Micro 1 USMLE Flashcards

1
Q

alcoholic vomits gastric contents and develops foul smelling sputum. What organisms are most likely

A

anaerobes

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2
Q

middle age male presents w/ acute onset monoarticular joint pain and bilateral bell’s plalsy. What is the likely dz and how did he get it

A

lyme dz; bite from Ixodes tick

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3
Q

Pt w/ mycoplasma pneumoniae exhibits cryoagglutins during recovery phase. What types of immunoglobulins are reacting

A

IgM

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4
Q

UA of pt shows WBC casts. What is the dx?

A

pyelonephritis

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5
Q

young child presents w/ tetany and candidiasis. Hypocalcemia and immunosuppression are found. What cell is deficient?

A

T cell (DiGeorge)

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6
Q

pt presente w/ “rose gardener’s” scenerio (thorn prick w/ ulcers olong lymphatic drainage. What is the infectious bug.

A

sporothrix schencki

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7
Q

25 y/o medical student has a burning feeling in his gut after meals. bx of gastric mucosa shows gram negative rods. what is the likely organism?

A

H pylori

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8
Q

32 yo male has “cauliflower” skin lesions. Tissue bx shows broad based budding yeast. What organism is most likely?

A

blastomyces

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9
Q

breast feeding woman suddenly develops redness and swelling of her right breast. On examination it is found to be afluctuant mass. What is the dx?

A

mastitis caused by S. aureus

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10
Q

Young child has recurrent lung infections and granulomatous lesions. What is the defect in neutrophils?

A

NADPH oxidase (chronic granulomatous dz)

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11
Q

20 y/o college student presents w/ lymphadenopathy, fever, and hepatosplenomegaly. His serum agglutinates sheep RBCs. What cell is infected?

A

B cell (EBV; infectious mononucleosis)

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12
Q

One hour after eating custard at a picnic, a whole family began to vomit. After 10 hours, they were better. What is the organism?

A

S. aureus (produces preformed enterotoxin)

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13
Q

infant becomes flaccid after eating honey. What organism is implicated, and what is the mechanism of action.

A

Clostridium botulinum; inhibited release of ACh.

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14
Q

Man presents with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis. He has exposure to what virus?

A

HPV

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15
Q

Pt develops endocarditis three weeks after receiving a prosthetic heart valve. What organism is suspected?

A

S. aureus or S. epidermidis

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16
Q

55 y/o man who is a smoker and heavy drinker presents with a new cough and flulike symptoms. Gram stain shows no organisms; silver stain of sputum shows gram-negative rods. What is the dx?

A

legionella pneumonia

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17
Q

after taking clidamycin, pt develops toxic megacolon and diarrhea. What is the mechanism of diarrhea

A

C. difficile overgrowth

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18
Q

this bacterial structure is composed of a sugar backbone with cross linked peptide side chains. It functions to give the bacterium rigid support, and to protect against osmotic pressure

A

peptidoglycan

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19
Q

This bacterial structure is composed of teichoic acid which induces TNF and IL-1. It functions as a major surface antigen.

A

cell wall/membrane in gram postitives

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20
Q

this bacterial structure is composed of lipid A which induces TNF & IL-1. Polysaccharide is the antigen. It functions as a major surface Ag and a site of endotoxin.

A

outer membrane of gram negative

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21
Q

what is the endotoxin of Gram negative bacteria

A

lipopolysaccaride

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22
Q

this bacterial structure is composed a plasma bilayer. It fxs as a site of oxidative and transport enzymes.

A

Plasma membrane

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23
Q

This bacterial structure is composed RNA and protein in 50S and 30S subunits. It functions as the site of protein synthesis.

A

ribosome

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24
Q

this bacterial structure is composed of many hydrolytic enzymes, including B-lactamases. It is the space between the cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane in gram negative bacteria.

A

Periplasm

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25
this bacterial structure is composed polysaccaride and protects against phagocytosis.
capsule.
26
the capsule of bacillus anthracis is unique in that it contains _________ instead of polysaccharide.
D-glutamate
27
This bacterial structure is composed of glycoprotein. It functions to mediate adherence of bacteria to cell surface.
pilus/fimbrae
28
sex pilus forms attachment between 2 bacteria during _______
conjugation
29
this bacterial structure is composed of protein and fxs in motility
flagellum
30
this bacterial structure is composed of a keratin-like coat and dipicolinic acid. It provides resistance to dehydration, heat, and chemicals.
spore
31
this bacterial structure is composed DNA. It contains a variety of genes for antibiotic resistance, enzymes, and toxins.
plasmid
32
This bacterial structure is composed of polysaccharide. It mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces (e.g., indwelling catheters).
Glycocalyx
33
in the bacterial growth curve this is the part where there is metabolic activity without division
lag
34
in the bacterial growth curve this is the part where there is rapid cell division
log
35
in the bacterial growth curve this is the part where nutrient depletion slows growth
stationary
36
in the bacterial growth curve this is the part where there is prolonged nutrient depletion and buildup of waste products.
death
37
what is the source of exotoxins
some G+ & G- bacteria
38
what is the source of endotoxins
cell wall of most G- bacteria and listeria
39
are exotoxins secreted from the cell
yes
40
are endotoxins secreted from the cell
no
41
exotoxins are made of _______
polypeptides
42
endotoxins are made of _____
lipopolysaccharides
43
genes for exotoxins are located where?
plasmid or bacteriophage
44
genes for endootoxins are located where?
bacterial chromosomes
45
how toxic are exotoxins
high (fatal dose is on the order of 1 ug)
46
What is the toxicity of endotoxins?
low (fatal dose is on the order of hundreds of micrograms)
47
what are the clinical effects of endotoxins?
fever & shock
48
what is cytokines are involved in the mode of action of endotoxins
TNF & IL1
49
high-titer antibodies called antitoxins can be used against these toxins
exotoxins
50
this toxin poorly antigenic
endotoxins
51
these are used as vaccines for exotoxins
toxoids
52
is there a vaccine available for endotoxins
no
53
what is more heat stable, endotoxins or exotoxins
endotoxins
54
what is the only exotoxin that is heat stable
staphylococcal enterotoxin
55
tetanus, botulism, & diphtheria typically cause problems due to ________ (exotoxin or endotoxins)
exotoxins
56
meningococcemia, causes sepsis by G- rods. Toxicity is due to ________ (exotoxin or endotoxins)
endotoxins
57
these binds directly to MHC II and T-cell receptor, activating large numbers of T cells to stimulate release of IL-1 & IL-2
superantigens
58
TSST-1 from this bug causes toxic shock syndrome (fever, rash, shock).
S. Aureus
59
Enterotoxins from this bug cause food poisoning.
S. Aureus
60
Scarlet fever-strain SPE SPE toxin from this bug causes toxic shock-like syndrome.
S. pyogenes
61
this exotoxin interferes with host cell fx. It has a B component and an A component.
ADP ribosylating A-B toxins.
62
tell me about the B component of ADP ribosylating A-B toxins
B (binding) component binds to receptor on surface of host cell, enaboling endocytosis)
63
tell me about the A component of ADP ribosylating A-B toxins
A (active) component attaches an ADP-ribosyl to a host cell protien (ADP ribosylation), altering protein fx.
64
What bugs have ADP ribosylating A-B toxins (4)
Corynebacteria diptheria Vibrio cholerae E. Coli Bordetella Pertussis
65
What bugs have superantigins (2)
S. aureus | S. pyogenes
66
this bug has an ADP ribosylating A-B toxin that inactivatess elongation factor (EF-2) causing a pharyngitis and a "pseudomembrane" in the throat
Corynebacterium diptheriae
67
This bugs ADP ribosylating A-B toxin acts on the G protein to stimulate adenylyl cyclase, increasing pumping of Cl- & H2O in the gut causing voluminous rice-water diarrhea.
Vibrio cholerae
68
This bug has a heat-labile ADP ribosylating A-B toxin, that stimulates adenylyl cyclase (cholera-like mechanism), causing watery diarrhea. Heat stabile toxin stimulates guanylate cyclase.
E. Coli
69
This bug has an ADP ribosylating A-B toxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase, causes whooping cough, inhibits chemokine receptor causing lymphocytosis.
Bordetella pertussis
70
This bug has an alpha toxin that causes gas gangrene. You will see a double zone of hemolysis on blood agar.
Clostridium perfringes.
71
This bug blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine. Causing "lockjaw"
C. Tetani
72
This bug blocks the release of Ach, causing anticholinergic symptoms such as CNS paralysis. Spores can be found in canned food and honey causing floppy baby.
C. botulinum
73
this bug has a toxin in which 1 toxin in the toxin complex is adenylate cyclases.
B. anthracis
74
This bug produces the shiga toxin which cleaves host cell rRNA and also enhances cytokine release causing HUS.
Shigella
75
what other bug produces the Shiga toxin
E. Coli O157:H7
76
This bug produces streptolysin O, a hemolysin and antigen for ASO antibody in rheumatic fever
S. pyogenes
77
this is a lipopolysaccharide found in the cell wall of gram negative bacteria
endotoxin mneu: N-dotoxin is an integral part of gram-Negative cell wall.
78
endotoxins are heat ______ (stable or labile)
stable)
79
these bugs do not gramstain well
Treponema (too thin) Rickettsia (intracellular Mycobacteria (high lipid content of cell wall) Mycoplasma (no cell wall) Legionella pneumophila (primarily intracellular) Chlamydia (intracellular) mneu:These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color
80
how do you I.D. Treponema
darkfeild microscopy and fluorescent Ab staining
81
How do you I.D. Mycobacteria
acid fast stain
82
How do you I.D. Legionella
silver stain
83
pathogenic Neisseria species are differentiated on the basis of sugar ________
fermentation
84
MeninGococci ferment ________ & __________ | Gonococci ferment _______
Maltose & Glucose | Glucose
85
S. aureus produces a ________ pigment
yellow mneu: Aureus (latin)=gold
86
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa produces a ________ pigment
blue green
87
Serratia marcescens produces ____ pigment
red mneu: marcescens = maraschino cherries are red
88
______ proteases allows these organisms to colonize mucosal surfaces: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, N. gonorrheae, H. influenzae.
IgA proteases
89
special media cx requirements for isolation: | H. influenzae
chocolate agar w/ factors V (NAD) & X (hematin)
90
special media cx requirements for isolation: | N. gonorrheaeae
Thayer-Martin (VCN) media
91
special media cx requirements for isolation: | B. pertussis
Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
92
special media cx requirements for isolation: | C. diptheriae
Tellurite plate, Loffler's medium, blood agar
93
special media cx requirements for isolation: | M. Tuberculosis
Lowenstein-Jensen agar
94
special media cx requirements for isolation: | Lactose-fermenting enterics
pink colonies on MacConkey's agar
95
special media cx requirements for isolation: | Legionella
Charcoal yeast exxtract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine
96
special media cx requirements for isolation: | Fungi
Sabouraud's agair
97
Give the appropriate stain-- | Amyloid; apple-green bifringence in polarized light because of Beta pleated sheets
Congo red
98
Give the appropriate stain-- | Borrelia, Plasmodium, trypanosomes, Chlamydia
Giemsa's
99
Give the appropriate stain-- | stains glycogen, mucopolysaccharides, used to diagnose Whipple's dz
PAS (periodic acid-Schiff)
100
Give the appropriate stain--Acid-fast bacteria
Ziehll-Neelsen
101
Give the appropriate stain--Cryyptococcus neoformans
India ink
102
Give the appropriate stain--Fungi, PCP, Legionella
Silver stain
103
DNA transfered from 1 bacterium to another (Conjugation, transduction, or transformation)
conjugation
104
DNA transferred by a virus from 1 cell to another (Conjugation, transduction, or transformation)
Transduction
105
Purified DNA taken up by a cell. (Conjugation, transduction, or transformation)
Transformation
106
Conjugation, transduction, & transformation. The only transfer process done in eukaryotic (e.g., human) cells
transformation
107
Conjugation transfers these 2 types of DNA
chromosomal or plasmid
108
this classification of bacteria use an O2 dependent system to generate ATP
Obligate Aerobes.
109
Examples of obligate aerobes
Nocardia, Pseudomonas Aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, & Bacillus mneu: Nagging Pests Must Breath.
110
This bug is an Aerobe seen in burn wounds, nosocomial pneumonia, and pneumonias in cystic fibrosis patients
P. Aeruginosa mneu: P. AERuginosa is an AERobe
111
__________ HAS A PREDILECTION FOR THE APICES OF THE LUNG, WHICH HAVE THE HIGHEST PO2
M. TUBERCULOSIS
112
Examples of this category of bacterium include Clostridium, Bacteroides, and Actinomyces.
Obligatee anaerobes
113
Obligatee anaerobes lack ________ and/or ________ and thus are susceptible to oxidative damage.
catalase | superoxide dismutase
114
Obligatee anaerobesare generally foul smelling due to _________
short chain fatty acids
115
Obligatee anaerobes are difficult to culture, and produce ______ in tissue
gas (CO2 & H2)
116
anaerobes are normal flora in _____ but are pathogenic elsewhere.
GI tract
117
_________ are ineffective against anaerobes because these antibiotics require O2 to enter into bacterial cell
AminO2glycosides
118
These 2 bugs are obligate intracellular bugs because they can't make own ATP
Rickettsia, Clamydia mneu: Stay inside (cells) when it is Really Cold
119
These 8 bugs are facultative intracellular bugs.
Salmonela, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia mneu: Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY
120
Give 2 examples of encapsulated bacteria
Streptococcus pneumoniae, H. influenzae, N. meningitidis, K. pneumoniae
121
in encapsulated bacteria the _______ capsule is an antiphagocytic virulence factor
polysaccharide
122
this positive test tells you if an encapsulated bug is present--the capsule swells when specific anticapsular antiserra are added
positive quellung reaction mneu: Quellung = capsular "swellung"
123
in encapsulated bacteria ______ is necessary for immune response
IgG2
124
In pneumovax, H. influenzae, & B. meningococcii, this serves as the Ag in vaccines
capsule
125
these are highly resistant to destruction by heat and chemicals. They have no metabolic activity and dipicolinic acid in their core.
spores
126
You must do this in order kill spores (what is done to surgical equipment)
autoclave
127
Only this type of bug forms spores when nutrients are limited
G+ rods
128
gram + soil bugs (aka spore formers) are (3)
B. anthracis, C. perfringes, C. tetani
129
give the 2 alpha hemolytic bacteria
1) streptococcus pneumoniae | 2) Viridans streptococci
130
this alpha hemollytic bacteria is catalase negative and optochin sensitive
streptococcus pneumonia
131
this alpha hemolytic bacteria is catalase negative and optochin resistance
viridans streptococci
132
Give the 4 Beta hemolytic bacteria
1) Staphylococcus Aureus 2) Streptococcus Pyogenes 3) Streptococcus agalactiae 4) Listeria moncytogenes
133
this beta hemolytic bacteria is catalase and coagulase positive
Staphylococcus Aureus
134
this beta hemolytic bacteria is catalase negative and bacitracian sensitive
Streptococcus Pyogenes
135
this beta hemolytic bacteria is catalase negative and bacitracian resistant
Streptococcus agalactiae
136
this beta hemolytic bacteria exists in unpasteurized milk has tumbling motility and causes meningitis in newborns
Listeria moncytogenes
137
This degrades H2O2, an antimicrobial prodct of PMNs. H2O2 is a substrate for myeloperoxidase
Catalase.
138
_____cocci make catalase, whereas streptococci do not
staphylo- mneu: STAPH make catalase because they have more "staph".
139
________ makes coagulase, whereas Staph epidermidis and Staph saphrophyticus do not
Staph Aureus mneu: Bad staph (aureus, because epidermidis is skin flora) makes coagulase and toxins)
140
this virulence factor of S. Aureus binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting compliment fixation and phagocytosis
Protein A
141
S. Aureus causes these 2 things
1) Inflammatory dz- skin infxns, organ abscesses, pneumonia | 2) Toxin-mediated dz- toxic shock syndrome, scalded skin syndrome, rapid onset food poisoning
142
Give the toxin responsible for toxic shock syndrome?
TSST-1
143
Give the toxin responsible for scalded skin syndrome
exfoliative toxin
144
Give the toxin responsible for rapid-onset food poisoning
enterotoxins
145
This is a superantigen that binds to MHC II and T-cell receptor, resulting in polyclonal T-cell activation
TSST
146
S. Aureus food poisoning is due to ingestion of a preformed ________
toxin
147
this causes ACUTE bacterial endocarditis
S. Aureus
148
Streptococcus pyogenes (group A Beta hemolytic streptococci causes three sequelae what are they?
1) Pyogenic-pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo 2) Toxigenic - scarlet fever, toxic shock syndrome 3) Immunologic - rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonepritis mneu: PHaryngitis gives you rheumatic "PHever" and glomerulonepHritis" mneu2: No "RHEUM" for SPECCulation: Subcutaneous nodules, Polyarthritis, Erythema marginatum, Chorea, Carditis.
149
Streptococcus pyogenes is bacitratian _______.
sensitive.
150
Ab to ________ enhances host defences against Streptococcus pyogenes
M protein
151
______ titer detects recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection
ASO
152
Streptococcus pnemonia is the most common cause of (4 )
``` MOPS Meningitis Otitis media Pneumonia Sinusitis ```
153
Streptococcus pnemonia ia optochin ______
sensitive mneu: Streptococcus pnemonia MOPS are Most OPtochin Sensitive
154
Pt presents with rusty sputum, sickle cell anemia sepsis, and splenectomy. He has a bug that is encapsulated & has an IgA protease.
Streptococcus pneumonia
155
these bugs are bacitracin resistant & B hemolytic. They cause pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis, mainly in babies.
Group B streptococci
156
this virulence factor of S. Aureus binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting compliment fixation and phagocytosis
Protein A
157
S. Aureus causes these 2 things
1) Inflammatory dz- skin infxns, organ abscesses, pneumonia | 2) Toxin-mediated dz- toxic shock syndrome, scalded skin syndrome, rapid onset food poisoning
158
Give the toxin responsible for toxic shock syndrome?
TSST-1
159
Give the toxin responsible for scalded skin syndrome
exfoliative toxin
160
Give the toxin responsible for rapid-onset food poisoning
enterotoxins
161
enterococci (2 bugs)
E. faecalis & E. faecium.
162
enterococci are resistant to this AB
penicillin G
163
enterococci cause these 2 dz
UTIs & subacute endocarditis
164
this lancefield group includes enterococci
D
165
Lancefield grouping is based on differences in the ___ carbohydrate on the bacterial cell wall.
C
166
enterococci grow in 6.5% ______
NaCl
167
entero=______ faecalis=_______ strepto=_______ coccus=_______
intestine feces twisted (chains) berry
168
viridans streptococci are _____ hemolytic
alpha.
169
viridans streptococci are normal flora of the oropharynx and cause dental caries (________) and subacute bacterial endocarditis (_________)
streptococcus mutans streptococcus sanguins mneu: sanguis=blood. There is lots of blood in the heart.
170
viridans streptococci are optochin ______ which differentiates them from S. pneumoniae, which is also alpha hemolytic but is optochin _______
resistant sensitive mne: viridians group strep live in the mouth because they are not afraid OF-THE-CHIN (OPTOCHIN RESISTANT)