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Common Anesthesia Meds Fall 2024 Pharm Exam > N/V Agents > Flashcards

N/V Agents Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following agents act on the Cerebral High CNS to provide relaxation and help prevent nausea and vomiting? (Select 3 that apply)

A) Scopolamine
B) Ondansetron
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Nabilone
E) THC
F) Metoclopramide

A

C) Benzodiazepines
D) Nabilone
E) THC

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2
Q

Which of the following 2 types of antagonists are commonly used to manage nausea and vomiting associated with the vestibular system?

A) D2 antagonists
B) H1 antagonists
C) 5HT3 antagonists
D) Anticholinergic agents

A

B) H1 antagonists
D) Anticholinergic agents

Corn: see pt’s volume status for hypotension which causes N/V

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3
Q

Which of the following agents are commonly used to manage nausea and vomiting via action on the vestibular system? (Select 4 that apply)

A) Dimenhydrinate
B) Scopolamine
C) Ondansetron
D) Methotrimeprazine
E) Atropine

A

H1 Antagonist:
A) Dimenhydrinate
D) Methotrimeprazine

Anticholinergic:
B) Scopolamine
E) Atropine

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4
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to help manage nausea and vomiting associated with increased intracranial pressure?

A) Dimenhydrinate
B) Dexamethasone
C) Ondansetron
D) Prochlorperazine

A

B) Dexamethasone

Corn: helps with brain relaxation and decreases N/V. Dose: 10-12 mg

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5
Q

Which of the following receptor types are commonly targeted in the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) to control nausea and vomiting?

A) D2 antagonist and 5HT3 antagonist
B) GABA and H1 receptors
C) 5HT4 and muscarinic receptors
D) NMDA and opioid receptors

A

A) D2 antagonist and 5HT3 antagonist

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6
Q

Which of the following medications act as D2 antagonists in the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) to control nausea and vomiting? (Select 5 that apply)

A) Prochlorperazine
B) Haloperidol
C) Methotrimeprazine
D) Chlorpromazine
E) Ondansetron
F) Gastrokinetics

A

A) Prochlorperazine
B) Haloperidol
C) Methotrimeprazine,
D) Chlorpromazine
F) Gastrokinetics

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7
Q

Which of the following is an example of a gastrokinetic agent used to treat nausea and vomiting? (select 2)

A) Ondansetron
B) Metoclopramide
C) Scopolamine
D) Domperidone

A

B) Metoclopramide
D) Domperidone

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8
Q

Which of the following drugs acts as a 5HT3 antagonist in the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) to prevent nausea and vomiting?

A) Dimenhydrinate
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Ondansetron
D) Scopolamine

A

C) Ondansetron

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9
Q

Which of the following drug classes are commonly used in the GI Tract Vagal pathway to control nausea and vomiting?

A) D2 antagonists, 5HT3 antagonists, 5HT4 agonists
B) Beta-blockers, H1 antagonists, antipsychotics
C) Anticholinergics, GABA agonists, antihistamines
D) Corticosteroids, MAO inhibitors, NSAIDs

A

A) D2 antagonists, 5HT3 antagonists, 5HT4 agonists

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10
Q

Which of the following are classified as D2 antagonists in the GI Tract Vagal pathway to control nausea and vomiting?
(Select 4 that apply)

A) Metoclopramide
B) Domperidone
C) Ondansetron
D) Methotrimeprazine
E) Phenothiazines

A

A) Metoclopramide
B) Domperidone
D) Methotrimeprazine
E) Phenothiazines

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11
Q

Which of the following are an example of a 5HT3 antagonist in the GI Tract Vagal pathway to control nausea and vomiting? (Select 2)

A) Scopolamine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Ondansetron
D) Prochlorperazine

A

B) Metoclopramide
C) Ondansetron

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12
Q

Which of the following are additional medications listed for managing GI tract symptoms through vagal mechanisms?

A) Ondansetron and Metoclopramide
B) Metoclopramide and Domperidone
C) Octreotide and Dexamethasone
D) Phenothiazines and Methotrimeprazine

A

C) Octreotide and Dexamethasone

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13
Q

Which of the following agents has both anti-nausea and anti-inflammatory properties and is long-acting?

A) Zofran
B) Decadron
C) Reglan
D) Propofol

A

B) Decadron

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14
Q

Which of the following antiemetic agents should be used cautiously due to the risk of QT prolongation?

A) Benadryl
B) Zofran
C) Pepcid
D) Propofol

A

B) Zofran

Corn: prophylactic than treatment for N/V

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15
Q

Which of the following are potential side effects of Droperidol? (Select 3 that apply)

A) QT prolongation
B) Confusion
C) Increased heart rate
D) Sedation
E) Hypotension

A

A) QT prolongation
B) Confusion
D) Sedation,

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16
Q

Which drug is known for its action on dopamine receptors, promotes forward motility, but may cause anxiety and extrapyramidal side effects?

A) Phenergan
B) Emend
C) Reglan
D) Droperidol

A

C) Reglan

got a bad rap because of flawed studies.

Corn: give to Diabetic patients

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17
Q

Which of the following should you avoid when administering Reglan (metoclopramide)?

A) Administer slowly over 1-2 minutes
B) Fast administration with wide awake patients
C) Administer with an antiemetic
D) Give before meals

A

B) Fast administration with wide awake patients

According to recording of lecture (Youtube)

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18
Q

Which of the following N/V agents is an antihistamine that acts on histamine receptors in the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ)?

A) Decadron
B) Benadryl
C) Emend
D) Propofol

A

B) Benadryl

Corn: give low dose with PONV cocktail: 6.25-12.5 mg

35

19
Q

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Scop patch? (Select all that apply-2)

A) It is primarily used to provide multi-day relief for motion sickness.
B) It is effective for treating nausea from chemotherapy.
C) Patient education on proper removal is important.
D) It is used to manage gastric acid reflux.
E) It is effective for treating gastrointestinal bleeding.

A

A) It is primarily used to provide multi-day relief for motion sickness

C) Patient education on proper removal is important.

Corn: has delayed onset, place the morning or the day before surgery

35

20
Q

In which of the following patient populations should Scopolamine patches not be used for nausea and vomiting?

A) Pediatric patients
B) Patients with asthma
C) Elderly patients
D) Patients with a history of motion sickness

A

C) Elderly patients

Corn: can cause confusion to elderly patients

According to recording of lecture (Youtube)

21
Q

Which of the following is an H2 blocker that decreases stomach acid , reduce N/V, and is FDA-approved for morning sickness?

A) Pepcid
B) Zofran
C) Droperidol
D) Reglan

A

A) Pepcid

Corn: use for aspiration pneumonitis

35

22
Q

Which of the following risks and precautions are associated with Phenergan administration? (Select 3 that apply)

A) Extravasation can result in severe tissue damage or loss of limb
B) It should be diluted when given intravenously
C) It can be administered orally without any risk
D) It has sedative effects that may require monitoring

A

A) Extravasation can result in severe tissue damage or loss of limb

B) It should be diluted when given intravenously
Corn: dilute to 10mL and start at lower dose

D) It has sedative effects that may require monitoring

35

23
Q

Which agent is known for its anti-emetic properties and is sometimes used as a last resort or in Total Intravenous Anesthesia (TIVA) for high-risk patients?

A) Droperidol
B) Propofol
C) Decadron
D) Benadryl

A

B) Propofol

35

24
Q

Which of the following are true about Emend (Aprepitant)? (Select 3 that apply)

A) It is a substance P/nk-1 antagonist
B) It is primarily used in high-risk patients
C) It is commonly used as a first-line treatment for mild nausea
D) It targets the CTZ (Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone)

A

A) It is a substance P/nk-1 antagonist

B) It is primarily used in high-risk patients

D) It targets the CTZ (Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone)

35

25
Q

Put it all together

  1. __ is a long-acting drug with anti-nausea and anti-inflammatory properties.
  2. __ is an antiemetic that is very effective but needs monitoring for QT prolongation.
  3. ___ is a drug that is tough to find, may cause sedation/confusion, and requires QT monitoring.
  4. __ promotes forward motility by working on dopamine receptors but may cause anxiety and extrapyramidal side effects.
  5. __ is an antihistamine that acts on receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone to help with nausea.
  6. The ___ patch is used for motion sickness and provides multi-day treatment, requiring patient education on removal.
  7. __ is an H2 blocker that decreases acid production and is FDA-approved for managing morning sickness.
  8. __ is a sedative antiemetic that must be diluted for IV use to prevent severe tissue damage.
  9. __ has anti-emetic properties and can be used in TIVA as a last-ditch rescue for high-risk patients.
  10. __ is a newer, expensive drug that is a P/nk-1 antagonist that is used in very high risk patients.
A
  1. Decadron
  2. Zofran
  3. Droperidol
  4. Reglan
  5. Benadryl
  6. Scopolamine
  7. Pepcid
  8. Phenergan
  9. Propofol
  10. Emend (Aprepitant)
26
Q

droperidol dose
A.1mg
B.0.75mg
C.0.625mg
D.0.675mg

A

C. 0.625mg

27
Q

Droperidol onset
A.1-5 min
B.2-4min
C.6-8min
D5-10min

A

A. 1-5min

28
Q

Droperidol duration
A.5-10hours
B.1-3hour
C.1-5hours
D2-3hours

A

D. 2-3 hours

29
Q

promethazine dose
A.6.25-25mg
B.6.25-12mg
C.12-25mg
D8-10mg

A

A. 6.25-25mg

30
Q

promethazine onset
A.3-8min
B.5-10min
C.1-5 min
D1-3 min

A

C. 1-5min

31
Q

promethazine duration
A.2-4 hours
B.4-6 hours
C.4-8hours
D. 8-10hours

A

B. 4-6 hours

32
Q

ondansetron dose
A.4mg
B.8mg
C.2mg
D.6mg

A

A.4mg

33
Q

ondansetron onset
A. 5min
B. 10min
C. 15min
D.20min

A

B. 10min

34
Q

ondansetron duration
A.6-8hours
B.2-4hours
C.5-7hours
D.4-9hours

A

D. 4-9 hours

35
Q

dexamethazone dose
A. 2mg
B. 4mg
C. 6mg
D. 8mg

A

B. 4mg

36
Q

dexamethazone onset
A. 30-40 min
B.10-30 min
C.10-15 min
D.15-20 min

A

B. 10-30min

37
Q

dexamethazone duration
A. 1-5hours
B.2-8 hours
C. 4-10 hours
D.2-10 hours

A

D. 2-10 hours

38
Q

metoclopramide dose
A.10-20mg
B.15-30mg
C. 10-40mg
D.5-10mg

A

A. 10-20mg

39
Q

metoclopramide onset
A.5min
B.10min
C.8min
D.15min

A

B. 10min

40
Q

metoclopramide duration
A. 1 hour
B.3 hours
C.2 hours
D. 4 hours

A

c. 2 hours

41
Q

scopolamine onset
A. 1-4 hour
B.3-6 hours
C.2-4 hours
D. 4-8hours

A

C. 2-4 hours

42
Q

scopolamine duration
A.72 hours
B.48hours
C.12 hours
D.6 hours

A

A. 72 hours

43
Q

propofol dose for antiemetics
A. 1-2mg
B. 5-10mg
C. 10-15mg
D. 20-30mg

A

C. 10-15mg

followed by 10mcg/kg/min

44
Q

Matching Question

A

0 risk factors → C. 10%
1 risk factor → D. 20%
2 risk factors → E. 39%
3 risk factors → A. 60%
4 risk factors → B. 79%

Slide 17

Common Anesthesia Meds Fall 2024 Pharm Exam (29 decks)

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