Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

2nd Year 2nd Term > MT6316 CHAPTER 10-11 > Flashcards

MT6316 CHAPTER 10-11 Flashcards

1
Q

Secondary effects of a laboratory accident are?

A

loss of reputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A safety program must have a written?

A

Procedure and policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Laboratory Safety Programs plan to/for?

A
  • plans for preventing sickness and injury to personnel
  • Plans to prevent damage or destruction of physical assets.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the objectives of a safety program?

A
  1. Safety skills and attitude of all personnel
  2. Surveillance program for promptly identifying hazards
  3. Plans for promptly correcting all hazards
  4. Laboratory safety efforts with the over all hospital safety program.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An Employee Health Program includes?

A
  1. pre-employmentphysicalexamination
  2. Periodic inspection of above in most instances reassessments are made yearly
  3. Written reports of all work-related illnesses and accidents
  4. Employee health records for the total period of employment.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A general safety program includes periodic inspections done by who and for what purposes?

A

by director or designee for purposes of indicating interest and concern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A general safety program includes the consideration of periodic programs by?

A

outside persons with expertise in special areas of laboratory safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A general safety program includes the hiring of?

A

full or part-time safety officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T or F: It is okay to work alone in the laboratory

A

F, a second person should be within call.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

here are two types of chemical hazards, which are?

A

External
Internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

EXTERNAL OR INTERNAL CHEMICAL HAZARD: result of caustic or corrosive substance

A

external

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

EXTERNAL OR INTERNAL CHEMICAL HAZARD: result of the toxicity of substances

A

internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

There are [how many] main routes by which chemicals enter the body.

A

three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the three main routes by which chemicals enter the body?

A

Inhalation
Absorption through skin
Ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This is the major route of entry when working with solvent

A

Inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Absorption through skin may produce what type of poisoning?

A

systemic poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Route of entry due to poor hygiene practices

A

Ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Programs for Handling Chemicals include?

A
  1. Prescribed containers and adequate storage space
  2. Permanent container labels
  3. Policies for transporting
  4. Instruction for dispensing, transferring and disposing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

“Treat all body fluids _________”

A

infectious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The major routes by which laboratory staff acquire work-related infections are?

A
  • percutaneous inoculation
  • contact between mucous membranes and contaminated material
  • accidental ingestion.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If there is a biological spill, apply what to the spill?

A

Absorbent towel and disinfectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How much time is adequate for the disinfection of the biological spill?

A

20mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If laboratory personnel becomes contaminated with biological hazards due to splashes or spills, immediate steps to take include?

A
  • Clean exposed skin or body surface with soap and water, eyewash (for eye exposures) or saline (for mouth exposures).
  • Apply first aid and treat as an emergency.
  • Notify supervisor, safety officer, or security desk.
  • Follow appropriate reporting procedures.
  • Report to physician for treatment or counselling.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T or F: After use, gloves must be disposed of in the contaminated waste.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Protect eyes and other mucous membranes from projection by using face shield

A

Goggles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T or F: Contact lenses are able to offer protection from splashes

A

F, not able

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Reduce laboratory workers’ respiratory exposure to airborne highly dangerous pathogens

A

Masks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

For the use of masks, use what kind of respiratory with what during specimen collection and handling?

A

fit-tested particulate respirators with adequate filtering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Examples of fit-tested particulate respirators with adequate filtering?

A

EU FFP2, US NIOSH-certified N95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What PPE is compulsory in all instances?

A

Laboratory coats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What should one be aware of in the use of lab coats?

A

composition of fabrics, as some might be highly flammable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the types of gloves and their corresponding purpose?

A
  • rubber gloves (hazardous liquids)
  • lead gloves (radioactive materials)
  • surgical gloves (pathogens)
  • insulated gloves (hot and cold objects)
  • heavy leather gloves ( certain animals)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Basic PPEs include?

A

Clothing
Gloves
Safety shoes
Hard helmet
Safety eye glasses
Respirators
Facemasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Program for Handling Biological Materials includes instructions and policies regarding?

A
  • collecting transferring, storing and disposing of all specimens
  • isolating test procedures
  • washing and the care and cleaning of work surfaces
  • cleaning and/or disposing of specimen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A significant source of potential injury to laboratory staff, thus making training in specific safety procedures imperative.

A

Laboratory equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Examples of Laboratory equipment involved in Mechanical or Physical Hazards?

A

autoclaves, centrifuges, compressed gas cylinders and fume hoods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In the context of Mechanical or Physical Hazards, what is important to alleviate these hazards?

A

safety training and precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Safety Equipment in the laboratory include?

A
  1. Fire extinguisher
  2. Safety showers
  3. Eye washes
  4. Safety shields
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How many types of fire extinguishers are there and what are these types?

A

these are of three general types
a. water type
b. dry chemical type
c. carbon dioxide type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Instructions for proper disposal of sharps are?

A
  • Avoid needle recapping.
  • Put sharps in a puncture-resistant, leak-proof sharps container.
  • Label the container “Sharps”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

NEVER USE BOXES for the disposal of?

A

*sharps
*biohazardous materials that have not been autoclaved
*liquid wastes
*chemically contaminated laboratory glassware or plasticware
*chemical containers that cannot be disposed of as regular solid waste.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Liquids with [low/high] flash points may ignite if they are near __________

A

Low
heat sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the types of heat sources involved in the ignition of liquids with low flashpoints?

A

hotplates, steam lines or equipment that might produce a spark or heat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A small laboratory fire is considered to be one that is extinguishable within how long?

A

1–2 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

First line fire extinguishing technique is to cover the fire with?

A

inverted beaker or wet paper towels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

If the technique to cover the fire with an inverted beaker or wet paper towels is not successful, what is the last resort?

A

Fire extinguisher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How many classes of fire hazards are there?

A

4 (A,B,C,D)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A Fire Prevention Program includes?

A
  1. Physical facilities and operational practices that satisfy fire code.
  2. Instructions for handling and storing combustibles; container labels with “flash points”.
  3. Instructions for operating all heat-generating equipment
  4. Well-conceived and rehearsal plans in event of fire that are closely coordinated with hospital efforts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Label combustibles container with?

A

Flashpoints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Sources of radiation in the laboratory include?

A

a. radioactive isotopes
b. x-rays
c. ultraviolet sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Require special precautions, and dedicated benches with specific bench covers for manipulation of radio-labeled elements are needed.

A

Radiochemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Radiochemicals require?

A

Appropriate protection ((PlexiglasTM, lead)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Ensuring quality and safety during laboratory processes is a major concern for laboratory managers

A

Laboratory Liabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

As a Laboratory Director, it is important to?

A
  • design and plan laboratory facilities
  • assess all potential risks and apply basic concepts of organization
  • consider the organization of the laboratory when developing new activities or new diagnostic techniques
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

As a Quality Manager (or designated safety officer), it is necessary to?

A
  • Develop basic safety rules and organization, and ensure that personnel are trained
  • know the basics of safety and biosafety management issues
  • know how to perform an extensive risk assessment when developing
    new activities
  • conduct laboratory safety audits.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

As a laboratorian, it is important to?

A
  • be aware of basic safety rules and processes;
  • understand the basics of safety and biosafety management issue with toxic chemicals, biological samples, physical hazards and interacting with patients.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Injury Liabilities of the Laboratory include?

A
  • Laboratory equipment
  • Storage of compressed gasses
  • Needles and sharps
  • Exposure to toxic chemicals and radioactive materials pose a real threat to the health and safety of laboratory staff.
  • Laboratory acquired infections
  • Aerosols contamination
  • Biological and chemical spills
  • Laboratory fires
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Defined as a deviation or an imbalance between what “should be” and what “actually is” happening

A

The problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The problem is answered by the question, _________

A

“what is wrong that needs correction”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Categories of a Problem are?

A
  1. Causality-based problems
  2. Meaning-based problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Has well defined boundaries and elements are connected primarily through cause and effect.

A

Causality-based problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Causality-based problems have what kind of relationship?

A

Linear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What kind of problem: the laboratory intercom’s failure to work properly

A

Causality-based problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Boundaries are poorly defined

A

Meaning-based problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Rarely are linked directly by cause and effect and the nature of their connections depends on the meaning attached to each elements.

A

Meaning-based problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What kind of problem: the financial proceeds of the laboratory is declining

A

Meaning-based problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In Meaning-based problems, the elements to include are not _____, they must be _____

A

Given
Chosen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Employers allow or encourage employees to share or participate in organizational ______

A

Decision making

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What kind of problem solving involves the employers allow or encourage employees to share or participate in organizational decision-making?

A

Participative Problem Solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

A manager may choose to make the decision alone or request input from an individual with specific expertise or experience in the subject matter

A

Unilateral Problem Solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Seven Steps of Problem Solving

A
  1. Find the problem
  2. Diagnose
  3. Develop alternative solutions
  4. Evaluate alternative solutions
  5. Select the best solution–the decision point
  6. Implement the solution after developing a plan
  7. Evaluate feedback and take corrective action where needed to ensure the problem is solved.
72
Q

Source for finding problem include?

A
  • Failure to meet objectives
  • decreased production or quality of service - lowered employee morale
  • diminishing income
  • rise in incident reports
  • Employees, peers and supervisors
73
Q

A manager need only be alert to the __________ and prepared to investigate their _________.

A

existence of problems
causes.

74
Q

The manager’s investigation must be based on?

A

based on fact, and not the result of opinion, misinterpretation, or bias

75
Q

To assure a good diagnosis of the problem, you should?

A
  1. Define the problem in writing briefly and accurately
  2. Gather as much data as possible to determine the cause/s
  3. Identify the specific cause to reduce work later on
  4. Identify known constraints and barriers that would preclude some solutions
76
Q

When gathering information for problem diagnosis, it is important to work with?

A

facts, not opinions.

77
Q

Develop Alternative Solutions using what approach?

A

Brainstorming approach

78
Q

Brainstorming approach includes what processes?

A
  • List as many solutions as possible - but none of them should be evaluated
  • Criticizing the suggestions
  • to inhibit contributions, one of which could possibly be the basis of the best solution.
79
Q

Evaluating an Alternative Solution involves a direct look at the?

A

Pros and cons

80
Q

What may be appropriate in Evaluating an Alternative Solution?

A

cost-benefit analysis

81
Q

In a cost-benefit analysis, what should be quantified and verified?

A
  • financial aspect should be quantified
  • the patient benefits verified
82
Q

4 major types of decisions

A
  1. Considered decision
    2 Operational decisions
  2. Swallow hard decisions
  3. Ten-second decisions
83
Q

What kind of decision: have a major effect on the total operation

A

Considered

84
Q

What kind of decision: complicated and require considerable reflection

A

Considered

85
Q

What kind of decision: require much interaction with others

A

Considered

86
Q

What kind of decision: the routine kinds of things we do on day to day basis

A

Operational

87
Q

What kind of decision: an excellent opportunity to develop as decision makers

A

Operational

88
Q

What kind of decision: the kind that are often personally uncomfortable

A

Swallow hard

89
Q

What kind of decision: usually deal with interpersonal relationships

A

Swallow hard

90
Q

What kind of decision: Employees may not like the decision but they can understand why it was made.

A

Swallow hard

91
Q

What kind of decision: dictated by external pressure

A

Ten-second

92
Q

What kind of decision: an employee requesting an hour off that day

A

Ten-second

93
Q

What kind of decision: primarily unilateral decisions

A

Ten-second

94
Q

What kind of decision: managers must remember that he will be held accountable for the decision.

A

Ten-second

95
Q

FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT OR PLANNING: utilization of funds

A

MANAGEMENT

96
Q

FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT OR PLANNING: planning the procurement

A

MANAGEMENT

97
Q

FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT OR PLANNING: controlling the financial operation to assure effective utilization of funds

A

MANAGEMENT

98
Q

FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT OR PLANNING: setting of financial goals

A

PLANNING

99
Q

FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT OR PLANNING: the determination of future financial requirements

A

PLANNING

100
Q

FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT OR PLANNING: possible sources of funds

A

PLANNING

101
Q

A systematic programming of organizational activities

A

Budget

102
Q

Made based on their costs and on the amount of resources available.

A

Budget

103
Q

A budget is a template for?

A

forecasting revenue and expenses for an organization.

104
Q

An ongoing process that culminates annually with the expense projections for the coming year.

A

Laboratory Budgeting

105
Q

Laboratory Budgeting are forecasts made in accordance with?

A

the chart of accounts

106
Q

Laboratory Budgeting is divided into?

A

Quarters (3months)

107
Q

The 3 month intervals in laboratory budgeting represents?

A

the best times for expenditure modification.

108
Q

How to prepare budgets?

A

1.Historical
2.Growth Factor Projection
3.Zero-Based Budgeting

109
Q

What budget prep: use data from previous year’s revenue and expenses

A

Historical

110
Q

What budget prep: forecasting future revenues and expenses by factoring the desired growth projection.

A

Growth Factor Projection

111
Q

What budget prep: tarting the budget process from zero figure and justifying and researching every cost that will be incurred before arriving to a final budget.

A

Zero-Based Budgeting

112
Q

A Budget is divided into anticipated?

A

Income and expenses

113
Q

Part of a budget that includes the charges that may be made for patient days, services rendered per patient day

A

Income/ Revenue

114
Q

A part of the budget that involve personnel costs which amounts to about 70% of total expenses

A

Expenses/ Costs

115
Q

Expenses/ Costs involves personnel costs which amounts to about how much of the total expenses?

A

70%

116
Q

Expenses/ Costs also involved what kind of costs?

A

materials, leases and contracts and overhead costs.

117
Q

Usually include interest on debts, utilities, phone, building maintenance and various other costs that cannot be allocated to a specific areas.

A

Overhead costs

118
Q

What kind of costs pertain to salaries of permanent employees who are already working at the start of the fiscal year?

A

Personnel costs

119
Q

In Personnel costs, what may be anticipated?

A

Additional personnel may be anticipated (or reductions may be planned)

120
Q

Can be estimated on the basis of previous experience.

A

Supplies

121
Q

What can be anticipated in Supplies?

A

new equipment is anticipated, and changes made in supplies

122
Q

In the chart of accounts, what are the kinds of salaries?

A

a. exempt
b. non-exempt

123
Q

In the chart of accounts, what are the kinds of Supplies and Equipment?

A

a. purchase
b. rental
c. lease
d. maintenance
e. depreciation

124
Q

In the chart of accounts, what are the kinds of taxes?

A

a. payroll
b. sales

125
Q

In the chart of accounts, what are the kinds of insurance?

A

a. general liability
b. workman’s compensation
c. group health
d. others

126
Q

FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING STATEMENTS include?

A

1.Balance Sheet
2.Income Statement
3.Statement of Cash Flow

127
Q

What kind of FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING STATEMENT: Statement of Financial Position, It shows the lab’s financial situation at a given point in time.

A

Balance sheet

128
Q

A balance sheet contains the?

A

Assets (Cash, Receivables, Property, Equipment, Inventory).

129
Q

What kind of FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING STATEMENT: Shows revenue generated and expenses incurred over a period of time.

A

Income Statement

130
Q

What kind of FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING STATEMENT: Shows the inflow and outflow of cash. (Operations, Investments, Financing)

A

Statement of Cash Flow

131
Q

Tools for fiscal decision making include?

A
  1. Laboratory workload reporting
  2. Depreciation/ Payback period
  3. Cost finding/ Cost-Revenue Analysis
132
Q

Defined as one minute of technical, clerical, and aide time.

A

Workload unit

133
Q

In actual practice, the average workload productivity in most laboratories is in the range of how many units per hour?

A

30 to 55 workload units per hour.

134
Q

Components of Workload include?

A
  1. Direct Effort
  2. Indirect Effort
  3. Operational Needs
135
Q

Refers to the personnel labor effort involved in direct patient specimen handling as it processes from specimen to result.

A

Direct Effort

136
Q

List of tasks that staff members perform that isn’t directly related to the patient, specimen, or test results.

A

Indirect Effort

137
Q

Non-procedural-based responsibilities that consume staffing resources.

A

Operational Needs

138
Q

What is the difference between Operational Needs and Indirect Effort?

A

operational needs are further removed from the testing process and are more operational in nature.

139
Q

What component of workload: Calibration, control, maintenance, stocking of supplies

A

Indirect Effort

140
Q

What component of workload: Trainings, break/lunch, meetings

A

Operational Needs

141
Q

What component of workload: answering phone calls, inquiries

A

Indirect Effort

142
Q

Based on a 40-hour workweek

A

FTE, or full-time equivalent,

143
Q

FTE, or full-time equivalent is based on the?

A

a 40-hour workweek

144
Q

CAP workload unit is how long?

A

1 minute of technical, clerical and/or aide time

145
Q

Productivity is measured through?

A

total workload units/ hour

146
Q

Involves comparing current with previous productivity in (sections within the laboratory) ( with other comparable laboratories)

A

Productivity units

147
Q

If a laboratory’s productivity consistently runs over ______, then the laboratory maybe understaffed and need additional personnel support.

A

60

148
Q

The value of the equipment/ capital expense diminishes over an extended period of time and usage.

A

Depreciation

149
Q

Determines how long will it take to recover cash outlays, or to recover their investment.

A

Payback Period

150
Q

What is the equation for the straight line depreciation?

A

(Cost of equipment - Salvage Value) / Life expectancy of equipment

151
Q

What is the equation for the payback period?

A

Purchase price of equipment / Annual income generated by the equipment

152
Q

Cost for performing a particular procedure

A

Cost finding

153
Q

Establishes its charges on the involved direct and indirect cost.

A

Cost finding

154
Q

Cost finding is in consultation with?

A

fiscal staff of the hospital

155
Q

In cost finding, who are needed to provide the indirect (or overhead) expense?

A

fiscal personnel

156
Q

Two general types of costs?

A

a. direct costs
b. indirect costs

157
Q

What type of cost: costs of materials supplies and personnel time

A

Direct

158
Q

What type of cost: utilities, laboratory and institutional administrative expenses, building depreciation and janitorial services.

A

Direct

159
Q

Constant overtime regardless of volume of determinations,

A

Fixed costs in a laboratory

160
Q

Depreciations, supervisor salaries and rental charges are examples of?

A

Fixed costs in a laboratory

161
Q

Costs (for items such as supplies and reagents) which will vary in a relationship to the volume of determinations.

A

Variable costs

162
Q

Which is larger: Fixed cost or variable cost?

A

Fixed costs are much larger than variable costs since personnel costs usually account for 60 to 70% of the total budget of most hospitals.

163
Q

Associated with physical assets, equipment, instruments that have a life span of more than 1 year and often depreciated over a 5 year period. Or may cost more than a set amount.

A

CAPITAL COSTS

164
Q

Costs used for day-to-day operations.

A

OPERATING COSTS

165
Q

General costs of doing business.

A

OPERATING COSTS

166
Q

May also refer to costs to produce test results. Includes Direct and Indirect costs.

A

OPERATING COSTS

167
Q

Related to all components associated with performing the test.

A

DIRECT COSTS

168
Q

Not directly contributing to producing the test.

A

DIRECT COSTS

169
Q

Overhead, administrative, other expense shared by many components in the lab are examples of?

A

DIRECT COSTS

170
Q

Expenses that do not fluctuate when the volume of work changes on a daily basis.

A

FIXED COSTS

171
Q

Rent, depreciation, taxes are examples of?

A

FIXED COSTS

172
Q

Respond directly to any change in workload, will vary in relationship with volume of tests.

A

VARIABLE COSTS

173
Q

Reagents, Supplies, Labor costs in cases of overtime, some overheads are examples of?

A

VARIABLE COSTS

174
Q

A tool to determine the efficiency of management and to calculate the break- even point so the laboratory manager can set the charges that appropriately cover the costs as well as plan policy for future laboratory services.

A

Cost- Revenue Analysis

175
Q

If the lab can expect to perform services that exceeds this point, it can EXPECT A?

A

PROFIT.

176
Q

If the revenues cannot cover the associated costs, the Lab will expect a?

A

LOSS

177
Q

What is the equation for breakeven?

A

Total fixed cost of the lab / (Revenue per test - Variable cost per test)

2nd Year 2nd Term (38 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions