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(1) HC-130J > MQF > Flashcards

MQF Flashcards

1
Q

A WARNING is an:

A

Operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.

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2
Q

A CAUTION is an

A

Operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.

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3
Q

A NOTE is an

A

Operating procedure, technique, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize

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4
Q

The aural alert and the MASTER WARNING and MASTER CAUTION lights for some ACAWS alerts are inhibited for takeoff between _____ to _____ knots or _____ to _____ feet AGL. However, the caution or advisory message is listed on the ACAWS display and the associated aural alert is presented as soon as the inhibit phase is over. Aural alerts remain active during touch and go landings unless airspeed decreases to less than or equal to ______ KIAS on the runway with power levers below FLT IDLE.

A

70, 140, 0, 400, 60

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5
Q
  1. Maximum airspeed if encountering severe turbulence is:
A

c. 181 KIAS

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6
Q
  1. Maximum landing gear and landing light extended speeds are:
A

a. 168 KIAS, 250 KIAS

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7
Q
  1. What is the maximum airspeed for 50% flaps?
A

b. 183 KIAS

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8
Q
  1. Maximum airspeed with inoperative windshield anti-ice protection below 10,000 ft MSL is:
A

d. 187 KIAS

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9
Q
  1. Turning with the brakes locked on the inside of the turn is prohibited. While turning the airplane, avoid hard or abrupt brake application or braking to a stop, since damage to the landing gear and/or supporting structure may result. If any of the above occurs:
A

a. Record it in the appropriate maintenance forms.

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10
Q
  1. The maximum tire ground speed (knots) for the nose wheel is :
A

d. 139

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following must be operational prior to entering RVSM airspace?
A

d. Both A and B are correct

a. One autopilot, including altitude hold
b. IFF, including Mode C

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12
Q
  1. Static propeller feathering is limited to ____ cycles. A cycle is counted each time the aux feather pump is used to drive the propeller from feather to reverse and back to feather.
A

2, 4

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13
Q
  1. If aircraft is not pointed into the wind +/- 45 degrees and the crosswind component is greater than 15 knots but less than 35 knots:
A

c. 2500 HP max until the airplane speed is >35 kts.

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14
Q
  1. The APU start light should extinguish _____ .
A

d. At approximately 50% RPM

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15
Q
  1. What is the APU starter duty cycle?
A

b. 1 minute on and 4 minutes off

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16
Q
  1. What are the limits for fuel unbalance between wings (excluding AUX tank fuel)?
A

b. 1,500 lbs

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17
Q
  1. What are the limits for fuel unbalance between a symmetrical pair of tanks (main or external)?
A

a. 1,000 lbs

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18
Q
  1. APU maximum continuous EGT is ____ degrees C.
A

680

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19
Q
  1. APU bleed air can be used during flight.
A

b. FALSE

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20
Q
  1. The APU must be on speed and warmed up a minimum of before applying a bleed air load.
A

b. 1 minute

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21
Q
  1. If APU EGT exceeds ____ degrees C for longer than ____ seconds, the APU OVERTEMP (C) ACAWS alerts the crew to reduce APU loading.
A

a. 710, 3

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22
Q
  1. Do not operate with the autopilot engaged:
A

d. All the above

a. During ILS coupled approaches below 200 feet (CAT 1), 100 feet (CAT 2) AGL or when flying over the localizer transmitter
b. At or below 500ft AGL/AWL except for approaches and operational necessity
c. In RVSM airspace unless the autopilot is able to maintain altitude within +/- 65 feet of ATC assigned flight level at all times during normal cruise (steady, level flight in non-turbulent conditions).

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23
Q
  1. What color denotes an extreme range on engine instrument indications?
A

c. Red

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24
Q
  1. What color(s) on engine instrument indicators indicates the Normal Operating Range
A

b. Green or White

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25
Q
  1. During ground operations, limit horsepower to ______ when oil temperature is less than 0 degrees C and to ______ when engine oil temperature is less than 45 degrees C.
A

c. Idle, 1000 HP

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26
Q
  1. The engine starter duty cycle is:
A

b. 70 seconds on, 60 seconds off, for 5 cycles, then a 20 minute cooling time is required

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27
Q
  1. The minimum batteries voltage allowed for takeoff is ______ VDC. Replace battery if voltage is less than ______ VDC.
A

b. 24,22

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28
Q
  1. Operating the aircraft in severe icing conditions or in freezing rain/drizzle is not recommended and should be avoided.
A

a. TRUE

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29
Q
  1. For a circling approach, maintain approach speed until established on final approach.
A

a. TRUE

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30
Q
  1. During engine start, a single white box is displayed around all nine parameters for the engine being started. A white timer is displayed below the HP dial to indicate how long the starter engagement has been activated. The box and timer are removed at the completion of the start cycle (normally at ___ ).
A

c. 65% NG

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31
Q
  1. Normal hydraulic operating pressure should be indicated _.
A

c. Within 30 seconds after NP is on speed

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32
Q
  1. The engine ice protection system must be on for taxi and take-off when operating in visible moisture with an ambient temperature of ______ degrees C or less
A

d. 10

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33
Q
  1. Entry and exit to the airplane using the left and right paratroop doors is prohibited during ground operations while the engines are operating in ___________.
A

c. HOTEL mode and flaps are extended

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34
Q
  1. Descents below 5000’ with the wing and empennage ice protection systems operating require a minimum power setting on 2 engines of ____ horsepower per engine.
A

b. 750

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35
Q
  1. The wing/empennage ice protection system should not be operated in _____ mode except during approach and landing.
A

b. Anti-Ice

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36
Q
  1. Before shutdown, the engines are normally shifted to LSGI and operated for ____ before shutdown to more gradually cool engine components and prolong engine life.
A

d. 2 minutes

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37
Q
  1. The engines can be safely shutdown from normal ground idle, if required.
A

a. TRUE

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38
Q
  1. Engine shutdowns on the ground are divided into two categories. For all ACAWS WARNINGS (red master warning light and tone), pull the FIRE handle and then place the ENGINE START switch to STOP. For all other engine shutdowns on the ground, including normal shut downs and shut downs for ACAWS CAUTIONS and ADVISORIES, place the ENGINE START switch to STOP.
A

a. TRUE

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39
Q
  1. For approaches when icing conditions have been encountered within 6 minutes of landing, increase approach and threshold speeds with 100% flaps by ____knots, approach and threshold speeds with 50% flaps by ______knots and approach and threshold speeds with 0% flaps by_____knots.
A

a. 6, 10, 20

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40
Q
  1. Fuel tank quantity indicators are reliable even in conditions other than level flight.
A

b. FALSE

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41
Q
  1. When performing cross-ship manifold priming, ensure FUEL PRESS indicator reads_____PSI when the No 1 MAIN transfer switch is placed to FROM and the X SHIP switch is opened. Check FUEL PRESS indicator decreases approximately ______ PSI when the No 4 MAIN transfer switch is placed to TO.
A

c. 28 to 40, 20

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42
Q
  1. What temperature would you use cold weather procedures?
A

d. 32 degrees F/0 degrees C and below

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43
Q
  1. The recommended fuel management for approach and full stop landings is:
A

a. Tank-to-engine operation

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44
Q
  1. During the power up checklist, if battery voltage is between _____ and _____ VDC, recharge or replace the battery and rerun the battery test.
A

c. 22, 24

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45
Q
  1. The APU may be operating during application of de-icing fluid.
A

b. FALSE

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46
Q
  1. Low fuel state operations are defined as those operations that result in the airplane landing at destination with less than _____ lbs of fuel.
A

b. 6,000

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47
Q
  1. When the airplane will land with less than ____ pounds of fuel, inform ATC that a FUEL EMERGENCY exists.
A

c. 3,000

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48
Q
  1. The APU may shut down without an associated ACAWS message. If this occurs:
A

d. Maintenance action is required prior to APU restart.

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49
Q
  1. If engine oil temperature before start is ≤ 0 degrees C, operate the engine in HOTEL mode until engine oil temperature is above_____ degrees C and rising.
A

b. 15

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50
Q
  1. What is the minimum amount of fuel in the No. 2 main tank that will normally allow the APU to start and run without setting the No. 2 engine start switch to RUN?
A

b. 2,000 lbs

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51
Q
  1. It is permitted to select AUTONAV when only one of the CNI-MUs show the correct present position.
A

b. FALSE

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52
Q
  1. Above what temperature would you use Hot Weather procedures?
A

a. 95 degrees F/35 degrees C

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53
Q
  1. (Airplane s modified by TCTO 1C-130-2098, Carbon Brakes) Fusible plug release is likely after the second consecutive (i.e.: within 15 minutes between individual stops) full anti-skid braking operation (aborted takeoff, engine out/flaps up landing, etc.) above ________________pounds. Fusible plug release is unlikely to occur with a single aborted takeoff at gross weights up to ________________ pounds.
A

b. 130, 000; 175,000

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54
Q
  1. If hot brakes are suspected, the area on both sides of the wheel will be cleared of personnel and equipment for at least ______ ft. If conditions require personnel to be close to any overheated wheel, approach should be from ______.
A

d. 300, fore or aft

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55
Q
  1. Peak temperatures occur in the brake assembly from approximately_____ minutes and in the wheel and tire assembly from approximately_____ minutes after a maximum braking operation.
A

c. 1 to 5, 20 to 30

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56
Q
  1. When comparing the indicated altitude to the elevation of a known check point, the maximum allowable error is +/- ______ ft for the pilot, copilot and standby altimeters.
A

b. 40

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57
Q
  1. Do not illuminate the landing lights for more than _____ seconds on the ground, unless sufficient air flow exists for cooling from engine operation or taxi.
A

10

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58
Q
  1. Turn off the NESA HEAT switch (affected windows) if :
A

d. All the above.

a. Electrical arcing is observed in any of the panels.
b. The panels are excessively hot to the touch.
c. Any of the panels containing thermistors are not heating.

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59
Q
  1. Do not commence an engine start if MGT is above degrees C. Motor the engine, if necessary.
A

b. 175

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60
Q
  1. Before attempting a ground engine restart, wait seconds after NG reaches zero (0) to enable a successful test of the NG independent over-speed protection circuit.
A

c. 30

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61
Q
  1. During a ground engine start, if fuel has been sprayed into the engine without ignition, motor the engine for at least _______.
A

b. 30 seconds

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62
Q
  1. During a normal ground engine start, if the FADEC has automatically aborted the start:
A

c. Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP.

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63
Q
  1. Minimum bleed air pressure for sustaining an engine start is ______ PSI. A momentary drop below this is acceptable when the starter valve opens.
A

b. 22

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64
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an ACAWS condition requiring the FIRE handle to be pulled and the ENGINE START switch to be placed to STOP during an engine start.
A

d. ENG 1 (2, 3, 4) FLAMEOUT caution

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65
Q
  1. During ground starts, the FADEC automatically shuts down the engine start sequence for:
A

d. Both A and C are correct

a. ENG 1 (2,3, or 4) FLAMEOUT caution
c. ENG 1 (2,3, or 4) STAGNATED START advisory

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66
Q
  1. Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP if no NG is present____ seconds after placing the ENGINE START switch to START.
A

c. 10

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67
Q
  1. The ENGINE START switch must be placed to STOP if no indication of engine oil pressure is indicated by ENG 1(2, 3, or 4) NO OIL PRESS (C) ACAWS message.
A

a. TRUE

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68
Q
  1. The fire handle must be pulled if no indication of propeller gearbox oil pressure is indicated by GBOX 1 (2, 3, or 4) NO OIL PRESS (C) ACAWS message.
A

b. FALSE

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69
Q
  1. During ground engine starts, pull the fire handle and place the ENGINE START switch to STOP if MGT rapidly approaches or exceeds _____.
A

c. 807 degrees C

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70
Q
  1. If torching (visible fire in the tailpipe for more than a few seconds), sparks in the exhaust or excessive smoke occurs during engine start:
A

c. Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP

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71
Q
  1. If OAT is above ____ degrees F and the wing/empennage and vertical tail boot ice protection test must be repeated, wait at least _____ minutes to prevent overheating the vertical tail.
A

a. 70, 10

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72
Q
  1. CAUTION: A _______ minute cool down period is required between stick pusher activations to prevent damage to the stick pusher actuator.
A

b. 5

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73
Q
  1. The last autopilot engaged determines the flight director source.
A

a. TRUE

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74
Q
  1. The propeller overspeed governor test may be attempted with oil temperature greater than or equal to ____ degrees C. If the test fails, retest when oil temperature is greater than or equal to ____ degrees C.
A

b. 45, 60

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75
Q
  1. The propeller overspeed governor test may fail up to _____ consecutive time(s) before maintenance action is required.
A

b. 2

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76
Q
  1. Turning the _____ switches on with 3 or more power levers at FLT IDLE or greater can result in the stick pusher automatically turning off.
A

d. Pitot heat

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77
Q
  1. The maximum crosswind component for takeoff is _____ at weights above 105,000 lbs. At lower weights the limit varies linearly down to 23 knots at 80,000 lbs.
A

b. 35

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78
Q
  1. If predicted climb out flight path is not required, raise the flaps passing FUSS, Vobs + 25 but not less than ______ KIAS.
A

c. 135

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79
Q
  1. Maximum recommended airspeed (Vh) must not be exceeded in greater than ________ turbulence or structural damage may occur.
A

a. Light

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80
Q
  1. NOTE: Wing/empennage anti-icing mode should be turned on in sufficient time prior to landing to ensure the vertical stabilizer is completely anti-iced. This may take as long as ______. Failure to do so will cause the X-WIND LIMITED ACAWS message to be displayed when the landing gear are lowered, and the sideslip warning system will limit crosswind landing capability if icing is detected.
A

c. 2.5 minutes

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81
Q
  1. The normal flap setting for landing is %
A

100

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82
Q
  1. At the first indication of directional control difficulties during 4 engine reverse thrust, immediately return all power levers to the position until the affected engine can be identified.
A

b. Ground idle

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83
Q
  1. If one BETA indication does not illuminate after the power levers are brought to ground idle and no other associated ACAWS occurs, there is a remote possibility that directional control difficulties will occur as airspeed slows. If necessary for directional control:
A

a. The engine fire handle should be pulled on the engine without the BETA indication.

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84
Q
  1. Do not move the power levers below FLT IDLE above _____ KTAS. Moving the power levers below FLT IDLE above this speed can lead to all engine-driven generators tripping off-line due to an over-frequency condition caused by excessively high propeller RPM transients. Anti-skid protection will be lost resulting in increased landing distance.
A

d. 145

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85
Q
  1. During a crosswind landing if continuous BANK ANGLE or SIDE SLIP alerts occur or LEFT or RIGHT RUDDER alert occurs, crosswinds may be too high to land safely.
A

a. TRUE

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86
Q
  1. To preclude excessive side loads on the landing gear, avoid crab angles over degrees during landings.
A

b. 5

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87
Q
  1. For a WINDSHEAR alert during takeoff or approach, or GCAS PULL UP alert:
A

d. Both A and C should be performed.

a. Set TAKEOFF power and level the wings.
c. Pitch immediately to 15 degrees nose up, then adjust pitch to maintain approximately 10 knots above the stall warning caret.

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88
Q
  1. To prevent an abnormal shutdown of the EGI, delay turning off AC power for approximately _____ seconds or until ECB 499 indicates open.
A

35

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89
Q
  1. You plan to airstart a shutdown engine. The FIRE handle is IN, the propeller is stopped, and NG is <7%. According to the airstart scenario table, you must complete the airstart within ___________.
A

d. 3 minutes

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90
Q
  1. A stopped propeller is defined as rotation _________%NP or _________ RPS (visual)
A

a. ≤3%, 1/2 RPS

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91
Q
  1. During takeoff, if engine failure occurs after reaching refusal speed set ______.
A

b. 2-5 degrees of bank into the operating engines

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92
Q
  1. On a two-engine inoperative go-around, do not raise the FLAPS lever above because low boost will be set and there may be insufficient rudder control available for full two engine power.
A

d. 20%

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93
Q
  1. If both tires of the right main landing gear are flat:
A

a. Land on the left side of the runway

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94
Q
  1. During manual flap extension, is there protection against asymmetrical flaps operation?
A

b. No

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95
Q
  1. When either the CREW DOOR OPEN or RAMP OPEN PRESSURIZED ACAWS message is displayed, the pilot or copilot will immediately notify what?
A

a. Crew and passengers to fasten seat belts

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96
Q
  1. During an airstart, the FADEC will not allow the starter to engage or the start sequence to begin unless NG is ______%
A

a. Less than 29

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97
Q
  1. During the airstart procedure, allow up to _____ after NG stabilizes for the onset of propeller (NP) rotation.
A

d. 2 minutes

98
Q
  1. Select the correct statement concerning AC Bus power sources:

a. If the APU generator is on line, the APU will power the essential and main AC buses regardless of the ON/OFF condition of the other generators.
b. If the APU is the only generator on line, it will only power the essential AC bus.
c. If only engine driven generators #1, #2, and #4 are on line, #1 will power the LH AC bus, #2 will power the essential AC bus, and #4 will power the main and RH AC buses.
d. If only engine driven generators #1, and #2 are on line, #1 will power the LH and essential buses, and #2 will power the main and RH buses.

A

c. If only engine driven generators #1, #2, and #4 are on line, #1 will power the LH AC bus, #2 will power the essential AC bus, and #4 will power the main and RH AC buses.

99
Q
  1. A main tank boost pump is turned on by:
A

b. Rotating the appropriate ENGINE START switch to the RUN position.

100
Q
  1. Fuel transfer pumps are turned on by placing the transfer switch to:
A

a. FROM

101
Q
  1. What is the primary measure of engine power?
A

b. HP

102
Q
  1. Below 15,500 feet with the other engines running normally, when the FADEC detects autofeather criteria for an inboard engine it will:
A

b. Autofeather after a two-second delay

103
Q
  1. Above 15,500 feet, if the FADEC detects autofeather criteria it will:
A

d. Both A and B

a. Autofeather an outboard propeller without delay
b. Windmill an inboard propeller at 100% RPM

104
Q
  1. If the oil cooler flaps switches fail, how can you operate the system?
A

d. Through the CNI-MU oil cooler flaps soft panel

105
Q
  1. How many smoke detectors are there on the airplane and where are they?
A

d. 4, 3 in the cargo compartment and 1 in the underdeck avionics compartment

106
Q
  1. The engine FIRE handle when pulled:
A

d. Both A and B are correct.

a. Closes the firewall fuel shutoff valve.
b. Signals the FADECs to feather the propeller and shutdown the engine.

107
Q
  1. Manifold bleed air pressure can be read on the:
A

c. Bleed Air Control Panel

108
Q
  1. Fuel for the APU is routed directly from the fuel tank.
A

b. Number 2 main

109
Q
  1. When the APU fire handle is pulled the following occurs:
A

d. All of the above

a. APU door closes as RPM decreases to approximately18% RPM
b. Control power to the APU start circuit is interrupted
c. Fire extinguisher system directional flow valve is positioned

110
Q
  1. The Booster hydraulic system supplies hydraulic power to:
A

b. A portion of the flight control boost system

111
Q
  1. Identify the system powered by the Utility hydraulic system:
A

b. Flaps

112
Q
  1. Identify the system powered by the AUX hydraulic system:
A

c. Emergency brakes

113
Q
  1. Each engine driven hydraulic pump has an internal flow compensator to vary output volume with system demand, and to control pressure to maintain approximately _______ PSI.
A

b. 3,000

114
Q
  1. When the flaps are extended more than approximately _____ percent and the landing gear is not down and locked, the landing gear warning audio will sound. It cannot be silenced until the landing gear is down and locked or the flaps are repositioned to less than _____ percent.
A

b. 70, 70

115
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions automatically shut off both the air conditioning units?
A

c. Both A and B are correct

a. During engine start, an ENGINE START switch is placed to START
b. During the wing/empennage and vertical tail boot ice protection test

116
Q
  1. How is the underfloor heat turned on?
A

c. By placing the underfloor switch to the HEAT/FAN position.

117
Q
  1. In automatic mode, the aircraft should not begin to pressurize until:
A

d. The power levers are advanced above flight idle

118
Q
  1. Which of the following Ice Protection systems are not triggered by the ice detectors?
A

a. Pitot heat

119
Q
  1. In the anti-icing mode, the zone control valves operate the same as the deice mode except the vertical tail zone control valves remain open continuously.
A

a. TRUE

120
Q
  1. What method of ice protection is used on the propellers?
A

b. Electric heat

121
Q
  1. The oxygen system uses diluter-demand automatic pressure regulators and operates at an indicated pressure of ___________in a static system under a no-flow condition. Under a continuous breathing condition the pressure should indicate_________.
A

b. 270-455 PSI, 270-340 PSI

122
Q
  1. On a C-130J model the oxygen system uses ____ oxygen and the manual shutoff valve is located on the ___side of the cargo compartment forward bulkhead.
A

b. Liquid, Right

123
Q
  1. The C-130J has _____ portable oxygen bottles.
A

c. 4

124
Q
  1. The pilot is manually flying the aircraft level at 10,000 ft MSL. The HUD and PFD altitude reference displays read 5,000 ft. Select the correct statement below.

a. As a pilot descends through 5,000 ft going to 4,000 ft, they receive an audio message ‘Thousand to Go’
b. If the pilot presses the ALT SEL knob, the reference barometric altitude on the PFDs and HUDs will synchronize to the current 10,000 ft altitude
c. The HUD and PFD will show a flashing ‘CHECK ALTITUDE’ message because the aircraft altitude has deviated more than 200 ft from the reference altitude

A

b. If the pilot presses the ALT SEL knob, the reference barometric altitude on the PFDs and HUDs will synchronize to the current 10,000 ft altitude

125
Q
  1. The altimeter setting reads “29.98 in HG” on the pilot’s PFD. The pilot is advised by Approach Control that the altimeter setting is 1013 MB. Select the correct statement below.

a. The pilot can press the BARO SET knob on the Ref Set panel and the altimeter setting will reset to 1013 MB, or they can dial the setting to 1013 MB
b. The pilot directs the copilot to set 1013 MB in the altimeter setting. The pilot verifies this by looking at the pilot’s HUD and PFD and observing the altimeter setting changing to 1013
c. The pilot uses the AMU PFD page to select millibars. Next they press the BARO SET knob to set the altimeter to 1013 MB, or they can rotate the BARO SET knob to achieve the correct setting.
d. The pilot uses the CNI-MU to select the ‘MB’ setting. Next, they press the BARO SET knob to set 1013 MB

A

c. The pilot uses the AMU PFD page to select millibars. Next they press the BARO SET knob to set the altimeter to 1013 MB, or they can rotate the BARO SET knob to achieve the correct setting.

126
Q
  1. The pilot presses the A/T ON (Autothrottle) switch. Select the correct statement:

a. Autothrottles will not engage unless the IAS is set to ± 10 knots of the aircraft’s current indicated airspeed
b. Autothrottles will engage and the IAS will be automatically set to the aircraft’s current indicated airspeed
c. Autothrottles will engage and smoothly advance or retard the throttles to capture the IAS set in the REF SET panel
d. The only way to disengage autothrottles is to press the go-around button on either control wheel

A

b. Autothrottles will engage and the IAS will be automatically set to the aircraft’s current indicated airspeed

127
Q
  1. What will happen if both mission computers fail?
A

b. BIU back-up mode

128
Q
  1. If one Mission Computer (MC) is lost, what is the reduction in capability?
A

a. None

129
Q
  1. Select the correct statement.

a. A new ACAWS message appears in inverse video for ten seconds.
b. ACAWS audio is broadcast over the cargo compartment ICS
c. An ACAWS warning message can be stored
d. If a Caution and Warning are activated simultaneously, both aural alerts are sounded simultaneously.

A

a. A new ACAWS message appears in inverse video for ten seconds.

130
Q
  1. What are the alert levels for ACAWS?
A

d. Special Alerts, Warnings, Cautions, and Advisories

131
Q
  1. What radios may be operated from the Get Home Control panel?
A

c. UHF 1 and VHF 1

132
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the CAT 2 sub-mode of the HUD:
A

d. All the above are correct

a. Both ILS are tuned to the same frequency
b. Localizer is selected as CDI source for both HUDs
c. HUD control panels CAT 2 button is pressed

133
Q
  1. GCAS alerts are given higher priority than TCAS alerts. TCAS changes to TA ONLY mode automatically during an active GCAS alert.
A

a. TRUE

134
Q
  1. TCAS is designed never to issue resolution advisories that would put the airplane outside the performance envelope.
A

b. FALSE

135
Q
  1. Which statements regarding TCAS are correct?
A

d. B and C are correct

b. The limits of TCAS detection are 40 NM off the nose, 15 NM off the sides, and 12 NM on the tail
c. TCAS changes to TA ONLY mode automatically when the cargo door/ramp are open

136
Q
  1. TCAS resolution advisories are displayed _.
A

d. Both B and C are correct

b. As a “fly to” box on the HUD with corner tics
c. Using a tape type VVI in color with the fly-to area in green on the PFD

137
Q
  1. The target symbol for a traffic advisory (TA) is a .
A

c. Yellow-filled circle

138
Q
  1. In the weather mode of the radar, turbulence information is not available:
A

b. For range scales greater than 80 NM

139
Q
  1. Excessive precipitation, the most severe rate, is depicted as on the color weather radar.
A

b. Magenta

140
Q
  1. Turbulence is depicted as in the weather radar mode.
A

c. White

141
Q
  1. Windshear hazard is processed and displayed for up to NM of range coverage.
A

b. 5

142
Q
  1. Select the correct statement concerning the common cursor.

a. Provides capability to locate a particular position on the full channel NAV-radar display
b. Provides capability to locate a particular position on the digital map display.
c. Provides capability to locate a particular position on the HUD
d. Provides capability to do all the above simultaneously.

A

d. Provides capability to do all the above simultaneously.

143
Q
  1. The common cursor modes available via the cursor control panel include all the following except:
A

b. Aircraft

144
Q
  1. Pulling the computer cursor switch to its first detent and releasing causes the cursor mode to change to:
A

b. Computer cursor

145
Q
  1. When the Wing and Empennage Ice Protection switch is placed in the AUTO or ON position and ice is detected, the system will turn on once the pilot’s airspeed is greater than ______ KIAS.
A

a. 60

146
Q
  1. Which fuels are recommended or acceptable fuels for use in the HC-130J?
A

d. All of the above

a. JP-8
b. JP-5
c. TS-1

147
Q
  1. Placement of the flaps lever at or greater than the _____ position will activate diverter valves to bypass the pressure reducers, thereby permitting hydraulic fluid at approximately ________ psi to reach the booster assembly. This doubles the available actuating pressure and reduces the pilot effort required to achieve desirable surface travel with asymmetrical power at low airspeeds.
A

c. 15, 3000

148
Q
  1. In the event of a total AC electrical failure, the ______ will supply a minimum of ______ minutes of power to the standby instruments.
A

b. utility battery, 30

149
Q
  1. The Gearbox Mounted Accessory Drive (GMAD) is mounted on the rear of the Propeller Gearbox (PGB). Which of the following does the GMAD not supply the pads and drives for:
A

c. Air Turbine Starter

150
Q
  1. The Power Unit Accessory Drive (PUAD) is mounted on the bottom of the forward end of the compressor air inlet housing. The PUAD supplies mounting flanges for:
A

e. Both A and C

a. Fuel Pump and Metering Unit (FPMU)
c. Permanent Magnetic Alternator (PMA) Stator

151
Q
  1. The pneumatic systems are served by the bleed air system include:
A

d. All of the above

a. Engine anti-ice, engine starters, and oil cooler augmentation
b. Wing and empennage ice protection and deicing boot
c. Cabin Air conditioning and pressurization systems

152
Q
  1. If suspected or actual inflight damage, fuel imbalance, or differential airspeed occurs that may cause aircraft control problems will require a _____ prior to landing.
A

a. Controllability Check

153
Q
  1. List the 4 general steps to handling aircraft emergencies: (Fill in the Blank)
A

a. Stabilize the aircraft.
b. Analyze the situation.
c. Take coordinated corrective action.
d. Manage/monitor the resulting situation.

154
Q
  1. Below _____ AGL/AWL, bank angle shall not exceed ______ of altitude or ______ degrees, whichever is less.
A

b. 1000 ft, 10%, 35

155
Q
  1. Both pilots will occupy the pilot seats during all operations below _____ AWL/AGL.
A

c. 1000 ft

156
Q
  1. All maneuvering turns should be conducted above AGL/AWL.
A

d. 300 ft

157
Q
  1. Minimum altitude for normal four engine operations is ______ AWL; ______ may be used for identification passes during day VMC conditions (no slower than approach speed).
A

a. 200 ft, 100ft

158
Q
  1. If either HUD is not available, the minimum altitude AWL/AGL is limited to ______ ft.
A

c. 200

159
Q
  1. When making operational descents, the rate of descent shall not exceed_____ FPM during the last _____ ft prior to MDA. If good visual contact with the surface is not made at the minimum descent altitude, the descent shall be aborted and an immediate climb initiated.
A

b. 500, 1000

160
Q
  1. A climb to at least ______ft should be made prior to commencing any turns.
A

d. 300

161
Q
  1. If ______ is inoperative or considered unreliable, the MDA shall be increased to allow adequate clearance from surface objects (vessels, icebergs, offshore structures, islands, etc).
A

c. Radar

162
Q
  1. In the event that both radar altimeters are inoperative, the following minimums apply:
A

e. Both A and B

a. Night Unaided/IMC – 1000 ft AWL/AGL
b. Day VMC/NVG – 300 ft AWL/AGL

163
Q
  1. Maximum normal gross weight is ____ lbs. Maximum alternate gross weight is _____ lbs and requires Commanding Officer waiver.
A

a. 155,000 ; 164,000

164
Q
  1. Maximum gross weight to allow a 540 FPM landing sink rate is ______. Above that weight, the maximum landing sink rate is ________ FPM.
A

b. 130,000; 300

165
Q
  1. For rates of sink from 300 to 540 FPM, fuel limits are as follows: (Fill in the blank)
A

a. Tanks 1 and 4: 6600 lb each
b. Main tanks total: 25,000 lb
c. Auxiliary tanks: No restrictions
d. External tanks (if installed): Less than or equal to 500 lb each

166
Q
  1. To be within primary Fuel Management, Tanks 1 and 4 shall contain ______ to ______ lb more fuel per tank than tanks 2 and 3 except when usable fuel is less than ______ lbs.
A

c. 500, 1000, 6000

167
Q
  1. To be within Primary Fuel management, main tanks are full, except fuel used for taxi, takeoff and climb; but not less than _______ lb in tanks 1 and 4 and not less than ______ lb in tanks 2 and 3, when the external and/or auxiliary tanks contain usable fuel.
A

b. 7560; 6812

168
Q
  1. The fuel unbalance limits between the left and right wings are:
A

c. 1500

169
Q
  1. The nose gear deflection limits for 60 degrees is_________: (Fill in the blank)
A

b. 5 kts

170
Q
  1. The maximum ground speed for the main landing gear is kts.
A

d. 174

171
Q
  1. To avoid fuel freezing, fuel temperature should not be lower than above the fuel freeze point defined in the Fuel Availability Chart. The fuel temperature should be considered to be equal to the TAT.
A

e. Both A and B

a. 6 deg F, TAT
b. 3.3 deg C, TAT

172
Q
  1. The maximum airspeed for flaps 70% is:
A

c. 155

173
Q
  1. The maximum airspeed for flaps 100% is:
A

a. 145

174
Q
  1. The maximum speed to have the ramp open (cargo door open or closed) is:
A

b. 250

175
Q
  1. The maximum speed for the paratroop air deflector doors is:
A

d. 150

176
Q
  1. The maximum speed for the paratroop door open and locked is:
A

c. 250

177
Q
  1. The maximum speed for the paratroop doors opening or closing or opening but not locked is:
A

a. 150

178
Q
  1. The landing gear limits for extension and retraction is .
A

a. Less than or equal to 19 secs

179
Q
  1. On Coast Guard missionized aircraft, ICS will not function without AC power.
A

a. TRUE

180
Q
  1. Normal bleed includes all but:
A

b. Wing and empennage ice protection

181
Q
  1. Closing the nacelle shutoff valves will not provide bleed off torque schedules. For bleed off engine performance:
A

d. Do all of the above

a. Turn both air conditioners off
b. Set the UNDERFLOOR switch to FAN
c. Set the WING/EMP ice protection switch to OFF

182
Q
  1. In preparation for takeoff, the tower reports the wind with a 6 knot gust increment. You should add:
A

a. 6 knots to rotation speed.

183
Q
  1. Increase the rotation speed due to crosswind only when evaluating maximum effort takeoff procedures.
A

a. True

184
Q
  1. A WET runway condition corresponds to a RCR of _.
A

c. 12

185
Q
  1. An ICY runway condition corresponds to a RCR of _.
A

c. 5

186
Q
  1. Apply _____% of headwind component to brake limits and takeoff and landing distances and _____% of headwind component for climb out flight path calculations.
A

b. 50 / 0

187
Q
  1. Apply ____% of tailwind component to brake limits, takeoff and landing distances, and climb out flight path obstacle distances.
A

d. 150

188
Q
  1. Always increase rotation speed, obstacle clearance speed, approach speed, threshold speed, and touchdown speed by the full gust increment not to exceed 10 knots.
A

a. TRUE

189
Q
  1. For a safe takeoff, the runway available must be______ than the critical field length.
A

d. A or B

a. Equal to
b. Greater than

190
Q
  1. _______ is based on runway available and is defined as the maximum speed to which the airplane can accelerate with engines at takeoff power and then stop within the remainder of the runway available, with two-engines (symmetrical power) in reverse, one engine in ground idle, one propeller feathered, and maximum anti-skid braking.
A

d. Refusal Speed

191
Q
  1. The Automatic Thrust Control System (ATCS) decreases which of the following:
A

d. B & C

b. One-Engine-Inoperative Air Minimum Control Speed (VMCA)
c. Ground Minimum Control Speed (VMCG)

192
Q
  1. Ground Minimum Control Speed is based on the following conditions and restrictions except:
A

a. Nosewheel steering

193
Q
  1. Adjusted maximum effort rotation speed is scheduled to ensure that liftoff speed is greater than:
A

d. Both A and B

a. One-engine-inoperative air minimum control speed
b. Three engine minimum liftoff speed

194
Q
  1. All the following conditions determine one-engine-inoperative air minimum control speed except:
A

d. A bank angle greater or equal to 5 degrees towards the failed engine.

195
Q
  1. Ground minimum control speed is not considered for both the maximum effort and adjusted maximum effort speed schedules.
A

a. True

196
Q
  1. For normal operations, planning a takeoff and climb-out over an obstacle should be done on the basis of _____ performance.
A

b. 3-engine

197
Q
  1. Cruise ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and best climb speed _____ fpm.
A

c. 300

198
Q
  1. Service ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is _______ fpm.
A

a. 100

199
Q
  1. Basic assumptions for the landing distance charts include a 1-second allowance for distance traveled during transition from touchdown to taxi attitude and maximum anti-skid braking and power selection achieved upon reaching taxi attitude.
A

a. TRUE

200
Q
  1. Even short term deviations outside of +/- ________ feet of the active flight plan entered cruise altitude will cause misleading time navigation indications. Either returning the airplane to within programmed flight path parameters or changing the entered cruise altitude to reflect actual flight conditions will restore accurate time navigation predictions.
A

d. 2,150

201
Q
  1. There is a limit of ______ waypoint spaces allotted for the flight plan and the alternate flight plan including the primary and alternate destinations.
A

b. 60

202
Q
  1. Which of the following occurs when the MSTR AV ON function on the POWER UP page is initially selected?
A

a. VHF and UHF radios are turned on.

203
Q
  1. A VNAV profile on the LEGS page using an altitude suffix of “C” defines:
A

d. A or B

a. Fixed Start of Climb (SOC)
b. Fixed Bottom of Descent (BOD)

204
Q
  1. The FROM/TO page allows for entry of two reference points and a selected groundspeed, and computes the bearing, distance, and time between the two points. To find bearing distance from your present position to the ECG VORTAC, enter ______________.
A

d. B or C

b. /ECG
c. PPOS/ECG

205
Q
  1. The critical engine for VMCA is the #__________ engine.
    The critical engines for VMCA2 is the #_______, & #______engines.
A

d. 1, 1 & 2

206
Q
  1. Brake creep during normal takeoffs may be accounted for by reducing runway available in the TOLD INIT 1/2 page by _______ feet or by minimizing the distance used to position the aircraft on the runway. If the brakes are released within _____ seconds of setting power to TAKEOFF, the difference will be less than ____ feet.
A

c. 40, 10, 40

207
Q
  1. The CNI-MU can provide highly accurate estimate of time remaining and fuel required, but requires several inputs to calculate. They are:
A

e. All of the above

a. Cruise IAS
b. Altitude
c. Wind (if known)
d. Fuel Burn

208
Q
  1. With brakes fully applied and engine at maximum power, forward movement (brake creep) at ___ feet per second (_____ knots) or less is acceptable. (Airplanes modified by TCTO 1C-130-2098, Carbon Brakes)
A

b. 4, 2.4

209
Q
  1. (6.0 Aircraft) The new Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (AAIM) allows C130J aircraft to to utilize new Area Navigation (RNAV) capabilities. Select the operations below that utilizing AAIM allows the aircraft to fly;

a. RNAV approaches
b. RNAV Departure Procedures (DP and SID)
c. RNAV-2 (Q and T routes)
d. Answer B & C
e. All of the above

A

d. Answer B & C

b. RNAV Departure Procedures (DP and SID)
c. RNAV-2 (Q and T routes)

210
Q
  1. (6.0 Aircraft) Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (AAIM) allows a C130J aircraft to fly RNAV approaches
A

b. FALSE

211
Q
  1. Utilizing a RNAV SID/DP or STAR using Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (AAIM) You may manually input data into the CNI-MU if the waypoints are not listed in the database.
A

b. FALSE

212
Q
  1. Propeller stopped is defined as rotation __________ NP or _______________ RPS (visual).
A

Ans. ≤ 3%, ≤1/2

213
Q
  1. When is it acceptable to risk the damage to or sacrifice of the aircraft and crew?
A

d. National defense

214
Q
  1. When no suitable alternatives exist and the mission has a reasonable chance of success, the risk of damage to or abuse of the aircraft is acceptable, even though such damage or abuse may render the aircraft unrecoverable. Probable loss of the aircrew is not an acceptable risk. This is an example of warranted risk for:
A

a. Saving human life

215
Q
  1. When a mission is likely to prevent pain or relieve intense pain or suffering, or it may result in the possibility of saving human life, it warrants the risk of damage to or abuse of the aircraft if recovering the aircraft can be reasonably expected.
A

a. True

216
Q
  1. If a mission is likely to save property of the United States or its citizens, it warrants the risk of damage to the aircraft no matter the value of the property or if the aircraft cannot be recovered.
A

b. False

217
Q
  1. The possibility of recovering evidence and interdicting or apprehending alleged violators of federal law does not warrant probable damage to or abuse of the aircraft. This guidance applies to flight activities performed during missions such as: Drug and Migrant Interdiction, routine PWCS, routine Defense Readiness, Marine Environmental Protection, Living Marine Resources, and other Law Enforcement missions.
A

a. True

218
Q
  1. Logistics or other missions having little or no urgency can be prosecuted if they expose the aircraft to hazards greater than those encountered during the course of routine training missions. This guidance applies to flight activities performed during missions such as: Marine Safety, Ice Operations, ATON, and Waterways Management missions.
A

b. False

219
Q
  1. If a precautionary landing is made away from home station for observed or suspected aircraft malfunctions or damage, the PIC shall ensure that a proper inspection of the aircraft is conducted by competent maintenance personnel and the results reported to the home station’s engineering officer or other qualified maintenance officer. If the reported malfunction is determined to be minor and not a threat to the safety of the crew or aircraft who, except in the most unusual of circumstances, should clear the aircraft for further flight?
A

c. Commanding Officer

220
Q
  1. During preflight planning, at a minimum, the PIC shall be familiar with:
A

d. All of the above

a. Applicable performance data at all intended and alternate airfields
b. Weather for the route of flight NOTAMS
c. Special use airspace

221
Q
  1. The PIC of any fixed-wing aircraft shall ensure the aircraft meets or exceeds the published climb gradient with for the departure method being used.
A

b. One engine inoperative

222
Q
  1. Commanding Officer approval is required for departures using visual obstacle avoidance (see-and-avoid) in lieu of meeting the required climb gradient.
A

a. True

223
Q
  1. When no climb gradient is published, the aircraft must be able to climb at _____ feet per nautical mile or greater with one engine inoperative.
A

a. 152

224
Q
  1. Acceptable sources of weather data include government-sanctioned aviation weather services and dedicated aviation weather subscription services. Before an IFR flight, obtain and record a comprehensive weather briefing. This weather briefing does not need to include all items contained in a “Standard Briefing” as defined in the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
A

b. False

225
Q
  1. Fuel reserve shall be at least that required for ____ minutes of flight after reaching the alternate (for fixed-wing aircraft). In any case, fuel carried on departure will be at least ____ percent more than that required to reach the alternate airfield via destination.
A

d. 45,10

226
Q
  1. The PIC of a Coast Guard aircraft shall file a written or computerized domestic, military or ICAO flight plan prior to each flight, except when:
A

d. All of the above

a. Departing on an urgent SAR, National Defense, LAW enforcement or Homeland Security mission
b. Local VFR flight
c. When required for operational security

227
Q
  1. For VFR flights scheduled to return to the flight’s point of origin, complete the Local “Mission Route” section of the Pre-Mission and Service Record within ALMIS Electronic Asset Logbook (EAL). A paper Pre-Mission and Service Record may not be substituted if required due to EAL malfunctions.
A

b. False

228
Q
  1. Flights of Coast Guard aircraft shall be conducted in accordance with IFR, whenever practical. When operating under VFR, use radar advisory services when convenience allows.
A

b. False

229
Q
  1. A commanding Officer may authorize a CP in lieu of the FP on a calculated risk basis for maintenance flights.
A

a. True

230
Q
  1. All flights shall comply with weather requirements of this section based on the actual weather at the point of departure, the forecast weather en route, and the forecast at both the destination and alternate for the period beginning ___ before until _____ after the estimated time of arrival (ETA) at each point.
A

b. 1 hr, 1 hr

231
Q
  1. The following standard takeoff minimums apply in the absence of published nonstandard minimums for the departure airport:
    Meteorological visibility of __ statute mile for non-operational missions
    Meteorological visibility of ____statute mile for operational missions
    When urgency of the mission dictates, the Commanding Officer of the parent unit may authorize a takeoff below these minimums. This authority ______ delegated to deployed Aircraft
A

b. One half, one quarter, may be

232
Q
  1. When departure airport weather is ____ takeoff minimums but _____ approach minimums, a departure alternate is required. For four-engine aircraft the departure alternate must be not more than___ hour(s) from the departure airport at ____ cruising speed computed for no wind conditions. IFR departures which require a departure alternate are not authorized for training flights or flights with a FP in command.
A

a. Above, below, 2, 3 engine

233
Q
  1. No clearance shall be authorized for destinations at which there is no Terminal Aerodrome Forecast available, or the forecast weather will be below compatible approach minimums (ceiling and visibility) upon arrival unless an alternate airport is available at which forecast weather conditions are equal to or better than the following:

Ceiling is at least ____ feet above the airport elevation or at least ____ feet above the lowest compatible approach minimum, whichever is higher. Visibility is at least ____ statute miles

A

c. 2000, 400, 3

234
Q
  1. An alternate destination is required on all instrument flights plans except when the forecast weather at the first intended landing (for each point of intended landing on a stopover flight plan) meets the following conditions for a period ____ before to _____ after the ETA:

Ceiling is at least _____ feet above the airport elevation, or _____ feet above the lowest compatible approach minimum, whichever is higher.
Visibility is at least _____ statute mile

A

d. 1 hr, 1 hr, 2000, 400, 3

235
Q
  1. If the destination is an island or other remote location where an alternate is unavailable, the ____ of the unit to which the aircraft is attached will determine the amount of holding time that must be planned in lieu of an alternate; in no case shall this be less than ____ .
A

b. Commanding Officer, 1 hr

236
Q
  1. Flight into turbulence shall be conducted in accordance with the _____. All flights shall ____ thunderstorms. Fixed-wing flights shall avoid areas of know (reported or verified) _____ turbulence and turbulence.
A

a. Aircraft flight manual, avoid, severe, extreme

237
Q
  1. Weather at the destination alternate must be forecast to be at or above the specified weather from ____ before to ____ after ETA at the destination alternate. For fixed-wing aircraft, weather must be equal to or greater than published non-standard alternate minimums. If none are specified, the ceiling must be at least ____ feet and visibility statute miles for airports served by a compatible non-precision approach, and ceiling at least ___ feet and visibility ____ statute miles for airports served by a compatible precision approach; but weather at the alternate shall not be lower than the lowest compatible circling minimums as specified in current flight information publications.
A

b. 1 hr, 1 hr, 800, 2, 600, 2

238
Q
  1. Resorts and beaches shall be avoided by fixed-wing aircraft by at least _____ when at an absolute altitude of less than _____ . This limitation is waived when these areas are over flown for the conduct of an operational mission, in normal en route flights on airways, or in compliance with an approved traffic or approach pattern.
A

d. 1 mile, 2000 ft

239
Q
  1. When fuel must be dumped in a controlled environment:
A

d. All the above are true.

a. Do not dump fuel less than 5,000 ft above the terrain.
b. Do not dump in a circular pattern.
c. Ensure the crossfeed valves are closed to prevent emptying the main tanks completely.

240
Q
  1. An asterisk (*) at the end of an ACAWS message indicates:
A

d. Other associated components may have been affected by the failure

241
Q
  1. The fire and overheat detection system (F/ODS) monitors for indications of .
A

a. Fire and overheat

242
Q
  1. Select the correct statement that best describes procedures that must be observed utilizing Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (AAIM) when flying in RNAV airspace.

a. The navigation database must be current
b. RNAV DP’s and STAR procedures must be retrieved by procedure name from the onboard navigation database
c. The Flight Director/Autopilot must be coupled to the INAV route (CDI SRC set to INAV, AFCS mode in NAV CAPT)
d. TACANs are set to AUTOTUNE
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

a. The navigation database must be current
b. RNAV DP’s and STAR procedures must be retrieved by procedure name from the onboard navigation database
c. The Flight Director/Autopilot must be coupled to the INAV route (CDI SRC set to INAV, AFCS mode in NAV CAPT)
d. TACANs are set to AUTOTUNE

(1) HC-130J (15 decks)

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