic of a lesion in this part of the brain. Give the classic dz example.

A

Basal ganglia

Huntington’s dz

221
Q

Athetosis are slow, writhing movements, especially of the fingers. This is characteristic of a lesion in this part of the brain

A

basal ganglia

222
Q

hemiballismus involves the sudden wild flailing of 1 arm. What kind of lesion does this indicate (& on what side)

A

contralateral subthalamic nucleus

results in loss of inhibition of thalamus through globus pallidus

223
Q

Broca’s lesion is nonfluent aphagia with intact comprehension it involves this gyrus

A

inferior frontal gyrus

224
Q

Wernicke’s aphagia is fluent aphagia with impared comprehension it involves this gyrus

A

superior temporal gyrus

225
Q

most common cause of dementia in the elderly. Associated w/ senile plaques (extracellular, Beta amyloid core) and neuro fibrillary tangles (intracellular, abnormally phosphorylated tau protiein)

A

Alzheimers dz

226
Q

Familial form of alziemers is associeted w/ genes on chromosomes 1, 14, 19 (APOE4 allele), and 21 (p-App gene) is thought to be responsible for this percent of alzheimers cases

A

10%

227
Q

What is the 2nd most common cause of dementia in the elderly

A

multi-infarct dementia

may cause amyloid angiopathy

228
Q

pt presents with dementia, aphasia, parkinsonian aspects; associated with intracellular aggregated tau protien and is specific for frontal and temporal lobes.

A

Pick’s dz

229
Q

pt presents with chorea and dementia. Autopsy shows atrophy of caudate nucleus (loss of GABAergic neurons).

A

Huntinton’s dz

230
Q

Dz associated with chromasome 4–expansion of CAG repeats.

A

Huntinton’s dz

mneu: CAG-Caudate loses ACh & GABA.

231
Q

dz associated w/ Lewy bodies and depigmentation of the substantia nigra pars compacta (loss of dopaminergic neurons) Rare cases have been linked to exposure to MPTP, a contaminant in illicit sreet drugs.

A

Parkinson’s dz

mneu: TRAP=Tremor (at rest), Rigidity, Akinesia, and Postural instability (you are TRAPped in your body.

232
Q

Dz associated with BOTH LMN & UMN signs, no sensory defect. Also known as Lou Gehrig’s dz

A

Amyotrophic lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

233
Q

presents as birth as a “floppy baby”, tongue fasciculations; median age of death is 7 months. Associated w/ degeneration of anterior horns. Autosomal-recessive inheritance.

A

Werdnig-Hoffmann dz

234
Q

dz follws infection with poliovirus; LMN signs. Associated with degeneration of anterior horns.

A

Polio

235
Q

Pt presents w malaise, headache, fever, nausea abdominal pain, sore throught. Progreses to signs of LMN lesions–mm weakness & atrophy, fasciculations, fibrillation, & hyporeflexia.
LP of CSF shows lymphocytic pleocytosis w/ slight elevation of protein.
What do you suspect?

A

Poliomyelits

236
Q

this dz is causesd by the poliovirus, which is transmitted by the fecal-oral route. It replicates in the oropharynx and small intestine before spreading through the bloodstream to the CNS where it leads to the destruction of cells in the anterior horn of the spinal cord, leading in turn to LMN destruction.

A

poliomyelitis

237
Q

This dz shows increased prevalence with increased distance from the equator.

A

MS

238
Q

This dz shows periventricular plaques (areas of oligodendrocyte loss and reactive gliosis)with preservation of actions. There is an increase in protein (IgG) in CSF.

A

MS

239
Q

dz associated with a relapsing-remitting course.

A

MS

240
Q

With this dz pts often present w/ optic neuritis (sudden loss of vision) MLF syndrome (internuclear ophtalmoplegia), hemiperesis, hemisensory symptoms, or bladder/bowel incontinence.

A

MS

241
Q

This dz classically presents with scanning speech, intension tremor, and nystagmus. It most often affects women in their 20s and 30s. And is more common in whites. Tx is Beta interferon or immunosuppressant therapy.

A

MS

242
Q

This demyelinating dz is associated with the JC virus and is seen in 2-4% of AIDS pts.

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)

243
Q

This dz is associated with inflammationand demyelination of peripheral nn and motor fibers of the ventral roots (sensory effects are less severe than motor). This results in symmetric ASCENDING mm weakness begining in distal and lower extremities.

LP of CSF shows elevated protein with normal cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation). Elevated protien levels may lead to papilledema.

Pts usually recover completely.

A

Guillian-Barre Syndrome (acute idiopathic polyneuritis)

244
Q

Guillian-Barr has been associated with certain infections including (2)

A

herpesvirus or Campylobacter jejuni

245
Q

seizures involving only one area of the brain

A

partial seizures

246
Q

simple partial seizures

A

1 area of the brain

conciousness intact

247
Q

complex partial seizures

A

1 area of the brain

impaired consciousness

248
Q

generalized seizures

A

diffuse areas of brain

249
Q

generalized siezures involving a blank stare

A

absence (petit mal)

250
Q

generalized siezures involving quick repetitive jerks

A

myoclonic

251
Q

Generalized siezure involving alternating stiffening and movement

A

tonic-clonic

252
Q

Pt hit in the side of the head with a baseball and fracturs his temperal bone. Rupture of the middle meningeal aa results. CT shows a “bioconvex disk” that does not cross suture lines. What is your dz of the Intracranial hemorrhage?

A

epidural hematoma

253
Q

Alcoholic presents to the ER. He fell and hit his head the previous night but thought he was fine until neurological symptoms appeared the next morning. MRI shows a crescent-shaped hemorrhage that crosses suture lines. You suspect a venous bleed. What is your dx of this intracranial hemorrhage?

A

Subdural hematoma

254
Q

Pt complains of “worst headache of their life.” You worry it may be a rubture of a berry aneurism. Spinal tap is bloody. What is the d of this intracranial hemorrhage?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

255
Q

This type of aneurism often occurs at the bifurcation in the circule of Willis. The most common site is the bifurcation of the anterior communicating artery. Risk factors include adult polycystic kidney dz, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, & Marphan’s syndrome.

A

Berry aneurysms

256
Q

most _______ (childhood v. adult) tumors are supratentorial, while most ________childhood v. adult) tumors are infratentorial.

A

adult
childhood

Note: 50% of brain tumors are metastases

257
Q

This tumor has an adult peak incidence. It is the most common primary brain tumor and it has a grave prognosis ( tumor cells border central areas of necrosis and hemorrhage. Stain astrocytes with GFAP.

A

Glioblastoma multiforme (grade IV astrocytoma)

258
Q

This tumor has an adult peak incidence. It is the second most common primary brain tumor. It most often occurs in the convexities of hemispheres and parasagital region. It arises from arachnoid cells external to the brain. It is usually resectable.

A

Meningioma

259
Q

On pathology this primary brain tumor shows spindle cells concentrically arranged in a whorled pattern and psammoma bodies (laminated calcification) What is it?

A

Meningioma

260
Q

This brain tumor has an adult peak incidence. It is the 3rd most common primary brain tumor. It is of Schwann cell origin and is often localized to the 8th nerve. It is resectable. What is it?

A

Schwannoma

261
Q

Bilateral schwannoma is often found in what condition?

A

neurofibromatosis type 2

262
Q

This primary brain tumor with an adult peak incidence is relatively rare. It is slow growing and most often occurs in the frontal lobes.

A

Oligodendroma

263
Q

On pathology this tumor has “fried egg” cells-round nucleii with clear cytoplasm. They are often calcified.

A

Oligodendroma

264
Q

This priary brain tumor that has an adult peak incidence most commonly comes in a prolactin secreting form. Often it occurs with bilateral hemianopia (due to pressure on optic chiasm)

A

pituitary adenoma

265
Q

This primary brain tumor has a peak incidence in childhood. It is a diffusely infiltrating glioma. It is most often found in the posterior fossa. It is benign and carries a good prognosis.

A

Pilocytic (low grade) astrocytoma)

266
Q

On pathology this primary brain tumor shows Rosenthal fibers (eosinophilic, corkscrew fibers)

A

Pilocytic (low grade )astrocytoma

267
Q

This primary brain tumor that occurs with a peak incidence in children is a highly malignant cerabellar tumor. It is a form of primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PneT). It can compress the 4th ventricle causing hydrocephalus. It is highly radiosensitive.

A

Medulloblastoma

268
Q

On pathology this tumor shows Rosettes or perivascular pseudorosette pattern of cells

A

medulloblastoma

269
Q

This primary brain tumor that occurs with a peak incidence in children is an ependymal cell tumor most commonly found in the 4th ventricle. It can cause hydrocephalus and carries a poor prognosis.

A

ependymoma

270
Q

On pathology this tumor has characteristic perivascular pseudorosettes. Rod shaped blepharoplasts (basal ciliary bodies) found near the nucleus

A

ependymoma

271
Q

This primary brain tumor that occurs with a peak incidence in children is most often cerebeller. It is associated with Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome when found with retinal angiomas. Can produce EPO and lead to secondary polycythemia.

On pathology: Foamy cells and high vascularity are characteristic.

A

Hemangioblastoma

272
Q

This primary brain tumor that occurs with a peak incidence in children is a benign tumor which can be confused with pituitary adenoma (can also cause bitemporal hemianopia). This is the most common childhood supratentorial tumor. It is derived from remnants of Rathke’s pouch and calcification is common.

A

Craniopharyngioma

273
Q

Sign of UMN or LMN lesion or both?

Weakness

A

Both

mneu: LOWER MN= everything is LOWERED (less mm mass, less mm tone, less reflexes, downgoing toes. UPPER MN= everything UP (tone, DTRs, toes)

274
Q

Sign of UMN or LMN lesion or both?

Atrophy

A

LMN

mneu: LOWER MN= everything is LOWERED (less mm mass, less mm tone, less reflexes, downgoing toes. UPPER MN= everything UP (tone, DTRs, toes)

275
Q

Sign of UMN or LMN lesion or both?

Fasciculation

A

LMN

mneu: LOWER MN= everything is LOWERED (less mm mass, less mm tone, less reflexes, downgoing toes. UPPER MN= everything UP (tone, DTRs, toes)

276
Q

Sign of UMN or LMN lesion or both?

Increased Reflexes?
Decreased Reflexes?

A

UMN
LMN

mneu: LOWER MN= everything is LOWERED (less mm mass, less mm tone, less reflexes, downgoing toes. UPPER MN= everything UP (tone, DTRs, toes)

277
Q

Sign of UMN or LMN lesion or both?

Increased tone?
Decreased tone?

A

UMN
LMN

mneu: LOWER MN= everything is LOWERED (less mm mass, less mm tone, less reflexes, downgoing toes. UPPER MN= everything UP (tone, DTRs, toes)

278
Q

Sign of UMN or LMN lesion or both?

Babinski?

A

UMN

mneu: LOWER MN= everything is LOWERED (less mm mass, less mm tone, less reflexes, downgoing toes. UPPER MN= everything UP (tone, DTRs, toes)

279
Q

These diseases result in lower motor neuron lesions only. They are due to destruction of the anterior horns and result in flacid paralysis. [pic]

A

Poliomyelitis & Werdinig Hoffman dz

280
Q

This dz effects mostly the white matter of the cervical region. Random and asymmetrical demyelinating lesions are seen. Often pt presents with scanning speech, intention tremor, and nystagmus [pic]

A

MS

281
Q

These diseases result in lower motor neuron lesions only. They are due to destruction of the anterior horns and result in flacid paralysis. [pic]

A

Poliomyelitis & Werdinig Hoffman dz

282
Q

This dz involves combined UMN and LMN deficits with no sensory deficit. Pt often presents with both UMN & LMN neuron signs [pic]

A

ALS

283
Q

When this happpens the only thing spared are the dorsal columns and tract of Lissauer[pic]

A

complete occlusion of ventral artery

284
Q

This results in degeneration of the dorsal roots and dorsal columns. Pt presents with impared proprioception and locomotor ataxia.

A

Tabes dorsalis (tertiary syphilis)

285
Q

This resultswhen the crossing fibers of the corticospinal tract are damaged. Pt presents with bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

A

syringomyelia

286
Q

This results in demyelination of dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts, and spinocerebellar tracts. Pt often presents with ataxic gait, hyperreflexia, impared position and vibration sense

A

vit B neuropathy and Friedreich’s ataxia

287
Q

This results when the central canal of the spinal cord is enlarged for some reason. The crossing fibers of spinothalamic tract are thus damaged. Pt shows bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in upper extremities with preservation of touch sensation.

A

Syringomyelia

288
Q

Syringomyelia often presents with this congenital malformation.

A

Arnold-Chiari malformation

289
Q

Syringomyelia is most common at this spinal level

A

C8-T1

290
Q

This disorder is due to degeneration of the dorsal columns and dorsal roots due to tertiary syphilis. It results in impared proprioception and locomotor ataxia. Pt often presents with Charccot’s joints (neuropathy of the joint), Argyll Robertson pupils (reactive to accommidation but not to light), and absensce of DTRs

A

Tabes dorsalis

291
Q

Brown Sequard syndrome is a complete hemisection of the spinal cord. Give the findings.

A
  1. Ipsilateral UMN signs(corticospinal tract) below lesion
    2) Ipsilateral loss of tactile, vibration, proprioception sense (dorsal column) below lesion
    3) Contralateral pain and temperature loss (spinothalamic tract) below the lesion
    4) Ipsilateral loss of all sensation at the level of lesion
    5) LMN signs at the level of the lesion

*note: if the lesion occurs above T1 the pt will present with Horner’s syndrome

292
Q

What are the symptoms of Horner’s syndrome?
What spinal levels is it associated with?
What is a common cancer that may result in it?

A

1) Ptosis (droopy eyelid)
2) Anhydrosis (no sweating or flushing of effected side of face
3) Miosis (pupil constriction)

HS is associated with lesion of spinal cord above T1

Pancoast tumor

293
Q

The 3 neuron OCULOSYMPATHETIC PATHWAY projects from 1)hypothalamus to the 2)intermediolateral column of the spinal cord, then to the 3) superior cervical (sympathetic) ganglion, and finally to the 4) pupil, the smooth mm of the eyelids, and the sweat glands of the forehead and face. Interruption of these pathways results in _________

A

Horner’s syndrome

294
Q

What nerve was injured?

Pt fractures the shaft of humerus. He presents with “wrist drop” ( extensor carpi radialis longus damage), loss of triceps and brachioradialis reflexes.

Loss of sensation on posterior surface of arm and forearm (posterior brachial cutaneous and posterior antebrachial cutaneous)

A

Radial nn

295
Q

The 3 neuron OCULOSYMPATHETIC PATHWAY projects from 1)hypothalamus to the 2)intermediolateral column of the spinal cord, then to the 3) superior cervical (sympathetic) ganglion, and finally to the 4) pupil, the smooth mm of the eyelids, and the sweat glands of the forehead and face. Interruption of these pathways results in _________

A

Horner’s syndrome

296
Q

What nerve was injured?

Pt reports hitting his “funny bone” (medial epicondyle) hard! He now has impared wrist flexion and adduction. He can’t adduct his thumb or the 4th and 5th digits resulting in a “claw hand”.

He has a loss of sensation over the medial palm and his pinky finger.

A

ulnar

297
Q

What nerve was injured?

pt experiences a break through the surgical neck of the humerus or has an anterior shoulder dislocation. He now has trouble abducting his arm above 30 degrees.

A

Axillary

298
Q

What nerve was injured?

Pt presents with a loss of function of biceps, coracobrachialis, and brachialis muscle. He has no biceps reflex?

A

musculocutaneous

299
Q

This nerve passes through the supinator

A

radial

300
Q

this nerve passes through the pronator teres

A

median

301
Q

this nerve passes through the flexor carpi ulnaris

A

ulnar

302
Q

Child presents with “waiter’s tip” appearance: arm hanging to one side (paralysis of abductors), medially rotated (paralysis of lateral rotators), and forarm is pronator (loss of biceps.

What is the dx? What are the nerve roots and what are you concerned about?

A

Erb-Duchenne palsy

traction tear of the upper trunk of the brachial plexis (C5 & C6 roots) often follows blow to shoulder,could be due to trauma during delivery or child abuse.

303
Q

What nerve was injured?

Pt presents with loss of dorsiflexion resulting in “foot drop”

A

Common peroneal nerve (L4-S2)

PED= Peroneal Everts & Dorsiflexes; if injured, foot is dropPED

304
Q

Deep peroneal nn innervates _______ compartment

Superficial peroneal nn innervates _______ compartment

A

anterior

lateral

305
Q

What nn is injured?

pt presents with loss of plantar flexion.

A

Tibial (L4-S3)

TIP=Tibial Inverts & Plantarflexes; if injured, cant stand on TIPtoes.

306
Q

What nn is damaged?

Pt presents with loss of knee extension and deminished pateller reflex.

A

Femoral (L2-L4)

307
Q

What nn is injured?

Pt presents with a loss of hip adduction?

A

Obturator

308
Q

Pt presents with:

1) atrophy of the thenar and hypothenar eminences
2) atrophy of the interosseous mm
3) sensory deficits on the medial side of the forearmand hand
4) disappearance of the radial pulse upon moving the head towards the opposite side

What do you suspect? Discribe this disorder?

A

Thoraci outlet syndrome (Klumpke’s palsy)

Compression of subclavian aa and inferior trunk of brachial plexus (C8,T1)

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