Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 Complete > Heme Onc USMLE > Flashcards

Heme Onc USMLE Flashcards

1
Q

child has been anemic since birth. splenectomy would result in increasesd hematocrit in what dz?

A

spherocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pt presents w/ fatigue, and blood tests show a macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia. what is the danger of givign folate alone

A

masks signs of neural damage with vit B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

pt presents w/ anemia hypercalcemia, and bone pain on palpation; bone marrow biopsy shows a slide backed with cells that have a large, round, off center nucleus. What is the dx and what may be found on urinalysis

A

myltiple myeloma (plasma cell neoplasm); Bence Jones protein (Ig light chains)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

AIDS pt has just been diagnosed with CA. What dneoplasms are associated w/AIDS?

A

B cell lympnoma, kaposi’s sarcoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pt w/ new CA dx and known hx of CHF is being evaluated for chemotherapy. What chemotherapeutic agent shoudl be avoided in this pt?

A

Doxorubicin (cardiotoxic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

chromosome analysis reveals the presence of the philadelphia chromosome, t(9;22). What is the latest targeted therapy for this dz and how does it work

A

Imatinib (Gleevec) is used to treate CML; a monoclonal Ab against the bcr-able tyrosine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

these cells are anucleate, bioconcabe giving them a large surface area: volume ratio for easy gas exchange.

A

erythrocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

eryth=_____; cyte=_____

A

red

cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how do erythrocytes get their energy

A 
mostly glucose (90%)
10% via HMP shunt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

erythrocytes anarobically degrade glucose to _____

A

lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the survival time of erythrocytes

A

120 D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

membrane of erythrocytes contain ______-_______ antiport which is important in the “physiologic chloride shifft,” which allows the RBC to transport CO2 from the periphery to the lungs for elimination

A

cloride-bicarbinate antiport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

erythrocytosis/polycythemia (def)

A

increased number of red cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

anisocytosis

A

RBCs of varying sizes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

poikilocytosis

A

RBCs of varyng shapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

reticulocyte

A

immature erythrocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

these blood cells are responsible for defence against infections.

A

leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

give me leukocyte types (5)

A

granulocytes (basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils) and mononuclear cells (lymphocytes, monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Normally leukocyte count

A

4000-10,000 per microliter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

these blood cells mediate allergic reactions

A

basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

basophils consist of ____ of all leukocytes

A

<1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

basophils have a _______ nucleus

A

bilobate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

basophils have many granules that stain in this way ______

A

basophilic-stain redily wiht basic stains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

give three contents of basophilic granules in basophils

A

heparin, histamine, leukotrienes (LTD-4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

these blood cells mediate type I hypersensitivity reactions.

A

mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This drug prevents mast cell degranulation and is used to treat asthma

A

cromolyn sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Degranulation of mast cells involves release of these factors

A

histamine, heparin, eosonophil chemotactic factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

mast cells can bind to this Ab

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Mast cells are very similar yet distinct from this cell type

A

basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Mast cells are found here

A

tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

these cells defent against helminthic & protozoan infections and are hightly phagocytic for Ag-Ab complexes

A

eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

eosinophils normally make up this percent of all leukocytes

A

1-6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

regarding appearance, eosinophils have a ____ nucleus & and are packed with large eosinophils granuls of uniform size

A

bilobate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

eosinophils produce these 2 substances

A

histaminase and arylsulfatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

eosin=____

philic=_____

A

dye

loving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

causes of eosinophilia

A 
NAACP
neoplastic
asthma
allergic processes
collagen vascular dz
parasites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

this blood cell is an acute inflammatory response cell

A

neutorphils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

neutrophils make up _______ of WBCs

A

40-75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

neutrophils have a ______ nucleus

A

multilobed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

hypersegmented polys are seen in __________

A

vit B12/folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

neutrophils have large, spherical, azurophilic primary granules that contain hydrolytic enzymes, lysosyme, myeloperoxidase, and lactoferrin–they are called this

A

lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

these blood cells are large with a kidney-shaped nucleus. They have extensive “frosted glass” cytoplasm.

A

monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

mono=___

cyte=____

A

one

cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

moncytes cells differentiate into _____in tissues

A

macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

these blood cells are small and round with a densely staining nucleus & a small amount of pale cytoplasm

A

lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

___ lymphocytes produce Ab

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

___ lymphocytes manifest the cellular immune response as well as regulhumoralate B lymphocytes and macrophages

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

B lymphocytes are part of the _______ immune response

A

humoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

B cells arise from stem cells in the _______ where they also mature

A

bone marrow

mneu: B=bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

After maturation B cells migrate to ______ (follicles of lymph nodes, white pulp of spleen, unencapsulated lymphoid tissue).

A

peripheral lymphoid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When Ag is encountered, B cells differentiate into _____ and produce Ab.

A

plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Plasma cells recognize Ab because they have _______

A

memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

B lymphocytes can fx as antigen-presenting cell (APC) via _______

A

MHC II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

these blood cells have an off-center nucleus, with clock face chromatin distribution, abundant RER and well developed Golgi apparatus

A

plasma cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

_________ is a plasma cell neoplasm

A

multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

B cells differentiate into _______, which can produce large amounts of Ab specific to partifcular Ag

A

plasma cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

B lymphocytes have these cell markers

A

CD 19, CD20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

this blood cells mediates cellular immune responses.

A

T lymphocyts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

T cells originate from stem cells in the ________, but matures in the ________.

A

bone marrow
thymus

mneu: T is for Thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

T cells differentiate into these three types of T cells

A

Cytotoxic T cells
Helper T cells
suppressor T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

cytotoxic T cells have MHC ___ & CD____.

A

I,8

mneu: MHC x CD=8 (e.g., MHC 2 x CD4=8, & MHC 1 x CD8=8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

helper T cells have MHC ___ & CD____.

A

II, 4

mneu: MHC x CD=8 (e.g., MHC 2 x CD4=8, & MHC 1 x CD8=8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

CD stands for ______

A

cluster of differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

This cell has a long life in tissues. It Phagocytizes bacteria, cell debris, and senescent red cells & scavenges damaged cell and tissues.

A

macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Macrophages differentiate from circulating blood _______

A

monocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

macrophages are activated by __________.

A

gamma-interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

macrophages can fx as APC via _______.

A

MHC II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

macro=______

phage=_______

A

large

eater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

these cells are professional APCs. They are the main inducers of primary Ab response.

A

dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Dendritic cells express these two things on their cell serfaces

A

MHC II & Fc receptors (FcR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

dendritic cells are called ________ cells on skin

A

Langerhan cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

plasma - clotting factors =(e.g., fibrinogen)

A

serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

these cells are professional APCs. They are the main inducers of primary Ab response.

A

dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Dendritic cells express these two things on their cell serfaces

A

MHC II & Fc receptors (FcR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

dendritic cells are called ________ cells on skin

A

Langerhan cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

plasma - clotting factors =(e.g., fibrinogen)

A

serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

name 3 coagulation factor inhibitors involved in fibrinolysis

A

protein C & S
Antithrombin III
tPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Protein C & protein S inactivate these two steps in the coagulation cascade

A

Va & VIIIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Protein C & protein S are dependant on this vitamen

A

K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

antithrombin III inactivates these four steps in the coagulation pathway

A

thrombin, IXa, Xa, & XIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

antithrombin III is activated by this anticoagulant

A

heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

tPA generates _______, which cleaves fibrin

A

plasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

neoplasmic progression

A

normal cells->hyperplasia-> carcinoma in situ/preinvasive -> invasive carcinoma ->metastatic focus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

hyperplasia is

A

increased cell number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

this type of “plasia” shows an abnormal proliferation of cells w/ loss of size, shape and orientation

A

dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

in carcinoma in situ neoplasmic cells have NOT invaded _________

A

basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

carcinoma in situ neoplasmic cells have a _____ nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio and clumped cromatin

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

in invasive carcinoma cells have invaded the basement membrane using _______ & _______

A

collagenases and hydrolases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

invasive carcinoma can metastasize if they reach _______ or ________ vessel

A

blood or lymphatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

metastasis is

A

spread to distant organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

in order for neoplasmic cells to metastasize they must survive the host _______

A

immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

in the “seed and soil” theory of metastasis what is the seed and what is the soil.

A

seed=tumor embolus

soil=target organ-liver, lungs, bone, brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

this type of “plasia” is an increase in number of cells

A

hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

is hyperplasia reversible

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

in this type of “plasia” 1 adult cell type is replaced by another

A

metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

is metaplasia reversable

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

metaplasia is often secondary to _______- as is the case w/ squamous metaplasia in trachea and bronchi of smokers

A

irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

dysplasia

A

is abnormal growth with loss of cellular orietnation, shape, and size in comparison to normal tissue maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

wat is concerning about dysplasia

A

it is often preneoplasmic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

is dysplasia reversible

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

In this type of “plasia” there are abnormal cells lacking differation.

A

anaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

in this type of cell “plasia” you see primitive cells of the same tissue, often equated with undifferentiated malignant neoplasms. You may see tumor giant cells.

A

anaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

this type of plasia describes a clonal proliferation of cells that is uncontrolled and excessive

A

neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

the grade of a tumor referrs to the degree of __________ based on histologic appearance of tumor.

A

cellular differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

tumors are usually graded on a scale of ____ to _____

A

1-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

grade is often determined by the number of ______ per high power field

A

mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

_______ gives information about the character of the tumor itself versus _______ which tells us about the spread of the tumor in a specific pts

A

grade
stage

mneu: Stage=Spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

The ______ of a tumor tells us about the degree of localization/spread of a tumor based on the site and size of the primary lesion, spread to regional lymph nodes, presence of metastases

A

Stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

In the TNM staging system:
T=
N=
M=

A

T=size of tumor
N=Node involvement
M=Metasteses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Given the tumor name tell what the cell type is and whether it is benigh or malignant.
adenoma, papilloma

A

epithelium

benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Given the tumor name tell what the cell type is and whether it is benign or malignant.
andinocarcinoma or papillary carcinoma

A

epithelium

malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Given the tumor name tell what the cell type is and whether it is benign or malignant.
leukemia, lymphoma

A

malignant tumor of the blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Given the tumor name tell what the cell type is and whether it is benign or malignant.
hemangioma

A

benign tumor of the blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Given the tumor name tell what the cell type is and whether it is benign or malignant.
leiomyoma

A

benign tumor of the smooth mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Given the tumor name tell what the cell type is and whether it is benign or malignant.
leiomyosarcoma

A

malignant tumor of smooth mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Given the tumor name tell what the cell type is and whether it is benign or malignant.
rhabdomyoma

A

benign tumor of the skeletal mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Given the tumor name tell what the cell type is and whether it is benign or malignant.
rhabdomyosarcoma

A

malignant tumor of the skeletal mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Given the tumor name tell what the cell type is and whether it is benign or malignant.
osteosarcoma

A

malignant tumor of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Given the tumor name tell what the cell type is and whether it is benign or malignant.
osteoma

A

benign tumor of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Given the tumor name tell what the cell type is and whether it is benign or malignant.
lipoma

A

benign tumor of the fat cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Given the tumor name tell what the cell type is and whether it is benign or malignant.
liposarcoma

A

malignant tumor of the fat cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

a maature teratoma is a _______ (benign/malignant) tumor of > 1 cell type

A

benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

a immature teratoma is a _______ (benign/malignant) tumor of > 1 cell type

A

malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

the term carcinoma implies an _________ origin, whereas sarcoma denotes a ________ origin. both terms imply malignancy

A

epithelial

mesenchymal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

give the neoplasm associated with the dz.

down syndrom

A

ALL, AML

mneu: we ALL fall DOWN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

give the neoplasm associated with the dz.

xeroderma pigmentosum, albinism

A

melanoma and basal, squamous cell carcinoma of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

give the neoplasm associated with the dz.

chronic atrophic gastritis

A

gastric adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

give the neoplasm associated with the dz.

pernicious anemia

A

gastric adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

give the neoplasm associated with the dz.

postsurgical gastric remnance

A

gastric adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q 
give the neoplasm associated with the dz.
tuberous sclerosis (facial angiofibroma, seizures, mental retardation)
A

astrocytoma and cardiac rhabdomyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

give the neoplasm associated with the dz.

actinic keratosis

A

squamous cell carcinoma of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

give the neoplasm associated with the dz.

barret’s esophagus (chronic GI reflux)

A

esophageal adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

give the neoplasm associated with the dz.

Plummer-Vinson syndrome (atrophic glossitis, esophageal webs, anemia; all due to iron deficiency

A

squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

give the neoplasm associated with the dz.

cirrhosis (alcoholic, hep B or C)

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

give the neoplasm associated with the dz.

ulcerative colitis

A

colonic adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

give the neoplasm associated with the dz.

paget’s dz of the bone

A

secondary osteosarcoma and fibrosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

give the neoplasm associated with the dz.

immondeficiency states

A

malignant lymphomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

give the neoplasm associated with the dz.

AIDS

A

aggressive malignant lymphomas (non-Hodgkin’s) and Kaposi’s sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q 
give the neoplasm associated with the dz.
Autoimmiune dz (e.g., Hashimoto's thyroiditis, myasthenia gravis)
A

benign and malignant thymomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q 
give the neoplasm associated with the dz.
Acanthosis nigricans (hyperpigmentation and epidermal thickening
A

visceral malignancy (stomach, lung, breast, uterus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

give the neoplasm associated with the dz.

dysplastic nevus

A

malignant melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

when oncogenes become functional, this results

A

Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

give the associated tumor for the oncogene:

abl

A

CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

give the associated tumor for the oncogene:

c-myc

A

burkitt’s lymphmoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

give the associated tumor for the oncogene:

bcl-2

A

follicular and undifferentiated lympomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

this oncogene inhibits apoptosis

A

bcl-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

give the associated tumor for the oncogene:

erb-B2

A

breast ovarian, and gastric carcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

give the associated tumor for the oncogene:

ras

A

colon carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

give the associated tumor for the oncogene:

L-myc

A

Lung tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

give the associated tumor for the oncogene:

N-myc

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

give the associated tumor for the oncogene:

ret

A

multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) types II & III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

in this type of gene, loss of function of BOTH allels results in the expression of cancer

A

tumor suppressor gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

given the tumor suppressor gene and chromosome give the associated tumor:
Rb gene on Chromosome 13q

A

retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

given the tumor suppressor gene and chromosome give the associated tumor:
BRCA1 & 2 on chromosome 17q & 13q

A

breast and ovarian CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

given the tumor suppressor gene and chromosome give the associated tumor:
p53 on chromosome 17p

A

most human CA, Li-Fraumeni syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

given the tumor suppressor gene and chromosome give the associated tumor:
p16 on 9p

A

Melanoma

157
Q

given the tumor suppressor gene and chromosome give the associated tumor:
p16 on chromosome 9p

A

melanoma

158
Q

given the tumor suppressor gene and chromosome give the associated tumor:
APC on chromosome 5q

A

colorectal CA

159
Q

given the tumor suppressor gene and chromosome give the associated tumor:
WT1 on chromosome 11q

A

Wilms’ tumor

160
Q

given the tumor suppressor gene and chromosome give the associated tumor:
NF1 on chromosome 17q

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1

161
Q

given the tumor suppressor gene and chromosome give the associated tumor:
NF2 on chromosome 22q

A

Neurofibromatosis type 2

162
Q

given the tumor suppressor gene and chromosome give the associated tumor:
DPC on chromosome 18q

A

Pancreatic CA

163
Q

given the tumor suppressor gene and chromosome give the associated tumor:
DCC on chromosome 18q

A

colon CA

164
Q

tumor markers should be used as the primary tool for CA dz. T or F

A

F

165
Q

Tumor markers can be used to confirm a diagnosis. T or F

A

T

166
Q

Tumor markers can be used to monitor tumor for recurrencce. T or F

A

T

167
Q

Tumor markers can be used to monitor response to therapy. T or F

A

T

168
Q

this tumor marker is used for screening for prostate carcinoma

A

Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA)

169
Q

this tumor marker is is very nonspecific but is produced by ~ 70% of colorectal and pancreatic CA. It is also produced by gastric and breast carcinomas

A

Carcinoembrionic Ag (CEA)

170
Q

this tumor marker is normally made in the fetus it is seen in hepatocellular carcinomas and germ cell tumors of the testis (e.g., yolk sac tumor)

A

alpha-fetoprotien.

171
Q

this tumor marker is seen in Hydatidiform moles, choriocarcinomas, and Gestational trophoblastic tumors

A

B-HCG

172
Q

this tumor marker is seen in ovarian and malignant epithelial tumors

A

CA-125

173
Q

this tumor marker is seen in melanoma, neural tumors, astrocytomas

A

S-100

174
Q

this tumor marker is seen in bone metasteses, obstructive biliary dz, and Paget’s dz of the bone

A

Alk phosphatase

175
Q

this tumor marker is seen in neuroblastoma, lung and gastric CA

A

Bombesin

176
Q

this tumor marker is seen in harry cell leukemia (B-cell neoplasm

A

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)

177
Q

these are laminated, concentric, calcific spherules seen in several CAs.

A

psamoma bodies

178
Q

what 4 CA are psammoma bodies seen in

A

1) Papillary adenocarcinoma of thyroid
2) Serious papillary cystadenocarcinoma of ovary
3) Meningioma
4) Malignant mesothelioma

mneu: PSaMMoma
Papillary (thyroid)
Serous (ovary)
Meningioma
Mesothelioma
179
Q

Given the oncogenic virus, give the associated Cancer:

HTLV-1

A

adult T-cell leukemia

180
Q

Given the oncogenic virus, give the associated Cancer:

HBV, HCV

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

181
Q

Given the oncogenic virus, give the associated Cancer:

EBV

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma

182
Q

Given the oncogenic virus, give the associated Cancer:

HPV

A

Cervical carcinoma (16,18), penile/anal carcinoma

183
Q

Given the oncogenic virus, give the associated Cancer:

HHV-8

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma, body cavity fluid B cell lymphoma

184
Q

given the chemical carcinogen, tell me the organ it acts on:

aflatoxins

A

liver (HCC)

185
Q

given the chemical carcinogen, tell me the organ it acts on:

vinyl chloride

A

liver (angiosarcoma)

186
Q

given the chemical carcinogen, tell me the organ it acts on:

CCl4

A

liver (centrilobular necrosis, fatty change)

187
Q

given the chemical carcinogen, tell me the organ it acts on:

nitrosamines

A

esophagus, stomach

188
Q

given the chemical carcinogen, tell me the organ it acts on:

cigarette smoke

A

larynx, lung

189
Q

given the chemical carcinogen, tell me the organ it acts on:

Asbestos

A

Lung (mesothelioma & bronchogenic carcinoma)

190
Q

given the chemical carcinogen, tell me the organ it acts on:

arsenic

A

skin (squamous cell carcinoma)

191
Q

given the chemical carcinogen, tell me the organ it acts on:

Naphthalene (aniline) dies

A

Bladder (transitional cell carcinoma

192
Q

given the chemical carcinogen, tell me the organ it acts on:

Alkylating agents

A

Blood (lleukemia

193
Q

given the paraneoplastic effect, give the neoplasm: Cushing’s syndrome due to ACTH

A

Small cell lung carcinoma

194
Q

given the chemical carcinogen, tell me the organ it acts on:

SIADH

A

small cell lung carcinoma and intracranial neoplasms

195
Q

given the chemical carcinogen, tell me the organ it acts on:

Hypercalcemia due to PTH, TGF alpha and beta, IL-1

A

squamous cell lung, renal cell, breast, multiple myeloma, bone mets

196
Q

given the chemical carcinogen, tell me the organ it acts on: Polycytthemia due to increased erythropoietin

A

renal cell carcinoma or hemangioblastoma

197
Q

given the chemical carcinogen, tell me the organ it acts on: Lambert-Eaton syndrome (mm weakness) due to Ab against presynaptic Ca++ channels at neuromuscular jx

A

thymoma, small cell lung Ca

198
Q

given the chemical carcinogen, tell me the organ it acts on:

Gout, urate nephropathy due to hyperuicemia due to excess nucleic acid turnover (i.e., cytotoxic tx)

A

leukemia & lymphoma

199
Q

what percentage of brain tumors are from metastesis

A

50%

200
Q

what primaries commonly metastasize to brain (5)

A

Lung, Breast, Skin (melanoma), Kidney (renal cell carcinoma), GI

mneu: Lots of Bad Stuff Kills Glia

201
Q

what are the most common sites of metastasis after regional lymph nodes

A

liver & lung

202
Q

give the tumors that commonly metastasize to the liver in order of frequency

A

Colon>Stomach>Pancreas>Breast>Lung

mneu: Cancer Sometimes Penetrates Benight Liver

203
Q

what is more common liver mets or liver primary

A

mets» primary liver tumors

204
Q

what are the primary tumors that metastasize to the bone

A

Prostate, thyroid, testes, breast lung, kidney

P.T. Barnum Loves Kids

205
Q

What are the two most common tumors that metastasize to bone

A

breast & prostate

206
Q

what is more common bone primaries or bone mets

A

BONE METS

207
Q

incidence of prostate CA in males

A

32%

208
Q

incidence of breast CA in females

A

32%

209
Q

incidence of lung CA in males

A

16%

210
Q

incidence of lung CA in females

A

13%

211
Q

incidence of colon and rectal CA in males

A

12%

212
Q

incidence of colon and rectal CA in females

A

13%

213
Q

CA is the ___ leading cause of death in the US

A

2nd. Heart dz is 1st

214
Q

mortality of lung CA in males

A

33%

215
Q

mortality of lung CA in females

A

23%

216
Q

mortality of Prostate CA in males

A

13%

217
Q

mortality of Breast CA in females

A

18%

218
Q

are lung CA deaths still rising in US despite nat’l efforts to prevent smoking

A

they’ve plateaud in males

still rising in females

219
Q

normal shape of RBC

A

bioconcave

220
Q

given the RBC form give the condition:

spherocytes

A

hereditary spherocytosis or autoimmune hemolysis

221
Q

given the RBC form give the condition:

elliptocyte

A

hereditary eliptocytosis

222
Q

given the RBC form give the condition:

macro-ovalocytes

A

megaloblastic anemia

marrow failure

223
Q

in a blood smear of a pt w/ megaloblastic anemia there will be macro-ovalocytes and also this

A

hypersegmented PMNs

224
Q

given the RBC form give the condition: helmet cell, shistocyte

A

DIC or traumatic hemolysis

225
Q

given the RBC form give the condition:

Sickle cell

A

Sickle cell anemia

226
Q

given the RBC form give the condition:

Teardrop cell

A

myeloid metaplasia w/ myelofibrosis

227
Q

given the RBC form give the condition:

Acanthocytes

A

spiny appearance in abetalipoproteinemia

228
Q

given the RBC form give the condition:

Target cells

A

HbC dz, Asplenia, Liver dz, Thalassemia

mneu: HALT

229
Q

given the RBC form give the condition: Poikilocytes

A

Nonuniform shapes in TTP/HUS, microvascular damage, DIC

230
Q

given the RBC form give the condition: Burr cell

A

TTP/HUS

231
Q

MCV of microcytic hypocromic anemia

A

<80

232
Q

MCV of macrocytic

A

> 100

233
Q

these vitamen deficiencies are associated with hypersegmented PMNs

A

vit B12 & folate

234
Q

unlike folate deficiency, this vitamen deficiency is associated with neurological problems

A

vit B12

235
Q

vit B12 deficiency is called

A

pernicous anemia

236
Q

Decreased serum haptoglobin and increased serum LDH indicate this

A

RBC hemolysis

237
Q

this test is used to distinguish between immune v. non-immune mediated RBC hemolysis

A

direct coombs test

238
Q

iron deficiency, thalassemias, lead poisioning, and sideroblastic anemias cause this type of anemia

A

microcytic, hypochromic

239
Q

pt labs show low serum iorn, increased TIBC, decreased ferritin. What is the dx.

A

iron deficiency (microcytic anemia)

240
Q

pts blood smear shows target cells what is the dx?

A

thalassemia (microcytic anemia)

241
Q

pt presents w/ vit B12/folate deficiency what type of anemia do you susbect

A

megaloblastic, macrocytic

242
Q

drugs that block DNA synthesis (e.g., sulfa drugs, AZT) can cause this type of anemia

A

Macrocytic anemia

243
Q

acute hemorrhage causes this type of anemia

A

normocytic, normochromic

244
Q

normocytic normochromic anemia can be caused by enzyme defects such as (give 1)

A

G6PD deciciency or PK deficiency

245
Q

normocytic normochromic anemia can be caused by RBC membrane defects such as _______

A

hereditary spherocytosis

246
Q

normocytic normochromic anemia can be caused by bone marrow disorders such as

A

aplastic anemia, leukemeia

247
Q

normocytic normochromic anemia can be caused by hemoglobinopathies such as

A

sickle cell dz

248
Q

normocytic normochromic anemia can be caused by autoimmune _______ anemia

A

hemolytic

249
Q

this type of anemia usually presents with the following labs: decreased TIBC, increased ferritin, increased storage of iron in bone marrow macrophages

A

anemia of chronic dz(ACD)

250
Q

this is a pancytopenia characterized by severe anemia, neutorpenia, and thrombocytopenia that is caused by failure or destruction of multipotent myeloid stem cells, with inadequate production or release of differentiated cell lines

A

aplastic anemia

251
Q

give 3 possible causes of aplastic anemia

A

radiation, benzene, chloramphenicol, alkylating agents, antimetabolites, viral agents (parovirus B19, EBV, HIV), Fanconi’s anemia, idiopathic (immune mediated, primary stem-cell defect). May follow acute hepatitis.

252
Q

pt presents with an infection. she reports malaise and fatigue. On physical exam she appears pale, with purpura, mucosal bleeding, and petechia. What are you concerned about. Blood smear shows pancytopenia w/ normal cell morphology.

A

aplastic anemia

253
Q

how do you dx aplastic anemia.

A

bone marrow biopsy

254
Q

What does bone marrow bipsy show.

A

hypocellular bone marrow with fatty infiltation

255
Q

how do you tx aplastic anemia

A

withdraw the offending agent. allogenic bone marrow transplantation. rbc & platelet transfusion. G-GSF or GM-CSF.

256
Q

this dz is caused by a HBS mutation which is a single amino acid replacement in B chain (substitution of normal glutamic acid w/ valine).

A

sickle cell anemia

257
Q

what type of situation precipitates sickling

A

low O2 or dehydration (could be induced by exercise)

258
Q

heterozygotes of sickle cell anemia is known as

A

sickle cell trait

259
Q

heterozygotes of sickle cell trait are resistant to this dz

A

malaria (balanced polymorphism)

260
Q

crescent shaped RBCs are known as ________

A

sickle cells

261
Q

complications in homozygotes (sickle cell dz) can include aplastic crisis due to this viral infection

A

parovirus B19

262
Q

complications in homozygotes (sickle cell dz) can include teh following (give 3)

A

autosplenectomy, increased risk of encapsulated organism infxn, salmonella osteomyelitis, painful crisis (vaso-occlusive), and splenic sequestration crisis.

263
Q

new therapies for sickle cell anemia include

A

hydroxeourea (increased HgF) and bone marrow transplantation.

264
Q

HbC or HbSC cell mutations cause this type of presentation

A

milder dz than HbSS

265
Q

there are ___ alpha globin genes

A

4

266
Q

in this disorder the alpha-golbin chain iis underproduce because of bad genes, 1-4. there is no compensatory increase in any other chains.

A

alpha thalassemia.

267
Q

alpha thalassemia is present in these 2 continants

A

asia and africa

268
Q

Beta thalassemia is present in these populations

A

mediterranean populations

269
Q

this results in Beta 4 tetramers, lacks 3 alpha globin gnes

A

HbH

270
Q

this dz involved gamma4 tetramers, and lacks all 4 alpha alpha globin genes and results in hydrops fetalis and intrauterine fetal dealth

A

Hb Barts

271
Q

in this blood dyscrasia fetal hgb production is compensatorily increased but is inadequate.

A

B thalassemia

272
Q

B thalassemia minor

A

Beta chain is underproduced (heterozygous)

273
Q

Beta thalassemia major

A

Betea chain is absent

274
Q

pt has severe anemia requiring blood transfuusion and skeletal deformities that arose as a result of marrow expansion. His frequent blood transfusions result in secondary hemochromatosis which eventually causes cardiac failure and death. what is his underlying condition.

A

Beta thalassemia

275
Q

How severe is a heterozygote HbS/Beta thalassemia

A

mild to moderate dz

276
Q

Beta thalassemia major

A

Betea chain is absent

277
Q

pt has severe anemia requiring blood transfuusion and skeletal deformities that arose as a result of marrow expansion. His frequent blood transfusions result in secondary hemochromatosis which eventually causes cardiac failure and death. what is his underlying condition.

A

Beta thalassemia

278
Q

How severe is a heterozygote HbS/Beta thalassemia

A

mild to moderate dz

279
Q

pt ppresents with jaundice and increased serum bilirubin. Her retic count is also increased. What type of anemia do you suspect

A

hemolytic

280
Q

why is retic count increased in hemolytic anemia

A

bone marrow compensating

281
Q

what type of gallstones are commonly present in hemolytic anemias

A

pigment gallstones

282
Q

this type of hemolytic anemia involves mostly extravascular hemolysis-often accelerated RBC destriction in liver Kupffer cells and spleen)

A

autoimmune anemia

283
Q

what type of test do you do to test for hemolytic anemia

A

+ coombs test

284
Q

this autoimmune hemolytic anemia is a chronic anemia commonly seen in pts with SLE, CLL, or with certain drugs (e.g., alpha-methyldopa)

A

Warm Agglutin

285
Q

Warm agglutin involves this Ab

A

IgG

mneu: WARM weather is GGGreat

286
Q

this autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an acute anemia triggered by cold. Often seeen during recovery from Mycoplasma pneumonia or infectious mononucleosis

A

Cold agglutin

287
Q

Cold agglutinin involves this Ab

A

IgM

mneu: COLD ice cream. . .MMM

288
Q

this type of autoimmune hemolytic anemia is seen in newborns due to Rh or other blood Ag incompatibility when the mother’s Ab attack fetal RBCs

A

Erythroblast fetalis

289
Q

In this test anti-Ig Ab is added to pts RBCs. There is agglutination if RBCs are coated with Ig

A

Direct Coombs test

290
Q

In this test normal RBCs are added to pts serum. There is agglutination if serum has anti-RBC surface Ig

A

indirect Coombs

291
Q

in this hemolytic anemia there is intrinsic, extravascular hemolysis due to spectrin or ankyrin defect. RBCs are small and round with no central pallor, meaning they have less menbrane, increased MCHC, and increased RDW.

A

hereditary spherocytosis

292
Q

In hereditary spherocytosis pts are Cooombs ____, what test is then used to confirm

A

Coombs -

Osmotic fragility test

293
Q

This hemolytic anemia involves intravascular hemolysis due to a membrane defect leading to increased sensitivity of RBCs to the lytic activity of complement

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

294
Q

what will you see in the urin of a pt siwth paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

increased urine hemosiderin

295
Q

this form of hemolytic anemia involves intravascular hemolysis seen in DIC, TTP/HUS, SLE, or malignant hypertension.

A

microangiopathic anemia

296
Q

what is seen on a blood smear in a pt with microangiopathic anemia

A

shistocytes (helmet cells)

297
Q

this condition involves an activation iof the coagulation cascade leading to microthrombi and global consumpton of platelets, fibrin, and coagulation factors

A

DIC

298
Q

give the most common cause of DIC

A

obstrectic complications

299
Q

what are some other causes of DIC (give 2)

A

gram negative sepsis, transfusion, trauma, malignancy, acute pancreatitis, nephrotic syndrome.

300
Q 
what are the lab findings of DIC:
PT \_\_
PTT\_\_
D-Dimer (fibrin split products)\_\_\_\_
platelet count\_\_\_
Blood smear \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A 
PT ↑
PTT↑
D-Dimer (fibrin split products)↑
platelet count↓
Blood smear:  helmet-shaped cellls and schistocytes
301
Q

Give 3 examples of bleeding disorders resulting from platelet abnormalities:

A

1) idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
2) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
3) DIC
4) Aplastic anemia
5) caused by drugs

302
Q

platelet abnormalities often result in this type of hemhorrage which involves mucus membrane bleeding, epistaxis, petechia, pupura, and increased bleeding time

A

microhemorrhage

303
Q

pt presnts with microhemhorrage. Labs show antiplatelet antibodies and increased number of megakaryocytes. What platelet abnormality do you suspect

A

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

304
Q

pt presnts with microhemhorrage and neurologic symptoms. Labs increased LDH. Blood smear shows schistocytes. What platelet abnormality do you suspect

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

305
Q

pt presnts with microhemhorrage. Labs increased D-Dimer (fibrin split products). Blood smear shows schistocytes. What platelet abnormality do you suspect

A

DIC

306
Q

pt presnts with microhemhorrage and neurologic symptoms. Pt is a kidney transplant recepiant. What platelet abnormality do you suspect

A

platelet abnormality due to immunosuppressive drugs

307
Q

Give 3 Coagulation factor defects that result in bleeding disorders

A

1) Hemophelia A
2) Hemophelia B
3) Von Willebrand’s dz

308
Q

Coagulation factor defects often involves this type of hemhorrage

A

Macrohemhorrage

309
Q

macrohemorrhage often involves what lab changes in PT & PTT

A

increases

310
Q

macrohemorrhage often involves easy bruising and hemarthroses. What is hemarthrosis?

A

bleeding into joints

311
Q

Hemophilia A involves what factor deficiency

A

factor VIII

312
Q

Hemophilia B involves what factor deficiency

A

factor IX

313
Q

what is the most common coagulation factor defect

A

von willebrand’sdz

314
Q

is Von Willebrand’s dz mild or severe

A

mild

315
Q

what is deficient in Von willebrands dz and what does this lead to

A

deficiency of von Willebrand factor resulting in defect of platelet adhesion

316
Q

In von willebrand’s dz there is a decrease in factor ___ survival

A

VIII

317
Q 
Different hemorrhagic disorders involve different lab values.  Give the changes that exist in the following lab values with the d/o given:
DZ: QUALITATIVE PLATELET DEFECT
1)Platelet count
2) Bleeding time
3) PT
4) PTT
A

increased bleeding time

318
Q 
Different hemorrhagic disorders involve different lab values.  Give the changes that exist in the following lab values with the d/o given:
DZ: THROMBOCYTOPENIA
1)Platelet count
2) Bleeding time
3) PT
4) PTT
A

decreased platelet count

increased bleeding time

319
Q 
Different hemorrhagic disorders involve different lab values.  Give the changes that exist in the following lab values with the d/o given:
DZ: HEMOPHELIA A OR B
1)Platelet count
2) Bleeding time
3) PT
4) PTT
A

increased PTT

320
Q 
Different hemorrhagic disorders involve different lab values.  Give the changes that exist in the following lab values with the d/o given:
DZ: VON WILLEBRANDS DZ
1)Platelet count
2) Bleeding time
3) PT
4) PTT
A

increased bleeding time

321
Q 
Different hemorrhagic disorders involve different lab values.  Give the changes that exist in the following lab values with the d/o given:
DZ: DIC
1)Platelet count
2) Bleeding time
3) PT
4) PTT
A

decreased platelet count
increased bleeding time
increased PT & PTT

322
Q

An example of a qualitative platelet defect would be bernard-soulier dz. What is deficient in this dz and what is the result

A

low GP Ib–resulting in a defect of platelet adhesion

323
Q

An example of a qualitative platelet defect would be Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia. What is deficient in this dz and what is the result?

A

low GP IIb-IIIa. resulting in a defect of platelet agGregation

324
Q

PT involves this pathway including these 4 factors

A

extrinsic

factors II,V,VII, & X

325
Q

PTT involves this pathway including these factors

A

intrinsic

all factors except VII

326
Q

what is the most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Nodular sclerosing (65-75%)

327
Q

what is the prognosis of nodular sclerosing hodgkins lymphoma

A

excellent

328
Q

doees NSH effect women or men more, how about age group

A

women more than men, primarily young adults

329
Q

what is the perportion of reed sternburg (RS) cells to lymphocytes in nodular sclerosing Hodgkins lymphoma

A

3:1, Lymphos:RS cells

330
Q

nodular sclerosing Hodgkins lymphoma has a special kind of RS cell what is it?

A

lacunar

331
Q

this subtype of Hodgekin’s lymphoma involves collagen banding

A

nodular sclerosing

332
Q

this type of Hodgkins lymphoma has numerous lymphocytes and even more RS cells.

A

mixed cellularity (25%)

333
Q

what is the prognosis for mixed cellularity hodgkins lymphoma

A

intermediate

334
Q

this type of hodgkin’s in more common in males under 35 y/o. It has far more lymphocytes than RS cells

A

lymphocyte predominant (6%)

335
Q

what is the prognosis of lymphocyte predominant HL

A

excellent

336
Q

this type of hodgekins lymphoma is rare. It effects older males with disseminated dz. the number of RS cells is high relative to the few lymphocytes. The prognosis of this HL is poor

A

lymphocyte depleted.

337
Q

this is the distinctive tumor giant cell seen in hodgkins dz

A

reed sternberg cell

338
Q

because teh RS cell is binucleate or bilobed w/ the 2 halves as mirror images it is sometimes called this type of cell. (think bird)

A

“owl eyes” cell

339
Q

is the RS cell sufficient for dx of Hodgekins dz

A

no-neccessary but not sufficient

340
Q

what varient of RS cells is found in nodular sclerosing hodgekins dz

A

lacunar cells

341
Q

Non-Hodgkins lymphoma has several subtypes. This type presents in adulthood with a focal mass. It effects the B cells and is often low grade. It is similar to CLL

A

Small lymphocytic lymphoma

342
Q

Non-Hodgkins lymphoma has several subtypes. This is the most common adult NHL. It involves B cells and is difficult to cure. There is an indolent cource.

A

Follicular lymphoma (small cleaved cell)

343
Q

this dz is associated with t(14:18) and bcl-2 expression

A

Follicular lymphoma

344
Q

what is bcl-2 responsible for

A

apoptosis

345
Q

Non-Hodgkins lymphoma has several subtypes. This type usually effects older adults but 20% occurs in children. It is aggressive, but up to 50% are curable.

A

diffuse large cell

346
Q

Does diffuse large cell NHL effect B or T cells?

A

80% B cells

20% mature T cells

347
Q

Non-Hodgkins lymphoma has several subtypes. This type is most common in children. It commonly presents w/ ALL and a mediastinal mass. It is very aggressive

A

lymphoblastic lymphoma

348
Q

what cells do lymphoblastic lymphoma attack

A

mature T cells

349
Q

This type of lymphoma most often effects children. In africa it often presents with a jaw lesion. examination of bx under microscope will show “starry-sky” appearance (sheets of lymphocytes with interspersed macrophages.)

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

350
Q

What virus is Burkitt’s lymphoma ssociated with

A

EBV virus

351
Q

what cells does Burkitt’s lymphoma attack

A

B cells

352
Q

This NHL is associated with t(8;14) c-myc gene moving next to heavy chain Ig gene (14)

A

Burkitt’s

353
Q

pt presents with infection and increased number of circulating leukocytes in the blood. Complications include anemia (low RBCs), hemorrhage (low platelets), bx of bone marrow, liver, spleen, & LN may show infiltrates of CA

A

leukemia

354
Q

How do you leukemia dx?

A

usually bone marrow bx

355
Q

this subtype of leukemia often effects children. bx shows lymphoblast. It is the most responsive to therapy and may spread to CNS & testes

A

ALL

356
Q

this subtype of leukemia often effects adults. Bx shows myeloblasts & auer rods

A

AML

357
Q

this subtype of leukemia often effects older adults. They often present with lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegly. There are few symptoms and often have an indulent course.

A

CLL

358
Q

what would you see on peripheral blood smear of pt w/ CLL

A

increased smudge cells.

359
Q

what type of autoimmune hemolytic anemia is CLL

A

warm antibody

360
Q

what NHL is CLL very similar to.

A

SLL (small lymphocytic lymphoma.

361
Q

this subtype of leukemia presents with splenomegly and labs show incerased neutrophils and metamyelocytes

A

AML

362
Q

what chromosome and gene is CML associated with

A

Philadelphia chromosome (t[9;22],bcr-abl

363
Q

what type of stem cell proliferation is involved in CML

A

myeloid

364
Q

CML may accelerate to AML resulting in a _______

A

blast crisis

365
Q

Leukocytes have very low levels of this in CML

A

alkaline phosphatase

366
Q

these are peroxidase positive cytoplasmic inclusions in granulocytes and myeloblast.

A

auer bodies (rods)

367
Q

Auer rods are primarily seen in thys type of leukemia

A

acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3).

368
Q

treatment of AML M3 can release aurer rods resulting in this

A

DIC

369
Q

chromosomal translocations can result in several disorders. Given the translocations give the associated disorder)
t(9;22)(philadelphia chromosome)–>bcr-abl hybrid

A

CML

370
Q

chromosomal translocations can result in several disorders. Given the translocations give the associated disorder)
t(8:14)–>c-myc activation

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

371
Q

chromosomal translocations can result in several disorders. Given the translocations give the associated disorder)
t(14;18)->bcl-2 activation

A

follicular lymphomas

372
Q

chromosomal translocations can result in several disorders. Given the translocations give the associated disorder)
t(15;17)

A

M3 type of AML

373
Q

M3 type of AML is responsive to this tx

A

trans retinoic acid

374
Q

chromosomal translocations can result in several disorders. Given the translocations give the associated disorder)
t(11;22)

A

ewing’s sarcoma

375
Q

chromosomal translocations can result in several disorders. Given the translocations give the associated disorder)
t(11;14)

A

mantle cell lymphoma

376
Q

This is the most common primary tumor arising within the bone in adults. It is a moloclonal plasma cell CA that arises in the marrow and produces large amounts of IgG or IgA

A

multiple myaloma

377
Q

multiple myeloma plasma cells have this type of appearance (think breakfast foods)

A

fried egg

378
Q

multiple myeloma produces IgG what percentage of the time and IgA what percentage of =the time

A

IgG=55%

IgA=25%

379
Q

multiple myeloma can cause destructive bone lesions that can result in this abnormal lab finding

A

hypercalcemia

380
Q

what are some other complications that can come with multiple myeloma (3)

A

renal insufficiency
susceptibility to infection
anemia

381
Q

multiple myeloma is associated with this dz where abnormal protiens build up in the organs

A

amyloidosis

382
Q

what might you see on x-ray of a pt with multiple myeloma

A

punched otu lytic bone lesions on x-ray

383
Q

what might you see on serum protein electrophoresis of a pt with multiple myeloma

A

monoclonal immunoglobin spike (M protien)

384
Q

what might you see in urine of pt with multiple myeloma

A

bence jones protien

385
Q

what is bence jones protein

A

Ig light chains

386
Q

what does the blood smear show in pts with multiple myeloma

A

rouleau formation

387
Q

what is rouleau formation

A

RBCs stacked like poker chips

388
Q

pt presents with an M spike indicating increased levels of IgM. They have hyperviscosity symptoms and no lytic bone lesions. Is it multiple myeloma? What else might you suspect.

A

No

Waldenstrom macroblobinemia

Step 1 Complete (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions