Molecular Basis of Inheritance NCERT Flashcards

1
Q

Over the next hundred years, the nature of the putative genetic material was investigated, culminating in the realization that ___________ – is the genetic material, at least for the majority of organisms.

A

DNA – deoxyribonucleic acid

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2
Q

Two types of nucleic acids found in living systems are-

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid(RNA)

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3
Q

_________ acts as the genetic material in most organisms.

A

DNA

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4
Q

RNA acts as a genetic material in some _______

A

viruses

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5
Q

RNA though it also acts as a genetic material in some viruses, mostly functions as a __________.

A

messenger

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6
Q

RNA has additional roles as well. It functions as _________, ________, and in some cases, as a catalytic molecule.

A

adapter, structural

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7
Q

The determination of complete nucleotide sequence of human genome during last decade has set in a new era of ________.

A

Genomics

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8
Q

DNA is a long polymer of ________

A

deoxyribonucleotides

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9
Q

The length of DNA is usually defined as the number of _____________ present in it

A

nucleotides

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10
Q

A pair of nucleotides is referred as ________

A

base pairs

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11
Q

A bacteriophage known as phi ×174 has ____ nucleotides

A

5386

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12
Q

Bacteriophage lambda has _____ base pairs (bp)

A

48502 base pairs

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13
Q

Escherichia coli has ____ bp

A

4.6 × 10^6 bp

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14
Q

Haploid content of human DNA is ____ bp

A

3.3 × 10^9 bp

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15
Q

A nucleotide has three components -

A

a nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar and a phosphate group

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16
Q

Pentose sugar in the case of RNA is

A

ribose

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17
Q

Pentose sugar in case of DNA is

A

deoxyribose

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18
Q

There are two types of nitrogenous bases –

A

Purines and Pyrimidines

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19
Q

Name two Purines

A

Adenine and Guanine

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20
Q

Name three Pyrimidines

A

Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine

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21
Q

Which pyrimidines is common for both DNA and RNA?

A

Cytosine

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22
Q

Which pyrimidine is present only in RNA?

A

Uracil

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23
Q

Which pyrimidine is present only in DNA?

A

Thymine

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24
Q

In a nucleoside, a nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of _________ by N-glycosidic linkage.

A

1’ C pentose sugar

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25
Q

A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1’ C pentose sugar through a _______________ linkage to form a nucleoside

A

N-glycosidic

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26
Q

A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1’ C pentose sugar through an N-glycosidic linkage to form a

A

nucleoside

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27
Q

Name the nucleoside present in the RNA

A

adenosine, guanosine, cytidine, uridine

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28
Q

Name the nucleoside present in the DNA

A

deoxyadenosine, deoxyguanosine, deoxycytidine & deoxythymidine

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29
Q

A phosphate group is linked to OH of

A

5’ C of a nucleoside

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30
Q

A phosphate group is linked to OH of 5’ C of a nucleoside through

A

phosphoester linkage

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31
Q

When a phosphate group is linked to OH of 5’ C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage, a corresponding ____is formed.

A

nucleotide

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32
Q

When a phosphate group is linked to OH of 5’ C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage in DNA, a corresponding _____ is formed

A

deoxynucleotide

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33
Q

Two nucleotides are linked through ______ linkage.

A

3’-5’ phosphodiester

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34
Q

Two nucleotides are linked through 3’-5’ phosphodiester linkage to form a

A

dinucleotide

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35
Q

A polynucleotide chain formed has at one end a free phosphate moiety at 5’ -end of sugar, which is referred to as

A

5’-end of polynucleotide chain

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36
Q

At the other end of the polymer the sugar has a free OH of 3’C group which is referred to as

A

3’ -end of the polynucleotide chain

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37
Q

The backbone of a polynucleotide chain is formed due to ____________ and __________

A

sugar and phosphates

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38
Q

In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional –OH group present at _______________ in the ribose

A

2’ -position

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39
Q

In RNA the ____________ is found at the place of thymine.

A

uracil

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40
Q

Another chemical name for thymine is

A

5-methyl uracil

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41
Q

DNA, as an acidic substance present in nucleus was first identified by

A

Friedrich Meischer

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42
Q

In which year, DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was first identified?

A

1869

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43
Q

Friedrich Meischer named DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus as

A

Nuclein

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44
Q

Name two scientists who proposed a very simple but famous Double Helix model for the structure of DNA.

A

James Watson and Francis Crick

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45
Q

Name two scientists who produced data based on X-ray diffraction.

A

Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin

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46
Q

Who gave the observation that for a double-stranded DNA, the ratios between Adenine and Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine are constant and equal one?

A

Erwin Chargaff

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47
Q

For a double-stranded DNA, the ratios between Adenine and Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine are constant and equals ______.

A

One

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48
Q

What confers a unique complementary property to the polynucleotide chains?

A

base pairing

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49
Q

DNA strands are said to be __________ to each other, and therefore if the sequence of bases in one strand is known, then the sequence in other strand can be predicted

A

complementary

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50
Q

If each strand from a DNA acts as a template for the synthesis of a new strand, the two double-stranded DNA thus, produced would be identical to the___________ molecule.

A

parental DNA

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51
Q

Double-helix structure of DNA is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is constituted by

A

sugar-phosphate

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52
Q

The two DNA chains have _____ polarity

A

anti-parallel polarity

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53
Q

If one chain has the polarity 5’ —–>3’, the other has __________.

A

3’ —–>5’

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54
Q

The bases in two strands are paired through ________________ forming base pairs (bp).

A

hydrogen bond (H-bonds)

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55
Q

Adenine forms ____ bonds with Thymine from opposite strand

A

two hydrogen bonds

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56
Q

Guanine is bonded with Cytosine with

A

three H-bonds

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57
Q

A _______ comes opposite to a pyrimidine in base pairing.

A

purine

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58
Q

A purine comes opposite to a pyrimidine. This generates approximately _________ between the two strands of the helix

A

uniform distance

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59
Q

The two chains are coiled in a ______________ fashion.

A

right-handed

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60
Q

The pitch of the helix is _____

A

3.4 nm

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61
Q

A nanometre is ___ of a metre

A

one billionth

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62
Q

There are roughly ____ bp in each turn.

A

10

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63
Q

The distance between a bp in a helix is approximate ________

A

0.34 nm

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64
Q

The plane of one ____ stacks over the other in double-helix

A

base pair

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65
Q

Which two things confer stability of the helical structure?

A

H-bonds & Stacking of plane of one base pair over the other

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66
Q

The proposition of a _________ structure for DNA and its simplicity in explaining the genetic implication became revolutionary.

A

double helix

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67
Q

Francis Crick proposed the _____________ in molecular biology

A

Central dogma

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68
Q

Who proposed the Central dogma in molecular biology?

A

Francis Crick

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69
Q

The Central dogma in molecular biology states that the genetic information flows from ____

A

DNA →RNA →Protein

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70
Q

In some viruses, the flow of information is from ____ to ____

A

RNA to DNA

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71
Q

The length of DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is calculated by multiplying the __________ of bp with __________ bp.

A

total number, distance between two consecutive

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72
Q

The length of DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is approximate _____

A

2.2 meters

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73
Q

The dimension of a typical nucleus is approximate ___

A

10^(–6) m

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74
Q

In prokaryotes, such as E. coli, though they do not have a defined ________, the DNA is not scattered throughout the cell.

A

nucleus

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75
Q

In prokaryotes, DNA is held with some proteins in a region termed as

A

‘nucleoid’

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76
Q

The DNA in nucleoid is organized in large loops held by ________.

A

proteins

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77
Q

In eukaryotes, there is a set of positively charged, basic proteins called

A

histones

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78
Q

A protein acquires charge depending upon the abundance of ________ residues with charged side chains.

A

amino acids

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79
Q

Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues ________ & __________

A

lysine & arginine

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80
Q

Lysine and arginine carry _______ charges in their side chains.

A

positive

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81
Q

Histones are organised to form a unit of eight molecules called

A

histone octamer

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82
Q

The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a structure called

A

nucleosome

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83
Q

A typical nucleosome contains ____ of DNA helix

A

200 bp

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84
Q

Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of a structure in nucleus called

A

chromatin

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85
Q

Chromatin is a thread-like ____ seen in nucleus.

A

stained (coloured) bodies

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86
Q

The nucleosomes in chromatin are seen as ___ structure when viewed under an electron microscope (EM).

A

beads-on-string

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87
Q

The beads-on-string structure in chromatin is packaged to form ________

A

chromatin fibers

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88
Q

Chromatin fibers are further coiled and condensed at which stage to form chromosomes?

A

metaphase stage

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89
Q

Chromatin fibers are further coiled and condensed at the metaphase stage of cell division to form ______

A

chromosomes

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90
Q

The packaging of chromatin at a higher level requires an additional set of proteins that collectively are referred to as

A

Non-histone Chromosomal (NHC) proteins

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91
Q

In a typical nucleus, some regions of chromatin are loosely packed, and stains light are referred to as

A

euchromatin

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92
Q

The chromatin that is more densely packed and stains dark is called as

A

Heterochromatin

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93
Q

Euchromatin is said to be ____ chromatin

A

transcriptionally active

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94
Q

Heterochromatin is said to be ____ chromatin

A

transcriptionally inactive

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95
Q

Who discovered nuclein?

A

Friedrich Meischer

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96
Q

By the year _____, the quest to determine the mechanism for genetic inheritance had reached the molecular level.

A

1926

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97
Q

Previous discoveries by _______, _____ , ___________and numerous other scientists had narrowed the search to the chromosomes located in the nucleus of most cells.

A

Gregor Mendel, Walter Sutton, Thomas Hunt Morgan

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98
Q

In which year Frederick Griffith witnessed a miraculous transformation in the bacteria.

A

1928

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99
Q

Who witnessed a miraculous transformation in the bacteria in a series of experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

Frederick Griffith

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100
Q

Frederick Griffith, in a series of experiments with __________, witnessed a miraculous transformation in the bacteria.

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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101
Q

Which bacterium is responsible for pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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102
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria is also known as

A

pneumococcus

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103
Q

When Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria are grown on a culture plate, some produce ____ while others produce _______

A

smooth shiny colonies (S) & rough colonies (R).

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104
Q

The S strain bacteria have a ______ coat

A

mucous

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105
Q

Mice infected with the _________ die from pneumonia infection but mice infected with the _________ do not develop pneumonia.

A

S strain (virulent), R strain

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106
Q

Griffith was able to kill bacteria by _______ them.

A

heating

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107
Q

Griffith observed that __________ bacteria injected into mice did not kill them.

A

heat-killed S strain

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108
Q

When Griffith injected a mixture of heat-killed S and ________ bacteria, the mice died.

A

live R

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109
Q

Griffith recovered living _____ from the dead mice.

A

S bacteria

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110
Q

Griffith concluded that the R strain bacteria had somehow been transformed by the _______ strain bacteria.

A

heat-killed S

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111
Q

Some ‘transforming principle,’ transferred from the heat-killed S strain, had enabled the R strain to synthesize a _____________ and become virulent.

A

smooth polysaccharide coat

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112
Q

The ________ nature of genetic material was not defined from Griffith’s experiments.

A

biochemical

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113
Q

Prior to 1933-44, the genetic material was thought to be a __________.

A

protein

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114
Q

____________, ____________, and ____________ worked together to determine the biochemical nature of the ‘transforming principle’ in Griffith’s experiment.

A

Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty

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115
Q

Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty purified biochemicals (proteins, DNA, RNA, etc.) from the ___________ to see which ones could transform live R cells into S cells.

A

heat-killed S cells

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116
Q

Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty discovered that _____ alone from S bacteria caused R bacteria to become transformed.

A

DNA

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117
Q

Which two enzymes did not affect transformation?

A

proteases & RNases

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118
Q

Protein-digesting enzymes are called

A

proteases

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119
Q

RNA-digesting enzymes are called

A

RNases

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120
Q

The transforming substance was not a _______

A

protein or RNA

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121
Q

Digestion with ________ did inhibit transformation, suggesting that the DNA caused the transformation.

A

DNase

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122
Q

The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of

A

Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase

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123
Q

Viruses that infect bacteria are called

A

bacteriophages

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124
Q

The bacteriophage attaches to the bacteria, and its ___________ then enters the bacterial cell.

A

genetic material

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125
Q

___________ and _______________ worked to discover whether it was protein or DNA from the viruses that entered the bacteria.

A

Hershey and Chase

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126
Q

Hershey and Chase grew some viruses on a medium that contained __________ and some others on a medium that contained _________

A

radioactive phosphorus & sulphur

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127
Q

Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive ____ but not radioactive ______.

A

DNA ; protein

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128
Q

Protein contains ____ while DNA doesn’t

A

sulphur

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129
Q

DNA contains ____ while protein doesn’t

A

phosphorus

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130
Q

Radioactive phages were allowed to attach to ________ bacteria.

A

E. coli

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131
Q

As the infection proceeded, the viral coats were removed from the bacteria by agitating them in a ___________.

A

blender

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132
Q

The virus particles were separated from the bacteria by spinning them in a ___

A

centrifuge

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133
Q

Bacteria that were infected with viruses that had radioactive ________ were not radioactive.

A

proteins

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134
Q

________ did not enter the bacteria from the viruses.

A

Proteins

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135
Q

______ is therefore the genetic material that is passed from virus to bacteria

A

DNA

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136
Q

_____ acts as genetic material.

A

DNA

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137
Q

Examples of virus having RNA as the genetic material:-

A

Tobacco Mosaic & QB bacteriophage

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138
Q

A molecule that can act as a genetic material should be able to generate its ________.

A

replica

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139
Q

A molecule that can act as a genetic material should be stable _______ and ___________.

A

chemically, structurally

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140
Q

A molecule that can act as a genetic material should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are required for _________.

A

evolution

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141
Q

A molecule that can act as a genetic material should be able to express itself in the form of ______________.

A

‘Mendelian Characters’

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142
Q

Because of rule of ___________ and __________, both the nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) have the ability to direct their duplications.

A

base pairing, complementarity

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143
Q

The genetic material should be stable enough not to change with different stages of _______, ____, or with change in ________ of the organism.

A

life cycle, age, physiology

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144
Q

_________ as one of the properties of genetic material was very evident in Griffith’s ‘transforming principle’ itself.

A

Stability

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145
Q

In Griffith’s ‘transforming principle’ heat, which killed the _______, at least did not destroy some of the properties of genetic material.

A

bacteria

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146
Q

The two DNA strands being _____________ if separated by heating, come together, when appropriate conditions are provided.

A

complementary

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147
Q

_____ group present at every nucleotide in RNA is a reactive group

A

2’-OH group

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148
Q

2’-OH group present at every nucleotide in RNA makes it __________ and _________

A

labile and easily degradable

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149
Q

RNA is also known to be ___________, hence reactive.

A

catalytic

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150
Q

DNA chemically is less _______ and structurally more ________ when compared to RNA.

A

reactive, stable

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151
Q

Among the two nucleic acids, the ______ is a better genetic material.

A

DNA

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152
Q

In fact, the presence of _________ at the place of ______ also confers additional stability to DNA.

A

thymine, uracil

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153
Q

Both ___ and _____ are able to mutate.

A

DNA, RNA

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154
Q

In fact, RNA being unstable, ________ at a faster rate.

A

mutate

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155
Q

Viruses having _____ genome and having shorter ______ mutate and evolve faster.

A

RNA, life span

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156
Q

RNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins, hence can easily express the _____.

A

characters

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157
Q

DNA, however, is dependent on RNA for synthesis of __________.

A

proteins

158
Q

The protein synthesizing machinery has evolved around ______.

A

RNA

159
Q

DNA being more stable is preferred for storage of __________.

A

genetic information

160
Q

For the transmission of genetic information, which nucleic acid is better?

A

RNA

161
Q

For the storage of genetic information, which nucleic acid is better?

A

DNA

162
Q

_________ was the first genetic material.

A

RNA

163
Q

There is now enough evidence to suggest that essential life processes (such as ___________, etc.), evolved around RNA.

A

metabolism, translation, splicing

164
Q

There are some important biochemical reactions in living systems that are catalysed by ______ and not by protein enzymes.

A

RNA catalysts

165
Q

RNA being a catalyst was reactive and hence __________.

A

unstable

166
Q

_______ has evolved from ______ with chemical modifications that make it more stable.

A

DNA, RNA

167
Q

DNA being double stranded and having complementary strand further resists changes by evolving a process of ________.

A

repair

168
Q

Who and in which year quoted this statement: ‘‘It has not escaped our notice that the specific pairing we have postulated immediately suggests a possible copying mechanism for the genetic material”?

A

Watson and Crick, 1953

169
Q

After the completion of replication, each DNA molecule would have one parental and one newly synthesized strand. This scheme was termed as

A

semiconservative DNA replication

170
Q

DNA replicates semi conservatively and it was first shown in-

A

Escherichia coli

171
Q

_________________ and _____________ performed the experiment in _______ to prove that DNA replicates semi conservatively?

A

Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl, 1958

172
Q

The heavy isotope of nitrogen is

A

15N

173
Q

Heavy DNA molecule could be distinguished from the normal DNA by centrifugation in a _________

A

cesium chloride (CsCl) density gradient

174
Q

E. coli divides in _______ minutes

A

20 minutes

175
Q

Experiments involving use of radioactive thymidine to detect distribution of newly synthesized DNA in the chromosomes were performed on-

A

Vicia faba

176
Q

________ and colleagues in the year ______ proved that the DNA in chromosomes also replicates semi conservatively.

A

Taylor and colleagues in 1958

177
Q

In living cells, such as E. coli, the process of replication requires a set of ________.

A

catalysts (enzymes)

178
Q

The main enzyme in DNA replication is referred to as ___________

A

DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

179
Q

DNA-dependent DNA polymerase uses a DNA template to catalyze the polymerisation of _______

A

deoxynucleotides

180
Q

The enzymes are highly _______ enzymes as they have to catalyze the polymerization of a large number of nucleotides in a very short time.

A

efficient

181
Q

The DNA content of E. coli ___________ bp.

A

4.6 ×10^6

182
Q

E. coli completes the process of replication within _____ minutes.

A

18 minutes

183
Q

The average rate of polymerization in E.coli has to be approximate ________ bp per second.

A

2000

184
Q

Not only do these polymerases have to be fast, but they also have to catalyze the reaction with a high degree of _________.

A

accuracy

185
Q

Any mistake during replication would result into ______

A

mutations

186
Q

DNA replication is ______ a very expensive process.

A

energetically

187
Q

_______________ serve dual purposes during replication.

A

Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates

188
Q

__________ act as substrates and provide energy for polymerization reaction?

A

Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates

189
Q

The ________________ phosphates in deoxynucleoside triphosphates are high-energy phosphates.

A

two-terminal

190
Q

In addition to DNA-dependent DNA polymerases, many additional enzymes are required to complete the process of _______ with a high degree of accuracy.

A

replication

191
Q

The two strands of DNA cannot be separated in its entire length due to very high _______ requirement.

A

energy

192
Q

The replication occurs within a small opening of the DNA helix, referred to as

A

replication fork

193
Q

The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyze polymerization only in one direction, that is _________.

A

5’→3’

194
Q

For the template with polarity 3’→5’ , the replication is _____

A

continuous

195
Q

For the template with polarity 5’–>3’, the replication is ___

A

discontinuous

196
Q

The discontinuously synthesised fragments are joined by the enzyme ________

A

DNA ligase

197
Q

The DNA polymerases on their own cannot _______ the process of replication.

A

initiate

198
Q

The replication does not initiate __________ at any place in DNA.

A

randomly

199
Q

There is a definite region in E. coli DNA where the replication originates. Such regions are termed as

A

Origin of replication

200
Q

It is because of the requirement of the __________ that a piece of DNA, if needed to be propagated during recombinant DNA procedures, requires a vector.

A

origin of replication

201
Q

The ________ provide the origin of replication.

A

vectors

202
Q

In eukaryotes, the replication of DNA takes place at ________ of the cell-cycle

A

S-phase

203
Q

The replication of DNA and _________ should be highly coordinated.

A

cell division cycle

204
Q

A failure in cell division after DNA replication results into ________

A

polyploidy

205
Q

Polyploidy is a __________ anomaly.

A

chromosomal

206
Q

The process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is termed as ____

A

Transcription

207
Q

The principle of complementarity governs the process of transcription, except the ________ complements, now forms base pair with _________ instead of thymine

A

adenosine; uracil

208
Q

In _________, only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into RNA.

A

transcription

209
Q

If both strands act as a template, they would code for RNA molecule with different __________.

A

sequences

210
Q

Both the strands are not copied during transcription because if they code for proteins, the sequence of _________ in the proteins would be different.

A

amino acids

211
Q

Both the strands are not copied during transcription because then one segment of the DNA would be coding for two different proteins, and this would complicate the ____________ machinery.

A

genetic information transfer

212
Q

If both strands were copied during transcription, the two RNA molecules if produced simultaneously would be complementary to each other, hence would form a _______

A

double-stranded RNA

213
Q

A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in the DNA:

A

(i) A Promoter
(ii) The Structural gene
(iii) A Terminator

214
Q

There is a convention in defining the two strands of the DNA in the ___________ of a transcription unit.

A

structural gene

215
Q

The strand that has the polarity 3’->5’ acts as a template and is also referred to as

A

Template strand

216
Q

The other strand which has the polarity (5’→3’) and the sequence same as RNA (except thymine at the place of uracil), is _________ during transcription.

A

displaced

217
Q

The strand which has the polarity 5’–>3’ and does not code for anything is referred to as

A

Coding strand

218
Q

All the reference point while defining a transcription unit is made with __________.

A

coding strand

219
Q

The ___________ and __________ flank the structural gene in a transcription unit

A

promoter and terminator

220
Q

The promoter is said to be located towards _________ of the structural gene

A

5’-end (upstream)

221
Q

Promoter is a DNA sequence that provides a binding site for ___________.

A

RNA polymerase

222
Q

It is the presence of a _________ in a transcription unit that also defines the template and coding strands.

A

promoter

223
Q

By switching its position with ________, the definition of coding and template strands could be reversed.

A

terminator

224
Q

The terminator is located towards ___ of the coding strand.

A

3’-end (downstream)

225
Q

The terminator is located towards 3’ -end (___________) of the coding strand.

A

downstream

226
Q

The ___ usually defines the end of the process of transcription.

A

terminator

227
Q

There are additional regulatory sequences that may be present further __________ or _________ to the promoter.

A

upstream, downstream

228
Q

A __________ is defined as the functional unit of inheritance.

A

gene

229
Q

There is no ambiguity that the genes are located on the ________.

A

DNA

230
Q

The DNA sequence coding for ______ or ________ molecule also defines a gene.

A

tRNA, rRNA

231
Q

_______ is a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide

A

Cistron

232
Q

By defining a cistron as a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide, the structural gene in a transcription unit could be said as ________

A

monocistronic or polycistronic

233
Q

Monocistronic is mostly present in

A

eukaryotes

234
Q

Polycistronic is mostly present in

A

bacteria or prokaryotes

235
Q

In __________, the monocistronic structural genes have interrupted coding sequences – the genes in ________ are split.

A

eukaryotes, eukaryotes

236
Q

The coding sequences or expressed sequences are defined as

A

exons

237
Q

Exons are said to be those sequences that appears in?

A

mature or processed RNA

238
Q

The exons are interrupted by _____

A

introns

239
Q

_____ do not appear in mature or processed RNA

A

Introns or intervening sequences

240
Q

Which arrangement further complicates the definition of a gene in terms of a DNA segment?

A

split-gene

241
Q

Inheritance of a ________ is also affected by a promoter and regulatory sequences of a structural gene.

A

character

242
Q

Sometimes the ____________ are loosely defined as regulatory genes, even though these sequences do not code for any RNA or protein.

A

regulatory sequences

243
Q

In bacteria, there are three major types of RNAs:

A

mRNA (messenger RNA), tRNA (transfer RNA), and rRNA (ribosomal RNA).

244
Q

All three RNAs are needed to synthesize a __________ in a cell

A

protein

245
Q

The mRNA provides the _______

A

template

246
Q

tRNA brings _____________ and reads the _______

A

aminoacids; genetic code

247
Q

rRNAs play ________ and ________ role during translation

A

structural and catalytic

248
Q

__________ binds to promoter and initiates transcription

A

RNA polymerase

249
Q

RNA polymerase uses ____ as substrate and polymerises in a template depended fashion

A

nucleoside triphosphates

250
Q

RNA polymerase somehow also facilitates opening of the helix and continues __________.

A

elongation

251
Q

Only a _________ of RNA remains bound to the RNA polymerase enzyme.

A

short stretch

252
Q

Once the polymerases reaches the terminator region, the nascent RNA & RNA polymerase falls off. This results in-

A

termination of transcription

253
Q

The RNA polymerase is only capable of catalyzing the process of ____________.

A

elongation

254
Q

The RNA polymerase associates transiently with __________ to initiate the transcription.

A

initiation-factor

255
Q

The RNA polymerase associates transiently with ____to terminate the transcription

A

termination-factor

256
Q

Association with the factors alters the specificity of the RNA polymerase to either ______ or _________.

A

initiate, terminate

257
Q

In bacteria, the mRNA does not require any processing to become active, and __________ and _________ take place in the same compartment.

A

transcription, translation

258
Q

There is no separation of __________ and ______ in bacteria.

A

cytosol, nucleus

259
Q

In bacteria __________ can begin much before the mRNA is fully transcribed.

A

translation

260
Q

Consequently, the transcription and translation can be _______ in bacteria.

A

coupled

261
Q

In eukaryotes, there are at least __________ in the nucleus (in addition to the RNA polymerase found in the organelles).

A

three RNA polymerases

262
Q

The ________ transcribes rRNAs in eukaryotes.

A

RNA polymerase I

263
Q

The RNA polymerase I transcribe __________

A

rRNA(28S, 18S, and 5.8S)

264
Q

The RNA polymerase III is responsible for transcription of __________, ___________ and ________

A

tRNA, 5srRNA, and snRNAs (small nuclear RNAs)

265
Q

The RNA polymerase II transcribes ____________

A

precursor of mRNA

266
Q

Precursor of mRNA is called the

A

heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)

267
Q

The primary transcripts contain both the ______ and the _____ and are non-functional.

A

exons, introns

268
Q

The primary transcripts are subjected to a process called.

A

splicing

269
Q

In splicing, the _______ are removed, and ________ are joined in a defined order.

A

introns, exons

270
Q

hnRNA undergoes additional processing called as

A

capping and tailing

271
Q

In capping an unusual nucleotide, _____________ is added to the 5’-end of hnRNA.

A

methyl guanosine triphosphate

272
Q

In tailing, ___________are added at 3’-end in a template independent manner

A

adenylate residues (200-300)

273
Q

It is the fully processed hnRNA, now called _________, that is transported out of the nucleus for translation.

A

mRNA

274
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

274
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

274
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

275
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

276
Q

The process of splicing represents the dominance of _________

A

RNA-world

277
Q

Who argued that since there are only 4 bases and if they have to code for 20 amino acids, the code should constitute a combination of bases?

A

George Gamow, a physicist

278
Q

George Gamow suggested that in order to code for all the 20 amino acids, the code should be made up of _________

A

three nucleotides

279
Q

The chemical method developed by ___________ was instrumental in synthesizing RNA molecules with defined combinations of bases (homopolymers and copolymers).

A

Har Gobind Khorana

280
Q

Whose cell-free system for protein synthesis finally helped the code to be deciphered?

A

Marshall Nirenberg

281
Q

_______ was also helpful in polymerizing RNA with defined sequences in a template-independent manner.

A

Severo Ochoa enzyme

282
Q

Severo Ochoa enzyme is a

A

polynucleotide phosphorylase

283
Q

The codon is a _______ of bases.

A

triplet

284
Q

How many codons code for amino acids?

A

61 codons

285
Q

How many codons do not code for any amino acids?

A

3 codons

286
Q

Codons which do not code for any amino acids, function as

A

stop codons

287
Q

Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon. Hence the code is _______

A

degenerate

288
Q

The codon is read in mRNA in a _____

A

contiguous fashion

289
Q

The _______ is nearly universal

A

code

290
Q

From bacteria to human, UUU would code for _____

A

Phenylalanine

291
Q

The code is nearly universal. Some exceptions to this rule have been found in-

A

mitochondrial codons, and in some protozoans

292
Q

Which codon has dual functions?

A

AUG

293
Q

AUG codes for ____, and it also act as _____

A

Methionine (met); initiator codon.

294
Q

Which codons are stop-terminator codons?

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

295
Q

A change of single base pair in the gene for beta-globin chain is a classical example of __________

A

point mutations

296
Q

A change of single base pair in the gene for beta-globin chain results in the change of amino acid residue _____ to _____

A

glutamate to valine

297
Q

A change of amino acid residue glutamate to valine results into a diseased condition called as

A

sickle cell anemia

298
Q

Insertion or deletion of one or two bases changes the reading frame from the point of insertion or deletion. Such mutations are referred to as

A

frameshift insertion or deletion mutations

299
Q

_____ acts as an adapter molecule that reads the code and also bind to specific amino acids.

A

tRNA

300
Q

tRNA has an __________ that has bases complementary to the code

A

anticodon loop

301
Q

tRNA has an amino acid ____ to which it binds to amino acids

A

acceptor end

302
Q

For initiation, there is another specific tRNA that is referred to as ____

A

initiator tRNA

303
Q

In actual structure, the tRNA is a compact molecule which looks like _____

A

inverted L

304
Q

The process of polymerization of amino acids to form a polypeptide is called.

A

Translation

305
Q

The amino acids are joined by a bond which is known as a

A

peptide bond

306
Q

Amino acids are activated in the presence of ATP and linked to their cognate tRNA–a process commonly called as

A

charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA

307
Q

The cellular factory responsible for synthesizing proteins is the _________

A

ribosome

308
Q

The ribosome consists of

A

structural RNAs and about 80 different proteins

309
Q

In its inactive state, ribosome exists as two subunits:

A

a large subunit and a small subunit

310
Q

23S rRNA in bacteria is the enzyme-

A

ribozyme

311
Q

_____ in bacteria is the enzyme called ribozyme

A

23S rRNA

312
Q

mRNA has some additional sequences that are not translated and are referred as

A

untranslated regions

313
Q

An enzyme called ________is synthesized by E. coli and is used to catalyze the hydrolysis of a disaccharide

A

beta-galactosidase

314
Q

Regulatory proteins can act both positively, called _______ and negatively called ______

A

activators; repressors

315
Q

Elucidation of the lac operon was a result of a close association between a geneticist, __________, and a biochemist, __________

A

Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod.

316
Q

In lac operon, lac refers to

A

lactose

317
Q

The lac operon consists of one regulatory gene called _____ and three structural genes called _____

A

i gene; z, y, and a

318
Q

The i gene codes for the _____

A

repressor of the lac operon

319
Q

The z gene codes for ______

A

beta-galactosidase

320
Q

The y gene codes for___

A

permease

321
Q

Permease increases permeability of the cell to ____

A

beta-galactosides

322
Q

The a gene encodes ______

A

transacetylase

323
Q

The substrate for the enzyme beta-galactosidase:

A

Lactose

324
Q

Lactose regulates ______ of the operon

A

switching on and off

325
Q

Lactose regulates switching on and off of the operon. Hence, it is termed as

A

inducer

326
Q

In the presence of an inducer, such as ___________, the repressor is inactivated by interaction with the inducer

A

lactose or allolactose

327
Q

Regulation of lac operon by a repressor is referred to as

A

negative regulation

328
Q

________ was called a mega project

A

Human Genome Project

329
Q

The total estimated cost of the Human Genome project would be approximately ____________ dollars

A

9 billion US dollars

330
Q

HGP was closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called

A

Bioinformatics

331
Q

The Human Genome Project was a ____-year project

A

13-year

332
Q

The Human Genome Project was coordinated by ________

A

The U.S. Department of Energy and the National Institute of Health.

333
Q

During the early years of the HGP, the _________ became a major partner

A

Wellcome Trust (U.K.)

334
Q

The Human Genome project was completed in ______

A

2003

335
Q

Few examples of non-human model organisms that have been sequenced are

A

bacteria, yeast, Caenorhabditis elegans (a free-living non-pathogenic nematode), Drosophila (the fruit fly), plants (rice and Arabidopsis)

336
Q

All the genes that are expressed as RNA referred to as ______

A

Expressed Sequence Tags

337
Q

A term used for assigning different regions in the sequence with functions is

A

Sequence Annotation

338
Q

The commonly used hosts were _______ and _________

A

bacteria and yeast

339
Q

The commonly used vectors were called as

A

BAC (bacterial artificial chromosomes), and YAC (yeast artificial chromosomes)

340
Q

Automated DNA sequencers worked on the principle of a method developed by

A

Frederick Sanger

341
Q

Frederick Sanger is credited for developing a method for determination of-

A

amino acid sequences in proteins

342
Q

The sequence of chromosome 1 was completed in

A

May 2006

343
Q

Repetitive DNA sequences are known as

A

Microsatellites

344
Q

The human genome contains ________ bp

A

3164.7 million

345
Q

The largest known human gene is __________ at ____________

A

dystrophin at 2.4 million bases

346
Q

The total number of genes is estimated at

A

30,000

347
Q

The functions are unknown for over ____ percent of the discovered genes.

A

50 per cent

348
Q

Less than ______ of the genome codes for proteins.

A

2 per cent

349
Q

Chromosome 1 has ____ genes

A

2968

350
Q

Chromosome Y has ___ genes

A

231

351
Q

Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where single-base DNA differences, called ______, occur in humans.

A

SNPs – single nucleotide polymorphism

352
Q

How much percent of base sequence among humans is the same?

A

99.9 per cent

353
Q

_____________ is a very quick way to compare the DNA sequences of any two individuals.

A

DNA fingerprinting

354
Q

DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called as

A

repetitive DNA

355
Q

Repetitive DNA are separated from bulk genomic DNA as different peaks during ________

A

density gradient centrifugation

356
Q

The ___________ forms a major peak, and the other small peaks are referred to as _____________

A

bulk DNA; satellite DNA

357
Q

satellite DNA sequence shows a high degree of _____

A

polymorphism

358
Q

satellite DNA sequence forms the basis of _______

A

DNA fingerprinting

359
Q

DNA from an individual show the same degree of polymorphism. They become very useful identification tools in-

A

forensic applications

360
Q

As the polymorphisms are inheritable from parents to children, DNA fingerprinting is the basis of ____

A

paternity testing

361
Q

Polymorphism (variation at genetic level) arises due to _____

A

mutations

362
Q

_______________ is described as a DNA polymorphism if more than one variant (allele) at a locus occurs in human population with a frequency greater than 0.01

A

Allelic sequence variation

363
Q

_______________ is described as a DNA polymorphism if more than one variant (allele) at a locus occurs in human population with a frequency greater than 0.01

A

Allelic sequence variation

364
Q

if an inheritable mutation is observed in a population at high frequency, it is referred to as ____

A

DNA polymorphism.

365
Q

The technique of DNA Fingerprinting was initially developed by

A

Alec Jeffreys

366
Q

Alec Jeffreys used a __________ as a probe that shows very high degree of polymorphism

A

satellite DNA

367
Q

A satellite DNA that shows a very high degree of polymorphism is called as

A

Variable Number of Tandem Repeats(VNTR)

368
Q

Examples of synthetic membranes-

A

nitrocellulose or nylon

369
Q

The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred to as

A

mini-satellite

370
Q

The size of VNTR varies in size from ____ to _____

A

0.1 to 20 kb

371
Q

Many different probes are used to generate-

A

DNA fingerprints

372
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

373
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

374
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

375
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

376
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

377
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

378
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

379
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

380
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

381
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

382
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

383
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

384
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

385
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

385
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

389
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene

390
Q

The ___________ arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.

A

split-gene