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2nd Year 2nd Term > MT6312 LEC UNIT 3 > Flashcards

MT6312 LEC UNIT 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Communicable diseases: infectious or noninfectious?

A

Infectious

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2
Q

Infectious agents include?

A

Bacteria
Fungi
Virus
Parasites

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3
Q

condition that results when a microbe can invade the body, multiply, and cause injury or disease.

A

Infection

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4
Q

Some pathogenic microbes cause infections that are communicable

A

“Communicable Pathogens”

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5
Q

microbe that can cause disease

A

“True Pathogen”

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6
Q

organisms that can become pathogenic once host immunity is low/is present in body location that is unusual for the microbe to be present

A

“Opportunistic Pathogen”

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7
Q

Microbe that is normally present in body locations; not usually causing infection

A

Microbiota/Normal Flora

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8
Q

In-charge with the investigation and control of various diseases, especially those that are communicable and have epidemic potential

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

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9
Q

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention is an agency of?

A

U.S. Department of Health and Human Services

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10
Q

Robert Koch’s Postulates are?

A

The microorganism or other pathogen must bepresent in all cases of the disease

The pathogen can be isolated from the diseased host andgrown in pure culture

The pathogen from the pure culture mustcause the disease when inoculated into a healthy, susceptible laboratory animal

The pathogen must bereisolatedfrom the new host andshown to be the sameas the originally inoculated pathogen

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11
Q

Epidemiologic triad consists of?

A

Host
Agent
Environment
Vector (MIDDLE)

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12
Q

Six key components of links in the chain of infection?

A

infectious agent, a reservoir, an exit pathway, a means of transmission, an entry pathway, and a susceptible host.

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13
Q

place where the pathogen lives and multiplies.

A

Reservoir

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14
Q

method an infectious agent uses to travel from a reservoir to a susceptible individual.

A

MOT

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15
Q

Examples of MOTs?

A

Airborne, contact, droplet, vector, and vehicle

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16
Q

Body part where pathogen can lodge/enter the host

A

Entry pathway

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17
Q

Person with low/altered immunity that receives the pathogen

A

. Susceptible Host

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18
Q

way an infectious agent is able to leave a reservoir host.

A

Exit pathway

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19
Q

exposure of infected body fluids such as blood or saliva

A

Direct contact

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20
Q

pathogens remain on surfaces that were in contact with an infected person

A

Indirect contact

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21
Q

infectious agents are found in contaminated food and water that are ingested

A

Food and water borne

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22
Q

pathogens are spread when an infected person coughs or sneezes

A

Airborne

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23
Q

infectious agents are usually transmitted through a bite of an infected insect carrying the infective agents of the organisms

A

Vector-borne

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24
Q

Malaria means?

A

bad air

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25
Q

Malaria is caused by?

A

apicomplexan parasites of the genus Plasmodium

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26
Q

Medically important species of Plasmodium infecting humans

A

Plasmodium falciparum – 60.8%

Plasmodium vivax – 14.1%

Plasmodium ovale – 3.7%

Plasmodium malariae – 2.5 %

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27
Q

Life threatening plasmodium?

A

P. falciparum
P. vivax
P. knowlesi

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28
Q

All erythrocytes infected?

A

P. falciparum
P. knowlesi

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29
Q

Senescent erythrocytes infected?

A

P. malariae

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30
Q

Endemicity is Global, most common in Africa

A

P. falciparum

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31
Q

Endemicity is mostly in Asia

A

Vivax

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32
Q

Endemicity is in africa only

A

Ovale

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33
Q

Endemicity is globally

A

Malariae

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34
Q

Endemicity is in Malaysia and neighboring countries

A

Knowlesi

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35
Q

Rare CNS involvement

A

Vivax
Malariae

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36
Q

Incubation of 18-40 days

A

Malariae

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37
Q

Incubation of 8-11 days

A

falciparum

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38
Q

Incubation of 8-17 days

A

Vivax

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39
Q

Incubation of 10-17days

A

Ovale

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40
Q

9-12 days incubation

A

Knowlesi

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41
Q

Plasmodium stages in man

A

Schizont 🡪 Trophozoite 🡪 Gametocyte

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42
Q

dividing forms of plasmodium

A

Schizont

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43
Q

Growing forms of Plasmodium

A

Trophozoite

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44
Q

Sexual forms of Plasmodium

A

Gametocyte

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45
Q

Stages of Plasmodium in the mosquito

A

Zygote 🡪 Ookinete 🡪 Oocyst 🡪 Sporozoite

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46
Q

Union of gametocytes leads to?

A

Zygote

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47
Q

Spindle shapes seen in the gut of the mosquito

A

Sporozoite

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48
Q

Malaria can be prevented by the use of?

A

antimalarial drugs and use of protection measures against mosquito bites.

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49
Q

To avoid mosquito bites, the CDC recommends?

A

Insect repellent (20-35% DEET)
Long sleeved clothing
Mosquito nets (w/ permethrin)
Insecticide on clothing
Pyrethrin before going to bed

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50
Q

What model is used for Malaria prevention?

A

Swiss cheese model

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51
Q

What is the Swiss cheese model?

A

Awareness of risk and prevention
Bite prevention
Chemoprophylaxis
Diagnosis and access to treatment
Emergency treatment kits

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52
Q

Primary prevention for malaria includes?

A

Vector control

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53
Q

Secondary prevention for malaria includes?

A

Bite prevention
Chemoprophylaxis

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54
Q

Tertiary malaria prevention includes?

A

Diagnosis and Emergency standby

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55
Q

acute diarrheal disease that can kill within hours if left untreated.

A

Cholera

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56
Q

Up to 80% of cases of Cholera can be successfully treated with?

A

oral rehydration solution (ORS).

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57
Q

Severe cases of cholera will need?

A

rapid treatment with intravenous fluids and antibiotics

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58
Q

What are critical to control the transmission of cholera and other waterborne diseases?

A

Provision of safe water and sanitation

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59
Q

Should be used in conjunction with improvements in water and sanitation to control cholera outbreaks and for prevention in areas known to be high risk for cholera

A

Safe oral cholera vaccines

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60
Q

Where does bacteria multiply for cholera?

A

Large intestine

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61
Q

World’s longest running pandemic

A

Cholera

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62
Q

Cholera agent

A

Vibrio cholerae

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63
Q

Incubation period of cholera

A

2hrs - 5 days

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64
Q

Feces from cholera infected can be infective for as long as?

A

14days

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65
Q

Cholera control multi-sectoral interventions?

A

Water, sanitation, hygiene
Surveillance and reporting
Use of oral vaccines
Community engagement
Healthcare system strengthening
Leadership and coordination

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66
Q

Other name for ebola virus

A

EBOLA HEMORRHAGIC FEVER
Bundibugyo virus, Sudan Virus, Tai Forest virus, Zaire Ebola virus

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67
Q

Morphology of ebola virus

A

Shepherd’s crook morphology, ”U” or “6” shape

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68
Q

Form of ebola that cause disease in primates

A

Reston virus

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69
Q

highly virulent and require maximum containment facilities for laboratory work

A

Filovirus

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70
Q

Highly virulent strains of ebola

A

Zaire and Sudan

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71
Q

Most dangerous of the known EVD-causing viruses.

A

Zaire

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72
Q

Marburg virus and Ebola virus

A

Filovirus

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73
Q

Biosafety level of filovirus

A

4

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74
Q

The natural/reservoir hosts for ebola

A

Bats (fruit bats)

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75
Q

Infections in _________ imported into the United States from the Philippines but none of the workers became sick, resulted in Ebola Reston

A

cynomolgus monkeys (long-tailed macaque)

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76
Q

A high mortality rate among ____ in the Philippines in 2008 led to the discovery of Ebola Reston virus in animals other than primates.

A

pigs

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77
Q

Ebola Reston: (low/high) pathogenicity to humans

A

low

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78
Q

T or F: Ebola Reston Virus strain can infect humans without causing disease

A

T

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79
Q

For Ebola, animals may become infected when they?

A

eat fruit partially eaten by bats carrying the virus

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80
Q

Human consumption of ______ has been linked to animal-to-human transmission of Ebola

A

bushmeat

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81
Q

What is bushmeat?

A

Fruitbats hunted down as food

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82
Q

Clinical manifestations of ebola?

A

Fever, headache, sore throat, muscle pain
Abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea, rash
Severe dehydration
Internal and external bleeding
Impaired humoral immune responses

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83
Q

Filovirus infection appear to be?

A

immunosuppressive

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84
Q

Ebola fever is usually higher than what temperature?

A

38.3°C

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85
Q

Death due to ebola, if it occurs, is often due tolow blood pressure from fluid loss, causing?

A

Hypovolemic shock

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86
Q

T or F: Bleeding into the whites of the eyesmay also occur in Cholera

A

F, Ebola

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87
Q

Ebola spreads by direct contact with?

A

blood or other body fluids: Body fluids: saliva, mucus, vomit, feces, breast milk, urine, and semen

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88
Q

According to WHO, only people who are very sick are able to spread Ebola disease in _______ and through ________

A

saliva and through large droplets

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89
Q

What other ways can ebola be spread?

A

Contaminated needle and syringes

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90
Q

People at risk for ebola?

A

Direct contact with an infected person
Healthcare workers treating people with Ebola
Poor health system; not capable of isolation procedures
Practicing traditional burials and embalming

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91
Q

Ebola virus is known to persist in where?

A

immune-privileged sites in some people who have recovered from Ebola virus disease

the testicles, the inside of the eye, and the central nervous system

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92
Q

In women who have been infectedwhilepregnant, the virus persists in the _______,______,________

In women who have been infectedwhile breastfeeding, the virus may persist in ________.

A

placenta, amniotic fluid and fetus.
breast milk

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93
Q

T or F: Dead bodies remain infectious for Ebola

A

T

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94
Q

Ebola has the highest mortality rate of all the viral hemorrhagic fevers, about how many percent?

A

25-90%

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95
Q

Average case fatality rate for ebola?

A

50%

96
Q

The largest outbreak to date was the Ebola virus epidemic in?
Large number of deaths in?

A

West Africa
Guinea, Sierra Leone, and Liberia

97
Q

Largest Ebola outbreak ever documented – involved major urban areas

A

2013 – 2016 West African Outbreak

98
Q

2013 – 2016 West African Outbreak major outbreak in what country? and spread to?

A

Guinea spread to Libera, Sierra Leone

99
Q

First known outbreak of EVD

A

1976 Sudan Outbreak

100
Q

Second outbreak (Democratic Republic of the Congo)

A

1976 Zaire ebolavirus

101
Q

In the 1975 Ebola Outbreak in Africa, the first person infected with the disease was?

A

the village’s headmaster who was originally believed to have malaria

102
Q

DIAGNOSIS of Ebola?

A

Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)
Reverse Transcriptase Polymerase Chain Reaction (RT-PCR) assay
Electron Microscopy
Virus Isolation by Cell Culture

103
Q

For routine diagnostic management of Ebola

A

Automated or semi-automated nucleic acid tests (NAT)/ PCR

104
Q

Specimen for Ebola and Findings

A

SPECIMEN: whole blood; oral fluid specimen
Laboratory Findings: low white cell count, platelet count, and elevated liver enzymes

105
Q

TREATMENT for Ebola

A

No specific antiviral therapy

Maintaining renal function and electrolyte balance

Supportive care-rehydration with oral or IV fluids

Combating hemorrhage and shock

Experimental Ebola vaccine: rVSV-ZEBOV

106
Q

Prevention and control international guidelines for Ebola

A

Hygiene (avoid contact with body fluids)
DO not come in contact with infected person’s body fluids
Avoid burials with handling a dead infected person
Returning travelers and healthcare workers should be surveilled for 21days
Isolate suspected patients
Contact tracing

107
Q

Infectious diseases, also known as?

A

infectiology

108
Q

medical specialty dealing with the diagnosis and treatment of complex infections.

A

Infectious diseases or infectiology

109
Q

An infectious disease specialist’s practice consists of managing what kind of infections?

A

nosocomial (healthcare-acquired) infections or community-acquired infections

110
Q

Disease specialists are historically associated with?

A

travel medicine and tropical medicine.

111
Q

interdisciplinary branch of medicine that deals with health issues that occur uniquely, are more widespread, or are more difficult to control in tropical and subtropical regions.

A

Tropical medicine

112
Q

Tropical medicine mostly deals with infections that are (epidemic/endemic)

A

Endemic

113
Q

Well-known tropical diseases?

A

malaria, HIV/AIDS, and tuberculosis.

114
Q

Tropical medicine specialists must be knowledgeable in?

A

18 lesser known neglected tropical diseases, which include Chagas disease, rabies, and dengue.

115
Q

Directed the WHO Smallpox Eradication program

A

Dr. D.A. Henderson

116
Q

infectious microorganism or pathogen: a virus, bacterium, parasite, or other microbe.

A

Agent

117
Q

T or F: Presence of agent only can be enough to cause disease

A

F, presence of that agent alone is not always sufficient to cause disease.

118
Q

human who can get the disease

A

Host

119
Q

A variety of factors intrinsic to the host, sometimes called _____, can influence an individual’s _____,______ or______.

A

risk factors
exposure, susceptibility, or response to a causative agent.

120
Q

Opportunities for exposure are often influenced by ______ and ________

A

behaviors and physiologic susceptibility

121
Q

extrinsic factors that affect the agent and the
opportunity for exposure.

A

Environment

122
Q

Environmental factors include?

A

physical factors, biologic factors, and socioeconomic factors

123
Q

useful framework in the design of prevention and control measures as specific strategies can be aimed at various points along the chain of infection

A

Chain of Infection

124
Q

Strategies or actions aimed at eradicating, eliminating or minimizing the impact of disease and disability, or if none of these are feasible , retarding the progress of disease and disability.

A

Prevention

125
Q

Control of the disease involves ongoing operations at reducing the?

A
  • Incidence of Disease
  • Duration of disease
  • Effects of the disease
  • Burden to community
126
Q

Prevention is (individual/community level)

A

Individual

127
Q

have no nonhuman reservoir

A

pathogenic viruses, including smallpox, measles and polio

128
Q

Only three countries continue to have endemic polio—____,______,______—but eradication from these countries has proven extremely difficult.

A

Nigeria, Pakistan, and Afghanistan

129
Q

offers an example of what happens when public health relaxes its vigilance

A

Measles

130
Q

Public Health Issues on Vaccines and AMR

A
  • Dipping Vaccine confidence
  • MDR and XDR TB
  • Nosocomial infections and “superbugs”
  • Improper use and disposal of antibiotics
  • Antibiotics in industrialized agriculture
131
Q

Vaccine confidence is believed to be related to?

A

Vaccine hesitancy and acceptance

132
Q

Delay or refusal of vaccines despite availability of services

A

Vaccine hesitancy

133
Q

Adherence to the recommended schedule and measured by past behavior, willingness to comply in the future

A

Vaccine acceptance

134
Q

Happens when bacteria change and become resistant

A

Antibiotic resistance

135
Q

The more we take antibiotics, the (more/less) chance bacteria becomes resistant

A

More

136
Q

Factors contributing to emergence

A

Agent
Host
Environment

137
Q

How does the agent contribute to disease emergence?

A

Evolution
Resistance to drugs
Resistance of vectors to pesticides

138
Q

How does the host contribute to disease emergence?

A

Demographic change
Behavior
Susceptibility
Poverty/Social Inequality

139
Q

How does the environment contribute to disease emergence?

A

Climate change
Economic development and land use
Technology and industry
International travel and commerce
Public health measure
Deterioration of surveillance systems

140
Q

Emerging infectious diseases are diseases that?

A

Have not occurred before
Occurred previously but only little were affected
Occurred throughout history but only recently recognized

141
Q

Examples of emerging infectious disease

A

Lassa fever
Ebola
Legionnaire disease
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Lyme diease
AIDS
Gastric ulcers
CHolera
Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
Influenza

142
Q

Once were major health problems but declines dramatically, but are again becoming health problems for significant proportion of the population

A

Re-emerging infectious disease

143
Q

Examples of re-emerging?

A

Cryptosporidiosis
Diphtheria
Malaria
Meningitis, necrotizing fascitis
Pertussis
Rabis
Rubeola
Schistosomiasis
TB
Yellow fever

144
Q

infection that can be passed through vaginal, oral or anal sex.

A

STI

145
Q

Most STIs are transmitted through the exchange of sexual fluids, but some can be passed through?

A

skin to skin genital contact or through contact with blood and other bodily fluids.

146
Q

STDs are now called?

A

“sexually transmitted and blood- borne infections (STBBIs)”.

147
Q

T or F: STBBIs always has visible symptoms

A

F, may or may not

148
Q

Common STBBIs

A

Chlamydia
Herpes
Gonorrhea
Hepa ABC

149
Q

Chlamydia is an infection caused by the bacterium?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

150
Q

Genital herpes is an infection caused by?

A

Herpes simplex

151
Q

People with genital herpes remain infected for how long?

A

For the rest of their lives

152
Q

T or F: Chlamydia infections always show symptoms

A

People with chlamydia most often do not show symptoms.

153
Q

Gonorrhea is an infection caused by the bacterium?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

154
Q

T or F: A person can have gonorrhea more than once in his or her life.

A

T

155
Q

attacks and weakens the immune system.
infected person is then affected by various other diseases and infections.

A

HIV

156
Q

In time, if the HIV infection is not treated, it can develop into?

A

AIDS

157
Q

T or F: People with HIV/AIDS can get well

A

NO

158
Q

What is HPV?

A
  • Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
159
Q

Other infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis

A
  • Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)
160
Q

Syphilis is an infection caused by the bacterium?

A

Treponema pallidum.

161
Q

T or F: People who were infected with syphilis may be infected without knowing

A

T

162
Q

Preventive medical treatment started immediately after exposure to pathogen(HIV) in order to prevent infection by the pathogen and the development of the disease;

A

Post-exposure Prophylaxis

163
Q

Process of providing an individual with information on the biomedical aspects of HIV AIDS, and emotional support to any psychological implications of under going HIV testing and the test result itself before the individual is subjected to the test;

A

Pre-test Counseling

164
Q

process of providing risk- reduction information and emotional support to a person who submitted to HIV testing at the time the result is released;

A

Post-test Counseling

165
Q

“index client”, “source”, or “patient” who has a sexually transmitted infection (STI) including HIV, is given support in order to notify and advise the partners that have been exposed to infection.

A

Partner Notification

166
Q

voluntary agreement of a person to undergo or be subjected to a procedure based on full information, whether such permission is written or conveyed verbally;

A

Informed Consent

167
Q

groups or persons at higher risk of HIV exposure, or affected populations whose behavior make them likely to be exposed to HIV or to transmit the virus;

A

Key Affected Populations

168
Q

legal principle that recognizes the capacity of some minors to consent independently to medical procedures, if they have been assessed by qualified health professionals to understand the nature of procedures and their consequences to make a decision on their own;

A

Mature Minor Doctrine

169
Q

core duty of medical practice where the information provided by the patient to health practitioner and his/her health status is kept private and is not divulged to third parties.

A

Medical Confidentiality

170
Q

T or F: There is HPV vaccine for men

A

F, only for women

171
Q

Can also happen when new strains of known disease- causing organisms appear.

A

Re-emergence

172
Q

The majority of STIs (have/do not have) symptoms

A

Do not have

173
Q

HIV is a ____; it hides in the ___

A

retrovirus; cells

174
Q

HIV must enter the ___ for infection

A

Bloodstream

175
Q

T or F: Kissing spreads HIV

A

F

176
Q

______ viruses circulate and cause seasonal epidemics of disease.

A

Influenza A and B

177
Q

What subtype of influenza: detected less frequently and usually causes mild infections

A

C

178
Q

What subtype of influenza: primarily affect cattle and are not known to infect or cause illness in people.

A

D

179
Q

Break the Chain: steps of infection prevention

A
  1. Stop the source
  2. Block exit portal
  3. Interrupt MOT
  4. Protect entry portal
  5. Increase host defensiveness
180
Q

How do vaccines work?

A

Weak or dead bacteria introduced via injection in the patient
WBCs activated to produce antibodies

181
Q

T or F: Not everyone infected with TB bacteria becomes sick.

A

T

182
Q

One cough can release _____ droplet nuclei. (TB)

A

3,000

183
Q

As few as ___ M. tuberculosis MTB bacilli are necessary for human infection

A

five

184
Q

Is TB curable?

A

Yes

185
Q

The treatment for TB is?

A

a combination of 3-4 anti-TB drugs.

186
Q

What instance can worsen TB condition?

A

prescribing a SINGLE DRUG for TB treatment

187
Q

What kind of TB: resistant to isoniazid and rifampacin

A

MDR-TB

188
Q

Influenza A viruses are classified into subtypes based on combinations of?

A

Hemagglutinin (HA) and Neuraminidase (NA)

189
Q

Influenza circulating in humans?

A

A(H1N1) & A(H3N2)

190
Q

continuously monitors the influenza viruses circulating in humans and updates the composition of influenza vaccines

A

WHO Global Influenza Surveillance and Response System (GISRS)

191
Q

WHO Global Influenza Surveillance and Response System (GISRS) monitors influenza virus how often?

A

2x/year

192
Q

Large family of viruses with widely-spaced projections or spikes on the outer surface of the envelope, suggestive of a solar corona.

A

COVID

193
Q

Coronavirus disease (COVID-19) caused by?

A

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2)

194
Q

COVID is transmitted between?

A

animals-humans = zoonotic

195
Q

SARS virus originated in a nonhuman host, most likely ___, was amplified in ____, and was transmitted to humans in live animal markets

A

bats
palm civets

196
Q

MERS-CoV likely originated in ___ and became widespread in ____.

A

bats
camels

197
Q

In the case of the 2019 coronavirus, there is some evidence it went from a ___ to a _____ before infecting a human in Huanan Market, Wuhan, China

A

bat
pangolin

198
Q

In the case of COVID, the results of aerosols of particles are more likely from medical procedures such as_____,_____ and ______

A

manual ventilation, suction, and bronchoscopy.

199
Q

Dengue vector?

A

Mosquitoes of the Aedes group, especially Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus are responsible for transmission

200
Q

Aedes mosquitos also spread?

A

Zika, Chikungunya, and other viruses

201
Q

Dengue is endemic where?

A

endemic throughout the tropics and subtropics

202
Q

Dengue incidence increased ___ over the last 50 years

A

30-fold

203
Q

Dengue fever is most common in?

A

Southeast Asia

204
Q

”Asian” genotypes of ____ and _____ are associated with severe disease accompanying _______

A

DENV-2 and DENV-3
secondary dengue infections

205
Q

PH is ranked ___ in dengue burden in southeast Asia

A

4th

206
Q

Peak season of dengue in PH

A

rainy season (May – November)

207
Q

Case fatality of Dengue in PH

A

Case fatality rate 0.55%

208
Q

Economic burden of Dengue in PH?

A
  • loss of productivity
  • premature death
  • increased healthcare cost
  • reduction in tourism
209
Q

____ is one important driver of the current distribution and incidence of dengue.

A

Climate

210
Q

_____ was the most important predictor of distribution of dengue

A

temperature

211
Q

_____ of the primary Aedes mosquito vectors are expanding. This may lead to a greater burden of dengue in low- and middle-income countries.

A

The geographic ranges

212
Q

When should dengue be suspected?

A

when a high fever (40°C/104°F) is accompanied by 2 of the following symptoms: severe headache, pain behind the eyes (retro-orbital pain), muscle and joint pains, nausea, vomiting, swollen glands or rash

213
Q

Diagnosis of Dengue

A

Positive tourniquet test
low white cell count
Virus cell culture
PCR: Nucleic Acid Detection [ RT-PCR ]
Viral antigen detection : NS1 (nonstructural protein 1)
Antibody testing (Serological test): ELISA

214
Q

T or F: There is treatment for dengue

A

F

215
Q

Case management of dengue?

A
  • Maintaining proper fluid balance
  • Daily follow up and oral rehydration therapy
  • Intravenous hydration
  • Blood transfusion
216
Q

T or F: No prophylaxis is available to prevent dengue

A

T

217
Q

At present, the main method to prevent the transmission of dengue virus is to?

A

combat vector mosquitoes

218
Q

The World Health Organization recommends what program?

A

Integrated Vector Control program

219
Q

Vector control includes?

A

Biologic control
Chemical control
Environmental management

220
Q

BIOLOGIC CONTROL consists of?

A

Breeding of fish
Predatory copepods

221
Q

Used to eliminate mosquitoes from larger containers used to store potable water

A

Fish

222
Q

most commonly used for biologic control in dengue; adapt well to confined water bodies

A

Guppies

223
Q

Chemical control consists of?

A

Indoor Residual Spraying
Space Sprays

224
Q

application of long-acting chemical insecticides on the walls and roofs of all in a given area

A

Indoor Residual Spraying

225
Q

Massive , rapid destruction of the adult vector population
Recommended for control only in emergency situations to suppress an ongoing epidemic
Method of release: aircraft, vehicle,, hand held equipment

A

Space Sprays

226
Q

Environmental control includes?

A

Environmental modification, manipulation
Changes to human habitation or behavior

227
Q

Environmental manipulation consists of?

A
  • Mosquito-proofing of water-storage containers
  • Solid waste management
  • Street cleaning
  • Building structures
228
Q

Improvement of water supply and water- storage systems

A

Environmental modification

229
Q

Dengue immunization vaccine is?

A

Dengvaxia

230
Q

Dengvaxia: The live attenuated dengue vaccine ____ has been shown in clinical trials to be efficacious and safe in persons who have had a previous dengue virus infection

A

CYD-TDV

231
Q

carries an increased risk of severe dengue in those who experience their first natural dengue infection after vaccination

A

Dengvaxia

232
Q

For countries considering vaccination as part of their dengue control program, what is a recommended strategy?

A

Pre-vaccination screening

233
Q

Decisions about implementing a pre- vaccination screening strategy will require ______ at the ______ level, including consideration of the sensitivity and specificity of available tests and of local priorities, dengue epidemiology, country- specific dengue hospitalization rates, and affordability of both CYD-TDV and screening tests.

A

careful assessment; country

234
Q

should be considered as part of an integrated dengue prevention and control strategy

A

Vaccine

235
Q

Infect the mosquito population with bacteria of the genus?

A

WOLBACHIA

236
Q

What is WOLBACHIA?

A

self-perpetuating intracellular bacteria with disease blocking action, makes mosquito resistant to dengue virus

237
Q

Rate of spread of Wolbachia in Aedes populations appears very (slow/fast)

A

Slow

2nd Year 2nd Term (38 decks)

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