Cardio USMLE Flashcards

1
Q

pregnant woman in 3rd trimester has normal BP when standing and sitting. When supine BP drops to 90/50.
what is the dx?

A

compression of the IVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

35 y/o man has high BP in arms and lowBP in his legs.

what is the dx

A

coarction of teh aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

5 y/o boy presents weith a systolic murmur and a wide fixed split S2. what is the dx

A

ASD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

During a game a young football player collapses and dies immediately. What is the most likely type of cardiac dz

A

hypoertrophic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

pt has a stroke after incurring multiple long bone fractures in trauma stemming from a MVA. What caused the infarct

A

fat emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

elderly woman presents with a headache and jaw pain. labs show elevated ESR. what is teh dx

A

temporal arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

80 y/o man presents w/ systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur. What is the most likely cause?

A

aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Man starts a medication for hyperlipidemia. He then develops a rash, pruritis, and GI upset. What drug was it

A

Niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pt developes a cough and must discontinue captopril. What is a good replacement drug and why doesn’t it have the same side effects?

A

losartan, an angiotensin II receptor antagonist, does not increase bradykinin as captopril does.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 3 sx inside the carotid sheath

A

1) Internal jugular Vein (lateral)
2) Common carotid Artery (medial)
3) Vagus Nerve (posterior)

mneu: VAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In the majority of cases, the SA and AV nodes are supplied by this carotid artery?

A

Right coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

80% of the time the Right coronary artery is “dominant”, suppplying the left ventricle via the _________ branch

A

Posterior descending artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

cardiac output =

A

SVxHR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During exercise, CO ↑ initially as a result of an ↑ in ____. After prolonged exercise, CO ↑ as a result of an ↑ in ____.

A

SV

HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mean argerial Pressure (MAP)=
give 2 equasions:
1) CO, TPR
2) systolic, diastolic

A

1) CO x TPR

2) 1/3 systolic +2/3 diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CO=

rate of O2 consumption, aa O2 content, vv O2 content

A

rate of O2 consumption
_______________________
aa O2 content-vv O2 content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pulse pressure =

systolic, diastolic

A

systolic-diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

pulse pressure ≈

A

stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

SV=
(2 equasions)
1) CO, HR
2)EDV,ESV

A

1) =CO/HR

2) =EDV-ESV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Coronary Artery Anatomy [pic]

A

1) Right Coronary aa (RCA)
2) Left main coronary aa (LCA)
3) Circumflex artery (CFX)
4) Left anterior descending aa (LAD
5) Posterior descending aa (PD)
6) Acute marginal aa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Stroke volume is affected by what 3 things

mneu: SV CAP

A

Contractility, Afterload, and Preload

mneu: SV CAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

↑Preload →__SV

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

↑Afterload→ __SV

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

↑contractility→ __SV

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
SV ___ in anxiety, exercise, & pregnancy
26
a failing heart has a ___ SV
27
Contractality (and SV), ____ with catecholemines
28
Contractality (and SV), ____ with ↑ intracellular Ca++
29
Contractality (and SV), ____ with ↓ extracellular sodium
30
Contractality (and SV), ____ with digitalis
31
Contractality (and SV), ____ with β1 blockade
32
Contractality (and SV), ____ with heart failure
33
Contractality (and SV), ____ with acidosis
34
Contractality (and SV), ____ with hypoxia/hypercapnea
35
Contractality (and SV), ____ with Ca++ channel blockers
36
Myocardial demand is ___ by ↑ afterload (diastolic BP)
37
Myocardial demand is ___ by ↑ contractility
38
Myocardial demand is ___ by ↑ heart rate
39
Myocardial demand is ___ by ↑ heart size
40
ventricular EDV
Preload
41
Systolic arterial pressure
afterload
42
proportional to peripheral resistance
afterload
43
``` venous dialators (e.g. nitroglycerine) ↓ _______ (preload or afterload) ```
preload
44
``` vaso dialators (e.g. hydralazine) ↓ _______ (preload or afterload) ```
afterload
45
______ ↑ w/ exercise, ↑ blood volume, exitement (sympathetics) (preload or afterload)
Preload
46
Starling Curve: Force of _______ is proportional to initial length of cardiac mm fiber (preload)
contraction
47
contraction state of the myocardium is ____ by circulating catecholamines (+,-)
+
48
contraction state of the myocardium is ____ by digitalis | +,-
+
49
contraction state of the myocardium is ____ by sympathetic stimulation (+,-)
+
50
contraction state of the myocardium is ____ by pharmacologic depressants (+,-)
-
51
contraction state of the myocardium is ____ by loss of myocardium (MI) (+,-)
-
52
EF= (give 2 equasions) 1) SV, EDV 2) EDV, ESV, EDV
1) SV/EDV | 2) EDV-ESV/EDV
53
this is an index of ventricular contractility
EF
54
EF is normally > ___%
55
55
Place condition on the Starling curve [pic p.219]
1) exercise 2) CHF + digitalis 3) CHF
56
(driving Pressure)ΔP= | Q (flow) ,R (resistance)
Q x R
57
Resisitance (R) = Give 2 equasions: 1)ΔP(driving pressure),flow(Q) 2)n(viscosity), length(l), radius (r)
1) =ΔP/Q | 2) 8nxl/Πr(^4)
58
viscosity depends mostly on _______
hematocrit
59
increased ______ in: 1) Polycythemia 2) Hyperproteinemic states (e.g., multiple myeloma) 3) hereditary spherocytosis
viscosity
60
resistance is ________ to viscosity | proportional or inversely proportional
proportional
61
resistance is ________ to the radius to the 4th power | proportional or inversely proportional
inversely proportional
62
cardiac and vascular fx curves [pic p.219]
1) (+) inotropy 2) (-) inotropy 3) (↑) blood volume 4) (↓) blood volume
63
cardiac cycle image [p. 220]
1) isovolumetric contraction 2) aortic valve opens 3) ejection 4) aortic valve closes 5) isovolumetric relaxation 6) mitral valve opens 7) ventricular filling 8) mitral valve closes
64
Name the phase of the cardiac cycle: | period between mitral valve closure and aortic valve opening.
isovolumetric contraction
65
Name the phase of the cardiac cycle: period of highest O2 consumption
isovolumetric contraction
66
Name the phase of the cardiac cycle: period between aortic valve opening and closing
systolic ejection
67
Name the phase of the cardiac cycle: period between aortic valve closing and mitral valve opening
isovolumetric relaxation
68
Name the phase of the cardiac cycle: period just after mitral valve opening
rapid filling
69
Name the phase of the cardiac cycle: period just before mitral valve closure
slow filling
70
name the heart sound: mitral and tricuspid valve closure
S1
71
name the heart sound: aortic and pulmonary valve closure
S2
72
name the heart sound: at the end of rapid ventricular filling
S3
73
name the heart sound: high atrial pressure/stiff ventricle
S4
74
this heart sound is associated w/ dilated CHF
S3
75
this heart sound AKA "atrial kick" is associated with a hypertrophic ventricle
S4
76
Jugular venous pulse waves: | a wave
Atrial contraction
77
Jugular venous pulse waves: c wave
RV Contraction (tricuspid valve bulging into atrium)
78
Jugular venous pulse waves: v wave
increaseed atrial pressure due to filling against closed tricuspid Valve
79
jugular venous distention is seen in ___________
right heart failure
80
when the aortic valve closes before the pulmonic this heart sound abnormality results
S2 splitting
81
S2 splitting is increased upon ________
inspiration
82
Paradoxical splitting (S2 split increasd upon expiration is associated with what?
aortic stenosis
83
cardiac mm contraction is dependent on extracellular ________, which enters the cells during plateau of action potential and stimulates ______ release from the cardiac mm sarcoplasm reticulum.
calcium calcium calcium induced calcium release
84
In contrast to skeletal mm, cardiac mm action potential has a plateau, which is due to ____ influx.
Ca+
85
In contrast to skeletal mm, cardiac nodal cells ________ depolarize, resulting in automaticity
spontaneously
86
In contrast to skeletal mm, cardiac myocytes are electrically coupled to each other by ________
gap junctions
87
myocardial action potential occurs in atrial and ventricular myocytes and ________
perkinje fibers
88
In a myocardial action potential, this phase is the rapid upstroke, when voltage gated Na+ channels open
phase 0
89
In a myocardial action potential, this phase is the initial repolarization-inactivation of voltage0gated Na+ channels. Voltage gated K+ channels begin to open
Phase 1
90
In a myocardial action potential, this phase is the plateu--Ca++ influx through voltage-gated Ca++ channels balances K+ efflux. Ca++ influx triggers another Ca++ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum and myocyte contraction.
phase 2
91
In a myocardial action potential, this phase is the rapid repolarization--massive K+ efflux due to opening of voltage-gated slow K_ channels and closure of voltage gated Ca++ channels.
Phase 3
92
In a myocardial action potential, this phase is the resting potential--high K+ permeability through K+ channels.
phase 4
93
Pacemaker action potentials occur where
SA & AV nodes
94
In a pacemaker action potential this phase is the upstroke phase--it involves opening of voltage-gated Ca++ channels. These cells lack fast voltage-gated Na+ channels. Results in a slow conduction velocity that is used by the AV node to prolong transmission from the atria to ventricles.
phase 0
95
In a pacemaker action potential this phase, the plateau is absent.
phase 2
96
In a pacemaker action potential this phase, the slow diastolic depololarization results in membrane potential spontaneously depolarizing as Na+ conductance increases. This accounts for automaticity of SA and AV nodes. The slope of this phase in the SA node determines the heart rate. ACh decreases and catecholamines increasee the rate of diastolic depolarization decreasing or increasing heart rate respectively.
phase 4
97
electrocardiogram: atrial depolarization
P wave
98
electrocardiogram: conduction delay through AV node (normally <200 msec)
PR segment
99
electrocardiogram: vetricular depolarization (normally < 120 msec)
QRS complex
100
electrocardiogram: mechanical contraction of the ventricles
QT interval
101
electrocardiogram: ventricular repolarization
T wave
102
electrocardiogram: | atrial repolarization is masked by _______
QRS complex
103
electrocardiogram: isoelectric, ventricles depolarized
ST segment
104
electrocardiogram: These waves caused by hypokalemia
U wave
105
this syndrome is caused by an accessory conduction pathway from atria to vetricle (bundle of kent), bypassing AV node. As a result, ventricles begin to partially depolarize earlier, giving rise to characteristic delta wave on ECG. May result in reentry current leading to supraventricular tachycardia [image p.223]
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
106
This ECG tracing has a chaotic and erratic baseline (irregularly irregular) with no discrete P waves in between irregularly spaced QRS complexes (pic. p 224)
Atrial fibrillation
107
This ECG tracing has a rapid succession of identical, back to back atrial depolarization waves. The identical appearance accounts for the "sawtooth" appearance of the flutter waves. (pic. p 224)
Atrial flutter
108
In this condition PR interval is prolonged (>200 msec). Asymptomatic. (pic. p 224)
1st degree AV block.
109
Progressive lenthening of the PR interval until a beat is "dropped" (a P wave not followed by a QRS complex). Usually asymptomatic. (pic. p 224)
2nd degree AV block | Mobitz type I (Wenckebach)
110
On ECG shows dropped beats that are not preceded by a change in the length of the PR interval. These abrupt, nonconducted P waves result in a pathologic condition. It is often found as a 2:1 block, where there are 2 P waves to 1 QRS response. May progress to 3rd degree block.(pic. p 225)
Mobitz type II AV block
111
In this condition, the atria and ventricles beat independently of each other. Both P waves and QRS complexes are present, although the P waves bear no relation to the QRS complexes. The atrial rate is faster than the ventricular rate. Usually treat with pacemaker.
3rd degree AV block (complete)
112
completely erratic rhythm with no identifiable waves. Fatal arrhythmia without immediate CPR and defibrillation. (pic. p 225)
Ventricular Fibrillation
113
________receptor transmits via vagus nn to medulla (responds only to increase blood pressure)
aortic arch receptor
114
________ receptor transmits via glossopharyngeal nn to medulla
carotid sinus
115
decreased firing by aroreceptors during hypotension results in an increase in efferent ________ firing
sympathetic
116
In a carotid massage, the increased pressure on carotid aa results in increased stretch and ____ in heart rate
decrease
117
Peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies respond to (3 things)
decreased PO2 (<60mmHg), increased PCO2 and decreased pH of blood
118
Central chemoreceptors respond to what changes (2)
changes in pH and Pco2 (not Po2)
119
This chemoreceptor is responsible for Cushing reaction, response to cerebral ischemia, response to increase intracranial pressure leads to hypertension (sympathetic response) and bradycardia (parasympathetic response)
Central chemoreceptor
120
This orgen gets the largest share of systemic cardiac output
liver
121
this organ gets the highest blood flow per gram of tissue
kidney
122
this orgen has a large arteriovenous O2 differnece. Increased O2 demand is met by increased coronary blood flow, not by increased extraction of O2.
heart
123
this is a good approximation of L atrial pressure and measured with a Swan-Ganz catheter
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
124
blood flow is altered to meet demands of tissue
autoregulation
125
Name the organ regulated by the local metabolites: | O2 adenosine, NO
heart
126
Name the organ regulated by the local metabolites: | CO2 (pH)
brain
127
Name the organ regulated by the local metabolites: Myogenic and tubuloglomerular feedback
kidneys
128
Name the organ regulated by the local metabolites: hypoxia causes vasoconstriction
lungs
129
_______ vasculature is unique in that hypoxia causes vasoconstriction (in other organs hypoxia causes vasodilation)
pulmonary
130
Name the organ regulated by the local metabolites: lactate, adenosine, K+
skeletal mm
131
Name the organ regulated by the local metabolites: sympathetic stimulation most important mechanism--temp control
skin
132
______ forces determine fluid movement by osmosis throug capillary membranes
starling
133
moves fluid out of capillary
P(c) capillary pressure
134
moves fluid into capillary
P(i) interstitial fluid pressue
135
moves fluid into capillary
π(c) plasma colloid osmotic pressure
136
moves fluid out of capillary
π(i) interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure
137
net filtration pressure=Pnet=
[Pc-Pi)-(πc-πi)] capillary pressure -interstitial pressure - plasma colloid osmotic presure - interstitual fluid colloid osmotic pressures
138
Kf=
filtration constant (capillary permeability)
139
excess fluid outflow into interstitium
edema
140
edema is commonly caued by ___ capillary pressure (give example)
↑ P(c) | Heart failure
141
edema is commonly caued by ___ plasma protiens(give example)
↓π(c) plasma proteins | nephrotic syndrome, liver failure
142
edema is commonly caused by ___ capillary permeability (give example)
↑Kf | infections, burns
143
edema is commonly caued by ___ interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure (give example)
↑ πi lymphatic blockage
144
right-to-left shunts (early cyanoisis) "blue babies"
3 Ts Tetrology Transposition Truncus
145
Children with this type of shunt may squat to increase venous return
right to left shunts
146
Right-to Left shunts (early cyanosis) - "blue babies"
1) Tetrology of fallot 2) Transposition of great vessels 3) Truncus arteriosis The 3 Ts
147
children with this type of shunt may squat to increase venous return.
right to left shunt
148
Left to right shunts (late cyanosis) - "blue kids"
1) VSD 2) ASD 3) PDA
149
this is the most common cause of early cyanosis
tetralogy of fallot
150
this is the most common congenital cardiac anomaly
VSD
151
this congenital heart dz manifests itself with a loud S1 and a wide, fixed split S2
ASD
152
this congenital heart defect is closed with indomethacin
PDA
153
give the frequency of occurance with PDA VSD ASD
VSD>ASD>PDA
154
Uncorrected VSD, ASD or PDA leads to progressive pulmonary hypertension. As pulmonary resistance increases, the shunt reverses from L to R to R to L, which causes late cyanosis (clubbing & polycythemia). [pic p. 228]
eisenmenger's syndrome
155
Tetrology of Fallot [pic. p 228]
1) Pulmonary stenosis 2) RVH 3) Overiding aorta (overides VSD) 4) VSD mneu: PROVe
156
most important determinant for prognosis of tetrology of fallot
pulmonary stenosis
157
ON x-ray TOF looks ________
boot shaped
158
give the frequency of occurance with PDA VSD ASD
VSD>ASD>PDA
159
Aorta leaves RV (anterior) and pulmonary trunk leaves LV (posterior)leading to separation of systemic and pulmonary circulations.
Transposition of great vessels
160
Transposition is not compatable with life unless a _____is present to allow adequate mixing of blood [pic p. 229]
shunt (e.g. VSD, PDA or patent foramen ovale)
161
transposition of great vessels is due to failure of the _________ septum to spiral
aorticopulmonary
162
this type of coarction of aorta is aortic stenosis proximal to insertion of ductus arteriosus (preductal)
infantile INfantile: IN close to the heart
163
this type of coarction of aorta is aortic stenosis is distal to ductus arteriosus (postductal) it is associated with notching of the ribs, hypertension in upper extremities, weak pulses in lower extremities.
adult type aDult: Distal to Ductus
164
Coarction of aorta has a male: female ratio of ____
3:1
165
what is best way to diagnose coartation of aorta
femoral pulses on pysical exam
166
In fetal period, shunt is right to left. In neonatal period, lung resistance decreases and shunt becomes L to R w/ subsequent RVH and failure. [pic p. 229]
patent ductus arteriosis
167
______ is used to closed a PDA
indomethacin
168
______ is used to keep a PDA open, which may be necessary to sustain life in conditions such as transposition of the great vessels
PGE
169
Congenital cardiac defect associations: | 22q11
truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot
170
Congenital cardiac defect associations: | Down syndrome
ASD, VSD
171
Congenital cardiac defect associations: | Congenital rubella
septal defects, PDA
172
Congenital cardiac defect associations: | Turners syndrome
coarctation of aorta
173
Congenital cardiac defect associations: | Marfan's syndrome
aortic insufficiency
174
Congenital cardiac defect associations: Offspring of diabetic mother
transposition of great vessels
175
Hypertension
BP >140/90
176
HTN risk factors
increase age, obesity, diabetes, smoing, genetics, blck>white>asians
177
90% of hypertension is this kind
essential
178
essentail hypertention is related to either one of these two factors
increased CO or TPR
179
10% of HTN is mostly secondary to ______ dz
renal
180
this type of HTN is severe and rapidly progressing
malignant
181
HTN predisposes pts to (give 3)
athrosclerosis, stroke, CHF, renal failure, retinopathy, & aortic dissection
182
Hyperlipidemia signs: | Plaques in blood vessel walls
Atheromata
183
Hyperlipidemia signs: | plaques or nodules composed of lipid-laden histocytes in the skin, especially the eyelids
Xanthoma
184
Hyperlipidemia signs: lipid deposits in the tendon, esp. the achilles
Tendinous xanthoma
185
Hyperlipidemia signs: lipid deposit in cornea, nonspecific (arcus senilis)
corneal arcus
186
This type of arteriosclerosis is in the media of the arteries, esp radial or ulnar. Usually benign.
Monckeberg
187
This type of arteriosclerosis is hyalin thickening of small arteries in essential hypertension. Hyperplastic "onion skinning" in malignant hypertension.
Arteriolosclerosis
188
This type of arteriosclerosis is when fibrous plaques and atheromas form in intima of arteries
atherosclerosis
189
this is a disease of elastic arteries and large and medium sized mm arteries (image 79)
atherosclerosis
190
risk factors for atherosclerosis
smoking, hypertension, dbts, hyperlipidemia, family hx
191
progression of atherosclerosis complex atheromas, fatty streaks, proliferative plaque
fatty streaks to proliferative plaque to complex atheromas
192
complications of atherosclerosis (give 3)
aneurisms, ischemia, infarcts, peripheral vascular dz, thrombus, emboli
193
most common location of atherosclerosis
abdominal aorta> coronary artery>popliteal artery>carotid artery
194
symptoms of atherosclerosis
angina, claudication, but can be asymptomatic
195
CAD narrowing >75%
angina
196
retrosternal chest pain with exertion , mostly secondary to atherosclerosis
stable angina
197
chest pain occurring at rest secondary to corony artery spasm
prinzmetal's variant (unstable angina)
198
worsening of chest paiin due to thrombosis but no necrosis
unstable/crescendo angina
199
most often acute thrombosis due to coronary artery atherosclerosis. Results in myocyte necrosis
myocardial infarction
200
death from cardiac causes within 1 hour of onset of symptoms, most commonly due to a lethal arrythmia
sudden cardiac death
201
progressive onset of CHF over many years due to chronic ischemic myocardial damage
chronic ischemic heart dz
202
infarcts occuring in loose tissues with collaterals, such as lungs, intestine, or follwing reperfusion
red (hemorrhagic) infarcts REd=REperfusion
203
infarcts occur in solid tissues with single blood supply, such as brain, heart, kidney and spleen.
pale infacts
204
give order of highest frequency of coronary artery occlusion CFX, LAD, RCA
LAD>RCA>CFX
205
symptoms of MI (give 4)
diaphoresis, nausea, vomiting, severe retrosternal pain, pain in left arm or jaw, shortness of breath, fatigue, adrenergic symptoms.
206
How long ago did the MI occur? Occluded artery but no visable change by light microscopy
2-4 hours
207
How long ago did the MI occur? Gross: dark mottling; pale with tetrazolium stain. Micro: coagulative nocrosis. coagulation bands visable. release of contents of necrotic cells into bloodstream and the begining of neutrophil emigration.
after 4 hrs. 1st day
208
How long ago did the MI occur? Gross: hyperemic border; central yellow-brown softening. Micro: outer zone (ingrowth of granulation tissue), macrophages, & neutrophils
5-10 D
209
How long ago did the MI occur? Gross: grey-white Micro: scar complete
7 weeks
210
dx of MI what is gold standard in the 1st 6 hrs
ECG
211
This lab test rises after 4 hours and is elevated for 7-10D.
troponin I
212
this lab test is more specific than other protein markers
troponin I
213
This is predominantly found in myocardium but can also be relased from skeletal mm
CK-MB
214
This is nonspecific and can be found in cardiac, liver and skeletal mm cells
AST
215
ECG changes include ST elevation which indicates
transmural infarct
216
ECG changes include ST depression which indicates
subendocardial infarct
217
ECG changes include pathological Q waves
transmural infact
218
This MI complication is the most important cause of death before reaching hosptial; it is common in the 1st few days
cardiac arrhythmia
219
This MI complication results in pulmonary edema
LV failure
220
This MI complication has a high risk of mortanilty and occurs when there is a large infarct
cardiogenic shock
221
Rupture of ventricular free wall, interventricular septum, or paillary mm, usually occurs _____ post MI
4-10D
222
This MI complication of an MI results in decreased CO, a risk of arrythmia, and embolus from mural thrombus
aneurism formation
223
this MI complication is also known as a friction rub and occurs 3-5 D post MI
fibrinous pericarditis
224
This MI complication is an autoimmune phenomenon resulting in fibrinous pericarditis, several weeks post-MI
dresslers syndrome
225
This is the most common cardiomyopathy (90%)
dialated (congestive) cardiomyopathy
226
In dialated (congestive) cardiomyopathy ________ dysfunction ensues
systolic
227
In this type of cardiomyopathy, the heart looks like a baloon on chest x-ray
dialated (congestive) cardiomyopathy
228
etiology of dialated (congestive) cardiomyopathy
``` Alcohol Beriberi Coxsackie B Cocaine Chagas dz Doxorubicin peripartum hemochromatosis ```
229
this type of cardiomyopathy often involves an asymetric enlargement of the intraventricular septum
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
230
In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy ______ disfunction occurs
diastolic
231
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a __________ trait, and 50% are familial
autosomal dominant
232
This is a very common cause of sudden death in young athletes.
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
233
What are the heart sound findings with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
loud S4, apical impulses, systolic murmur
234
How do you tx hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Beta blocker
235
major causes of this type of cardiomyopathy include sarcoidosis, amyloidoss, postratdiation fibrosis, endocarrdial fibroelastosis, and endomyocardial fibrosis (Loffler's)
restrictive/obliterative cardiomyopathy
236
Heart Murmurs: | holostolic, high piched "blowing murmur" loudest at apex[pic. p 234]
mitral regurgitation
237
Heart Murmurs: crecendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur following ejection click. radiates to carotids/apesx. "pulsus parvus et tardus" pulses weak compared to heart sounds [pic. p 234]
aortic stenosis
238
Heart Murmurs: holosystolic murmur [pic. p 234]
VSD
239
Heart Murmurs: Late systolic murmur with midsystolic click. Most frequent valvular lesion [pic. p 234]
mitral prolapse
240
Heart Murmurs: immediate high-pitched "blowing" diastolic murmur. Wide puse pressure [pic. p 234]
aortic regurgitation
241
Heart Murmurs: follows opening snap. delayed rumbling late diastolic murmur. [pic. p 234]
mitral stenosis
242
Heart Murmurs: Continuous machine like murmur. Loudest at time of S2 [pic. p 234]
PDA
243
most common primary cardiac tumor in adults. Usually described as a "ball-valve" obstruction in the LA
myxomas.
244
90% of myxomas occur in the _____
atria (mostly LA)
245
Most frequent primary cardiac tumor in children, associated with tuberous sclerosis
rhabdomyomas
246
Most common heat tumor (see color image 88)
metasteses
247
Given the pathophysiology tell me the symptom of CHF: | failure of LV output to increase during exercise
dyspnea on exertion
248
Given the pathophysiology tell me the symptom of CHF: greater ventricular end-diastolic volume
cardiac dilation
249
Given the pathophysiology tell me the symptom of CHF: Lv ventrical failure leads to increased pulmonary venous pressure which leads to pulmonary venous distention and transudation of fluid.
pulmonary edema (paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea)
250
this CHF abnormality is associated with presence of hemosiderin-laden macrophages
pulmonary edema
251
Given the pathophysiology tell me the symptom of CHF: increase venous return in supine position exacerbates pulmonary vascular congestion
orthopnea (shortness of breath when supine)
252
Given the pathophysiology tell me the symptom of CHF: increased central venous pressure leading to increased resistance to portal flow.
hepatomegaly (nutmeg liver)
253
Given the pathophysiology tell me the symptom of CHF: RV failure leads to increased venous pressure which leads to fluid transudation
ankle , sacral edema
254
embolus types
Fat, Air, Thrombus, Bacteria, Amniotic fluid, Tumor mneu: an embolus moves like a a FAT BAT
255
this type of emboli are associated with long bone fractures and liposuction.
fat
256
approximately 95% of pulmonary emboli arise from where?
deep leg veins
257
this type of emboli can lead to DIC, especially postpartum
amniotic fluid
258
this type of embolus is associated with chest pain, tachypnea, and dyspnea
pulmoary embolus
259
compression of heart by fluid (i.e.,blood) in pericardium, leading to decreased cardiac output and equilibration of pressures in all four chambers.
cardiac tamponade
260
youre pt presents with hypotension, JVD, and distant heart sounds. He shows pulsus paradoxus and ECG shows electrical alternans
cardiac tampanad
261
pulsus paradoxus
(exaggeration of nml variation in the systemic arterial pulse volume with respiration-- becoming weaker with inspiration and stronger with expiration)
262
electrical alternans
(beat to beat alterations in QRS complex height)
263
Symptoms of bacterial endocarditis
``` Fever Roth spots osler nodes Murmur (new) Janeway lesions Anemia Nail-bed hemorrhage Emboli ``` mneu: bacteria FROM JANE
264
osler nodes
tender raised lesions on finger or toe pads
265
Roth's spots
round white spotss on retina surrounded by hemorrhage
266
Janeway lesions
small erythematous lesions on palm or sole
267
What is the most frequently involved valve in bacterial endocarditis
mitral valve
268
What valve is associated with endocarditis associated with IV drug abuse
tricuspid valce
269
what are some of the complications associated with bacterial endocartitis (give 2)
chordae rupture glomerulonephritis supportive pericarditis emboli
270
acute endocarditis has a rapid onset. It results from large vegetations on previously normal valves. It is most often caused by this bug.
S. aureus (high virulence)
271
Subacute bacterial endocarditis has a more insidious onset. It consists of smaller vegetations on congentitally abnormal or diseased valves. It can be a sequela of dental procedures. Often caused by this bug
viridans streptococcus (low virulence)
272
endocarditis may also be nonbacterial and secondary to these 2 conditions
metastasis or renal failure (marantic/ thrombotic endocarditis)
273
In this condition, associated with lupus, vegetations develop on both sides of valve leading to mitral valve stenosis but do not embolize
libman-sacks endocarditis mneu: SLE causes LSE
274
Rhematic heart dz is a late consequence of pharyngeal infection with this organism
a beta hemolytic streptococci
275
rhematic heart dz affects heart valves in this order
mitral>aortic>>tricuspid mneu: high pressure valves associated most.
276
Give the symptoms of rheumatic heart dz
``` Fever Erythema marginatum Valvular damage ESR (high) Red-hot joints (polyartheritis) Subcutaneous nodules St. Vitus' dance (chorea) ``` mneu: FEVERSS
277
This is associated with Aschoff bodies, migratory polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, elevated ASO titers.
Rheumatic heart dz
278
is rheumatic heart dz immune mediated or the direct effect of bacteria
immune mediated
279
Associated ith Aschoff bodies and Anitschkow's cells
rheumatic heart dz mneu: think of 2 RHussians with RHeumatic heart dz (Aschoff & Anischkow)
280
Aschoff bodies
granuloma with giant cell
281
Anitschkow's cells
activated histiocytes
282
This condition presents with pericardial pain, friction rub, ECG changes (diffuse ST elevation in all leads) pulsus paradoxus, distant heart sounds
pericarditis
283
pericarditis can resolve without scarring however, scarring can lead to this
chronic adhesive or chronic constrictive pericarditis
284
this type of pericarditis is caused by SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, infection, or uremia
serous pericarditis
285
this type of pericarditis is caused by uremia, MI, rheumatic fever
fibrinous pericarditis
286
this type of pericarditis is caused by TB or malignancy (e.g., melanoma)
hemorrhagic
287
this dz disrupts the vasa vasora of the aorta with consequent dilation of the aorta and valve ring. It often effects the aortic root and results in calcification of ascending arch of the aorta
syphalitic heart dz (tertiary syphalis)
288
This dz can result in aneurism of the ascending aorta or aortic arch and aortic valve incompetence.
syphalitic heart dz (tertiary syphalis)
289
This Rx used for HTN has the adverse effect of HYPOKALEMIA, slight hyperlipidemia, hyperuricemia, lassitude, hypercalcemia, hyperglycemia
hydrochlorothiazide (diuretic)
290
This Rx used for HTN has the adverse effect of potassium wasting, metabolic alkalosis, hypotension, ototoxicity
loop diuretics
291
This sympathoplegic used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of dry mouth, sedation, severe rebound HTN
clonidine
292
This sympathoplegic used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of sedation, positive Coomb's test
methyldopa
293
This sympathoplegic used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of severe orthostatic hypotension, blurred vision, constipation, sexual disfunction
hexamethonium
294
This sympathoplegic used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of sedation, depression, nasal stuffiness, diarrhea
reserpine
295
This sympathoplegic used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of orthostatic and exercise hypotension, sexual dysfunction, diarrhea
Guanethidie
296
This sympathoplegic used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of 1st dose orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, headache
Prazosin
297
This sympathoplegic used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of impotence, asthma, bradycardia, CHF, AV block, sedation & sleep alterations
B blockers
298
This vasodialator used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of nausea, headache, lupus-like syndrome, reflex tachycardia, angina, salt retension
hydralazine
299
This vasodialator used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of hypertrichosis, pericardial effusion, reflex tachycardia, angina, salt retension
minoxidil
300
This vasodialator used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of dizziness, flushing, constipation, nausea
nifidipine, veripamil (constipation)
301
This vasodialator used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of cyaide toxicity (releases CN)
nitroprusside
302
This ACE inhibitor used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of Hyperkalemia, Cough, Angioedema, Proteinuria, Taste changes, hypOtension, Pregnancy problems (fetal renal damage), Rash, Increased renin, Lower angiotensin II
Captopril mneu:CAPTOPRIL-Cough, Angioedema, Proteinuria, Taste changes, hypOtension, Pregnancy problems (fetal renal damage), Rash, Increased renin, Lower angiotensin II
303
This angiotensin II receptor inhibitor has theadverse effect of fetal renal toxicity, hyperkalemia
Losartan
304
This vasodialator used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of hypertrichosis, pericardial effusion, reflex tachycardia, angina, salt retension
minoxidil
305
This vasodialator used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of dizziness, flushing, constipation, nausea
nifidipine, veripamil (constipation)
306
This vasodialator used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of cyaide toxicity (releases CN)
nitroprusside
307
This ACE inhibitor used in the tx of HTN has the adverse effect of Hyperkalemia, Cough, Angioedema, Proteinuria, Taste changes, hypOtension, Pregnancy problems (fetal renal damage), Rash, Increased renin, Lower angiotensin II
Captopril mneu:CAPTOPRIL-Cough, Angioedema, Proteinuria, Taste changes, hypOtension, Pregnancy problems (fetal renal damage), Rash, Increased renin, Lower angiotensin II
308
The MOA of this drug used for severe HTN & CHF is that it increases cGMP leading to smooth mm relaxation. It vasodilates arterioles > veins resulting in a reduction of afterload
hydralazine
309
Toxicity of this drug for severe HTN & CHF include compensitory tachycardia, fluid retension, & lupus like syndrome
hydralazine
310
The druges Nifedipine, verapamil & diltiazem belong to this category
calcium channel blockers
311
The MOA of these drugs is that they block voltage-dependent L-type calcium channels of cardiac and smooth muscle and thereby reduce mm contractilty
calcium channel blockers
312
give the order of potency of the 3 CCBs (nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem) in 1) the heart 2) vascular smooth mm
heart-verapamil>diltiazem>nifedipine vascular sm mm-- nifedipine>diltiazem>verapamil
313
CCBs are used in hypertension but also in these 2 conditions
angina, arrythymias (not nifedipine)
314
These drugs produce a toxicity of cardiac depression, peripheral edema, flushing, dizziness, & constipation
CCBs
315
These 2 drugs used for angina, pulmonary edema, and as an erection enhancer have a MOA of vasodilating by releasing NO in smooth mm, causing an increase in cGMP and smooth mm relaxation. They dialate vv>>arteries resulting in a decrease in preload
nitroglycerine, isosorbide dinitrate
316
toxicity of these drugs include tachycardia, hypotension, headache, "Monday dz" in industrial exposure, development of tolerance for the vasodilating action during the work week and loss of tolerance over the weekend, resulting intahycardia, dizziness, and headache.
nitroglycerin, isosorbide dinitrate
317
What are the 2 major Rxs used in the tx of antianginal therapy
nitrates & B blockers
318
In antianginal therapy the goal is to do what?
reduce myocardial O2 consumption.
319
In order to reduce myocardial O2 consumption you need to decrease 1 or more of the determinants of MVO2 which are give 2(5)
1) EDV 2) BP 3) HR 4) contractility 5) ejection time
320
Used for antianginal therapy Nitrates reduce _______ (preload or afterload)
preload
321
Used for antianginal therapy B-blockers reduce _______ (preload or afterload)
afterload
322
For each of the determinants of myocardial O2 consumption (MVO2). 1) Give the effect that Nitrates have. 2) that B-blockers have.3) And that Nitrates + B-blockrs have. EDV
N (preload):↓ BB (afternoad):↑ C: no effect or ↓
323
For each of the determinants of myocardial O2 consumption (MVO2). 1) Give the effect that Nitrates have. 2) that B-blockers have.3) And that Nitrates + B-blockrs have. BP
N (preload):↓ BB (afternoad):↓ C:↓
324
For each of the determinants of myocardial O2 consumption (MVO2). 1) Give the effect that Nitrates have. 2) that B-blockers have.3) And that Nitrates + B-blockrs have. Contractility
N (preload):↑ (reflex response) BB (afternoad):↓ C:little or no effect
325
For each of the determinants of myocardial O2 consumption (MVO2). 1) Give the effect that Nitrates have. 2) that B-blockers have.3) And that Nitrates + B-blockrs have. HR
N (preload):↑ reflex response BB (afternoad):↓ C:↓
326
For each of the determinants of myocardial O2 consumption (MVO2). 1) Give the effect that Nitrates have. 2) that B-blockers have.3) And that Nitrates + B-blockrs have. Ejection time
N (preload):↓ BB (afternoad):↑ C:little or no effect
327
For each of the determinants of myocardial O2 consumption (MVO2). 1) Give the effect that Nitrates have. 2) that B-blockers have.3) And that Nitrates + B-blockrs have. MVO2
N (preload): ↓ BB (afternoad): ↓ C: ↓↓
328
CCBs: Nifedipine is similar to ________ (nitrates or B blockers); Verapamil is similar to ________nitrates or B blockers)
Nitrates | B blockers
329
Cardiac drugs: sites of action
1) Digitalis (-) 2) CCB (-) 3) B blockers 4) Ryanodine (+) 5) Ca++ sensitizers
330
This cardiac drug inhibits Na+/K+ ATP ase
digitalis
331
These 2 cardiac drugs inhibit on voltage gated Ca++ channels
CCBs | B blockers
332
This cardiac drug sensitizes Ca++ release channel in the SR
Ryanodine
333
These cardiac drug is a site of Ca+ interaction with troponin-tropomyosin system
Ca++ sensitizers
334
This cardiac glycoside has 75% bioavalibility, is 20-40% protein bound, has a half life of 40 hours and is excreted in the urine
digoxin
335
the MOA of this drug is that it inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase of the cardiac sarcomere, causing an increase in intracellular Na+. Na+-Ca++antiport does not function as efficiently, casing an increase in intracellular Ca++, leading to positive inotropy.
digoxin
336
this drug may cause an elevated PR, a depressed QT, a scooping of ST segment, and a T-wave inversion on ECG
digoxin
337
The clinical uses for this drug include 1) ________ due to increased contractility 2) _______ due to decreased conduction at AV node
1) CHF | 3) atrial fibrillation
338
toxicity of this drug includes N/V/D. Blurry yellow vision. Arrhythmia.
digoxin
339
Digoxins toxicities are increased by _________(decreased excretion), _______(potentiates drug's effects) , and _________ (decreases digoxin clearance and displaces dignoxin from tissue binding sites
renal failure hypokalemia quinidine
340
What is the treatment for digoxin toxicity
slowly normalize K+ lidocaine cardiac pacer anti-dig Fab fragments
341
antiarrythmics (Class I) are _____ channel blockers
Na+
342
antiarrythmics (Class II) are _____ blockers
Beta
343
antiarrythmics (Class III) are _____ channel blockers
K+
344
Thhs class of antiarrhthmics are local anesthetics. They act by slow or decreasd conduction. They decrese the slope of phase 4 ddepolarization and increase threshhold for firing in abnormal pacemaker cells.
antiarrhythmics-Na+ channel blockers (class I)
345
antiarrhythmics-Na+ channel blockers (class I) are state dependent meaning what
they selectively depress tissue that is frequently depolarized (e.g., tachycardia
346
this class of antiarrhythmics has 3 subcategories A, B, & C
antiarrhythmics-Na+channel blockers (class I)
347
this class of antiarrythmics includes Quinidine, Amiodarone, Procainamide, Disopyramide.
Class IA mneu: Queen Amy Proclaims Diso's PYRAMID
348
This class of antiarrhytmics has an ↑ AP duration, ↑ effective refractory period (EERP, ↑ QT interval. It can affect both atrial and ventricular arrhythmias
IA
349
This member of class IA antiarrhytmics has toxicities that include (cinchonism-headache, tinnitis, thrombocytopenia, torsades de pointes due to prolonged QT interva)
quinidine
350
This member of class IA antiarrhytmics has toxicities that include reverible SLE-like syndrome
procainamide
351
This class of antiarrythmics include lidocaine mexiletine, tocainide
IB (Na+ channel blockers)
352
this class of antiarrythmics acts to decrease AP duration. It effects ischemic or depolarized purkinje and ventricular tussue. It is useful in acute ventricular arrhytmias (especially post-MI) and i digitalis-induced arrhythmias.
IB (Na+ channel blockers)
353
This class of antiarrhytmics has toxicities that include local anesthetic effects, CNS stimulation/depression, cardiovascular depression
IB (Na+ channel blockers)
354
This class of antiarrhythmics includes flecainide, encainide, propafenone.
class IC (Na+ channel blockers.
355
This class of antiarrhythmics has no effect on AP duration. It is useful in V-tachs that progress to VF and intractable SVT. Usually used only as last result in refractory tachyarrythmias.
class IC (Na+ channel blockers.
356
Toxicities of this class of antiarrhythmics includes arrythmias, especially post MI (CONTRAINDICATED)
class IC (Na+ channel blockers.
357
This clas of antiarrythmics includes propanolol, esmolol, metroprolol, atenolol, timool.
Beta Blockers (Class II)
358
This class of antiarrythmics acts by ↓ cAMP, ↓ Ca+ currents, and by supressing abnormal pacemakers by ↓ slope of phase 4. The AV node is particularly sensitive resulting in increaed PR interval
B-blockers (Class II antiarrythmics)
359
this is the shortest acting B blocker
esmolol
360
Toxicities of this class of antiarrythmics include impotence, exacerbation of asthma, CV effects (bradycardia, AV block, CHF), CNS effects (sedation, sleep alterations). It may mask signs of hypoglycemia.
B-blockers (Class II antiarrythmics)
361
This class of antiarrythmics includes Sotalol, ibutilide, bretylium, & amiodarone
K+ channel blockers (class III)
362
This class of antiarrythmics acts by ↑ AP duration, ↑ERP. It thends to ↑ QT interval. It is used when other antiarrhythmics fail.
K+ channel blockers (class III)
363
This class III antiarrythmic has toxicities which include torsades de pointes and excessive beta block
sotalol
364
This class III antiarrythmic has toxicities which include new arrhytmias& hypotension
bretylium
365
This class III antiarrythmic has toxicities which include PULMONARY FIBROSIS, HEPATOTOXICITY, HYPOTHYROIDSIM/HYPERTHYROIDISM, corneal deposits, skin depsits resulting in photodermatiitis, neurologic effects, constipation, CV effects (bradycardia, heart block, CHF
amiodarone mneu: remember to check PFTs, LFTs, and TFTs when using amiodarone.
366
This class of antiarrythmics include the drugs verapamil, and diltiazem.
Ca++ channel blockers (class IV)
367
The MOA of this class of antiarrythmics is primarily on AV nodal cells. They ↓ conduction velocity, ↑ ERP, ↑ PR interval.
Ca++ channel blockers (class IV)
368
this class of antiarrythmics is used in prevention of nodal arrhythmias (e.g., SVT)
Ca++ channel blockers (class IV)
369
Toxicity of this class of antiarrythmics can include constipation, flushing, edema, CV effects (CHF, AV block, sinus node depression, & torsades de pointes.
Ca++ channel blockers (class IV)
370
Other antiarrythmics: this antiarrhythmic is the drug of choice in diagnosing/abolishing AV nodal arrhythmias
adenosine
371
Other antiarrythmics: this antiarrhythmic depresses ectopic pacemakers, especially in digoxin doxicity
K+
372
Other antiarrythmics: this antiarrhythmic is effective in torsades de pointes and digoxin toxiciity
Mg+