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NCERT Kro, NEET Podho > Biotech-I NCERT > Flashcards

Biotech-I NCERT Flashcards

1
Q

scientist

A
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2
Q

Construction of 1st artificial recombinant DNA molecule was accomplished by ______ and ______ in year ______.

A

Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer; 1972

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3
Q

Biotechnology is:-

A

Biotechnology is a technique of using live organisms or enzymes from organisms to produce products and processes useful to humans.

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4
Q

All microbe-mediated processes could also be thought of as a form of biotechnology.
(T/F)

A

True, Making curd, bread, or wine, which are all microbe-mediated processes, could also be thought of as a form of biotechnology.

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5
Q

Biotechnology is used in an unrestricted sense today.
(T/F)

A

False,
Biotechnology is used in a restricted sense today.

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6
Q

Examples of biotechnology are:-

A

i) in-vitro fertilization leading to a ‘test-tube’ baby
ii) Synthesising a gene and using it
iii) Developing a DNA vaccine
iv) Correcting a defective gene

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7
Q

____ has given a definition of biotechnology that encompasses both traditional views and modern molecular biotechnology.

A

European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB)

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8
Q

The definition given by EFB is as follows:

A

‘The integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts theory of, and molecular analogs for products and services.’

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9
Q

The two core techniques that enabled birth of modern biotechnology are:-

A

Genetic and Bioprocess engineering

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10
Q

Genetic engineering is:-

A

i) To alter the chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA)
ii) To introduce these into host organisms
iii) To change the phenotype of host organism.

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11
Q

Bioprocess engineering is:-

A

i) For maintenance of sterile (microbial contamination-free) ambiance in chemical engineering processes
ii) To enable growth of only desired microbe/eukaryotic cells in large quantities for the manufacture of biotechnological products like antibiotics, vaccines, enzymes, etc.

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12
Q

Sexual reproduction may be beneficial to the organism as well as the population. Why?

A

Sexual reproduction provides:-
i) Opportunities for variations
ii) Formulation of unique combinations of genetic setup

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13
Q

The type of reproduction which preserves genetic information is:-

A

Asexual reproduction

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14
Q

The type of reproduction which permits variation is:-

A

Sexual reproduction

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15
Q

Traditional hybridization procedures used in plant and animal breeding lead to a disadvantage:-

A

Inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with the desired genes.

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16
Q

Genetic engineering includes:-
i) Creation of _____________.
ii) Use of ___________ and ____________.

A

i) Creation of Recombinant DNA.
ii) Use of gene cloning and gene transfer

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17
Q

Genetic Engineering allows us to isolate and introduce only one or a set of desirable genes ______ (with/without) introducing undesirable genes into the target organism.

A

Without introducing undesirable genes into the target organism

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18
Q

An alien piece of DNA is not able to multiply itself in the progeny cells of the organism.
Give the reason.

A

When it gets integrated into the genome of the recipient, it may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA.

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19
Q

The specific DNA sequence of chromosome responsible for initiating DNA replication is:-

A

Origin of replication

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20
Q

Conditions for multiplication of alien DNA in host organism:-

A

Alien DNA needs to be a part of a chromosome(s) which has a specific sequence (origin of replication)

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21
Q

Replication and multiplication of Alien piece of DNA in the host organism is known as:

A

Cloning

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22
Q

The process of making multiple identical copies of any template DNA is called:-

A

Cloning

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23
Q

In ______ year, first recombinant DNA was constructed by __________ and _________

A

1972; Stanley Cohen; Herbert Boyer

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24
Q

An autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA of bacteria is called:-

A

Plasmid

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25
Q

First recombinant DNA was constructed by linking ______ with ______.

A

by linking
i) Gene encoding antibiotic resistance
with
ii) Native plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium

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26
Q

What did Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer do?

A

They isolate the antibiotic resistance gene by cutting out a piece of DNA from a plasmid which was responsible for conferring antibiotic resistance

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27
Q

The cutting of DNA at specific locations is done with the help of:-

A

restriction enzymes

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28
Q

Restriction enzymes are also known as:-

A

Molecular scissors

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29
Q

In genetic engineering, the cut piece of DNA at specific locations was further linked with ________.

A

Plasmid DNA

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30
Q

Plasmid DNA act as ________ to transfer an alien piece of DNA linked to it into a host organism.

A

vector

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31
Q

Mosquito acts as ______ to transfer the malarial parasite into the human body.

A

insect vector

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32
Q

Linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with the enzyme __________

A

DNA ligase

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33
Q

______ acts on cut DNA molecules and joins their ends.

A

DNA ligase

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34
Q

DNA Ligase makes a new combination of circular, autonomously replicating DNA created in vitro, which is known as ______.

A

Recombinant DNA.

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35
Q

Replication of recombinant DNA in host is accomplished by using which enzyme of host?

A

DNA polymerase

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36
Q

Escherichia coli is a bacterium closely related to ______.

A

Salmonella

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37
Q

The ability to multiply copies of an antibiotic-resistance gene in
E. coli is called ______.

A

Cloning of antibiotic-resistance gene in E. coli.

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38
Q

Three basic steps in genetically
modifying an organism -

A

(i) identification of DNA with desirable genes;
(ii) introduction of the identified DNA into the host;
(iii) maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.

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39
Q

Key tools of genetic engineering are:-

A

Restriction enzymes, polymerase enzymes, ligase, vector, and host organism

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40
Q

In ______ year, the two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in ______ were isolated.
Functions of these two enzymes:-

A

1963; Escherichia coli

One of these added methyl groups to DNA, while the other (called restriction endonuclease) cut DNA.

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41
Q

The first restriction endonuclease, whose functioning depended on a specific DNA nucleotide sequence, was known as _______.

A

Hind II

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42
Q

Hind II always cut DNA molecules at a particular point by recognizing a recognition sequence of ______ base pairs.

A

Six base pairs

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43
Q

The specific base sequence recognised by restriction endonuclease to cut the DNA is called:-

A

recognition sequence

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44
Q

Besides Hind II, today we know ______ number of restriction enzymes that are isolated from ______ number of strains of bacteria each of which recognizes different recognition sequences.

A

more than 900 restriction enzymes; over 230 strains of bacteria

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45
Q

EcoRI comes from which Restriction enzyme

A

Restriction enzyme Escherichia coli RY 13

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46
Q

Convention for naming:-
E -
co -
R -
I -

A

1st letter (E) - Genus
2nd two letters (co) - Species of the prokaryotic cell from which they were isolated
R - Name of strain
I - Order in which enzymes were isolated from that strain of bacteria

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47
Q

The second two letters while naming an enzyme comes from the species of the ____________ from which they were isolated.

A

prokaryotic cell

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48
Q

While naming restriction enzymes, the order in which the enzyme was isolated from the strain of bacteria is indicated by:-

A

roman numbers

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49
Q

Restriction enzymes belong to which class of enzymes?

A

nucleases

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50
Q

Nucleases are of two kinds:-

A

Exonucleases and Endonucleases.

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51
Q

Nucleases that remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA are called:-

A

exonucleases

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52
Q

Nucleases that make cuts at specific positions within DNA are called:-

A

endonucleases

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53
Q

Restriction enzyme works as:-

A

i) Inspecting the length of a DNA sequence
ii) Finds its specific recognition sequence
iii) It will bind to the DNA
iv) It will cut each of the two strands of Double-Helix at specific points in their Sugar-Phosphate backbones.

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54
Q

The sequence recognized by restriction endonuclease to cut the strand in DNA is:-

A

palindromic nucleotide sequence

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55
Q

Steps in formation of recombinant DNA by action of restriction endonuclease enzyme(EcoRI) are:-

A

i) Action of Restriction enzyme
ii) The enzyme cuts both Vector DNA strands at the same site
iii) EcoRI cuts the Foreign DNA between bases G and A only when the sequence GAATTC is present in the DNA
iv) DNA fragments join at sticky ends
v) Recombinant DNA made

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56
Q

The sequence of base pairs that reads same on the two strands when orientation of reading is kept same is called:-

A

Palindrome

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57
Q

Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA at the center of palindrome sites.
(T/F)

A

False, Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindrome sites.

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58
Q

Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA between the different two bases on the opposite strands.
(T/F)

A

False, Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA between the same two bases on the opposite strands.

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59
Q

The overhanging stretches or single-stranded portion left at the ends by restriction enzymes are called:-

A

sticky ends

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60
Q

Sticky ends forms ______ with their complementary cut counterparts.

A

hydrogen bonds

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61
Q

The stickiness of sticky ends facilitates the action of enzyme ___________ on them.

A

DNA ligase

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62
Q

Why Restriction endonucleases are used?

A

Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic engineering to form ‘recombinant’ molecules of DNA, which are composed of DNA from different sources/genomes.

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63
Q

Steps for recombinant DNA technology:-

A

i) Same restriction enzyme cutting both foreign DNA and Vector DNA (plasmid) at a specific point
ii) Ligases join foreign DNA to Plasmid
iii) Transformation of Recombinant DNA molecule into E.coli
iv) Cells divide into Cloning Host

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64
Q

The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the ____________ of DNA.

A

fragments

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65
Q

When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments
have ______ (same/different) kind of ‘sticky-ends,’ joining together
(end-to-end) using DNA ligases

A

same kind of ‘sticky-ends’

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66
Q

Source DNA and ______ need to be cut with the same restriction enzyme in order to create a recombinant molecule.

A

vector

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67
Q

The fragments of DNA can be separated by a technique known as:-

A

Gel electrophoresis

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68
Q

DNA fragments are ______ charged molecules.

A

Negatively charged

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69
Q

DNA fragments can be separated by forcing them to move towards the ______ (cathode/anode) under an electric field through a medium/matrix.

A

move towards the anode

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70
Q

Most commonly used gel matrix for electrophoresis is:-

A

agarose

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71
Q

Agarose is a ______ polymer extracted from ______.

A

natural; seaweeds

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72
Q

During separation, agarose gel provides __________ effect.

A

sieving effect

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73
Q

DNA fragments in agarose gel separate through the sieving effect according to their:-

A

size

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74
Q

DNA fragments that move are known as ______, and that don’t move are known as ______.

A

move - digested fragments
don’t move - undigested fragments

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75
Q

The ______ (larger/smaller) size fragment moves farther.

A

smaller

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76
Q

DNA samples are loaded at the ______ (cathode/anode).
Reason.

A

Cathode,
DNA carries a negative charge; in the presence of an electric field, it migrates toward a positive electrode(anode). Therefore, DNA samples are loaded at the cathode(negative electrode).

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77
Q

You cannot see pure DNA fragments in the ________ light and without staining.

A

Visible

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78
Q

A compound used to visualize separated DNA fragments (after staining) in agarose gel is:-

A

ethidium bromide

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79
Q

Ethidium bromide-stained DNA can be seen under exposure to:-

A

UV light/radiation

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80
Q

______ colored bands of DNA in ethidium bromide-stained gel exposed to UV light.

A

Bright orange colored

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81
Q

The process of cutting out and extracting separated bands of DNA from gel is called:-

A

Elution

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82
Q

After Elution, purified DNA fragments are used in constructing ______ by joining them with ______.

A

recombinant DNA; cloning vectors

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83
Q

Plasmids and Bacteriophages have the ability to replicate within bacterial cells dependent on the control of chromosomal DNA.
(T/F)

A

False, this ability to replicate is independent of the control of chromosomal DNA.

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84
Q

Bacteriophages have very _______ copy numbers of their genome within bacterial cells.

A

high

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85
Q

Why do Bacteriophages have very high copy numbers?

A

Because Bacteriophages are present in high numbers per cell.

86
Q

Copy number of plasmids:

A

Some plasmids may have only one or two copies per cell, whereas others may have 15-100 copies per cell. Their numbers can go even higher.

87
Q

If we are able to link an alien piece of DNA with bacteriophage, we can multiply its numbers equal to the copy number of the bacteriophage.
(T/F)

A

True

88
Q

If we are able to link an alien piece of DNA with plasmid DNA, we can multiply its numbers equal to the copy number of plasmid DNA.
(T/F)

A

True

89
Q

Vectors help in:-

A

i) Easy linking of foreign DNA
ii) Selection of recombinants
from non-recombinants.

90
Q

Features required to facilitate cloning into a vector are:-

A

(i) Origin of replication (ori)
(ii) Selectable marker
(iii) Cloning sites
(iv) Vectors for cloning genes in plants and animals

91
Q

The sequence from where replication starts is called:-

A

Origin of replication (ori)

92
Q

Any piece of DNA when linked to which sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells.

A

ori sequence

93
Q

ori sequence is responsible for:-

A

For controlling the copy number of the linked DNA

94
Q

What should one do if one wants to recover many copies of the target DNA?

A

Target DNA should be cloned in a vector whose origin supports a high copy number.

95
Q

In addition to ‘ori’, vector requires a selectable marker which helps in:-

A

i) Distinguish recombinant cells from non-recombinant cells.
ii) Identify and eliminate non-transformants and selectively permit the transformants’ growth.

96
Q

The process through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium is called:-

A

Transformation

97
Q

What are transformants?

A

Transformants are cell that has taken the additional genetic material (recombinant/non-recombinant).

98
Q

What are recombinants?

A

Recombinants are the cells that have taken up the Gene of Interest (genetically engineered genetic material).

99
Q

2 types of Selectable markers are:-

A

i) Genes encoding resistance to antibiotics
ii) Lac Z gene for B- galactosidase enzyme (produce color in the presence of a chromogenic substrate)

100
Q

Name some antibiotic genes used as a selectable marker for E. coli.

A

Ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline, kanamycin, etc.

101
Q

The normal E. coli cells do not carry resistance against any antibiotics.
(T/F)

A

True

102
Q

Cloning sites are ______ sequence with restriction site of ______ nucleotides present in the selectable marker.

A

Palindromic sequences; 4-8 nucleotides

103
Q

In order to link the alien DNA, the vector needs to have very few, preferably ______, recognition sites for the commonly used restriction enzymes.

A

Single

104
Q

Presence of more than one _________ within the vector will generate several fragments, which will complicate gene cloning.

A

recognition sites

105
Q

During cloning, the ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction site present in ____________.

A

antibiotic resistance gene or Lac - Z gene

106
Q

pBR322 stands for:-

A

p - Plasmid
B - Boliver
R - Rodriquiz

107
Q

How many selectable markers are present in Vector pBR322?

A

2

108
Q

The two selectable markers in pBR322 are -

A

Ampicillin ampR and tetracycline tetR

109
Q

pBR322 has total of ______ restriction sites

A

8;
BamH I, Sal I (tetR)
Pvu I, Pst I (ampR)
EcoR I, Cla I, Hind III
Pvu II (rop)

110
Q

pBR322 has total of ______ restriction sites in selectable marker.

A

4;
BamH I, Sal I (tetR)
Pvu I, Pst I (ampR)

111
Q

Rop gene codes is for:-

A

Proteins involved in replication of plasmid

112
Q

Restriction sites in tetR are -

A

BamH I, Sal I

113
Q

Restriction sites in ampR are -

A

Pvu I, Pst I

114
Q

Restriction site in rop is -

A

Pvu II

115
Q

In a vector, one antibiotic resistance gene helps in selecting the ___________, whereas the other antibiotic resistance gene gets ‘inactivated due to insertion’ of alien DNA and helps in selection of ___________.

A

transformants, recombinants

116
Q

Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics is a cumbersome procedure because it requires __________ plating on two plates having _______ antibiotics.

A

simultaneous, different

117
Q

Alternative selectable markers have been developed which differentiate ____________ from ___________ on the basis of their ability to produce ________ in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.

A

recombinants, non-recombinants, colour

118
Q

An enzyme used as a selectable marker for selection of recombinants from non-recombinants is:-

A

Beta-galactosidase

119
Q

During cloning, rDNA is inserted within coding sequence of β-galactosidase, thus leading to:-

A

insertional inactivation

120
Q

In chromogenic selection, DNA is inserted in the coding sequence of _______ enzyme.

A

β-galactosidase

121
Q

While using insertional inactivation, the colonies which do not produce any colour in presence of chromogenic substrate are identified as:-

A

Recombinants colonies

122
Q

Non-recombinant colonies appear ________ in presence of chromogenic substrate when subjected to insertional inactivation.

A

blue

123
Q

We have learned the lesson of transferring genes into plants and animals from __________ and __________.

A

bacteria, viruses

124
Q

________ is able to deliver a piece of T-DNA.

A

Agrobacterium tumefaciens

125
Q

Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a pathogen of ______ (monocot/dicot plants).

A

Dicot

126
Q

T-DNA transforms normal cells to tumor cells.
(T/F)

A

True

127
Q

______ in animals have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells.

A

Retrovirus

128
Q

The tumor-inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens has now been modified into a cloning vector which is no more _____________ to the plants.

A

pathogenic

129
Q

Retroviruses have also been __________ and are now used to deliver __________ genes into animal cells.

A

disarmed, desirable

130
Q

Once a gene or a DNA fragment has been _________ into a suitable vector, it is transferred into a bacterial, plant, or animal host (where it multiplies).

A

ligated

131
Q

Since DNA is a ___________ molecule, it cannot pass through cell membranes.

A

hydrophilic

132
Q

In order to force bacteria to take up the plasmid, the bacterial cells must first be made ‘___________ to take up DNA

A

competent

133
Q

The cation used to make bacterial cells competent to take up DNA is:-

A

calcium

134
Q

Host are made competent by treating them with specific concentration of _____ion.

A

Calcium

135
Q

Calcium increases the _________ with which DNA enters the bacterium through _______ in its cell wall.

A

efficiency, pores

136
Q

Recombinant DNA is forced into cells by changing temperature. Tell how?

A

First, cells are incubated on ice, then heat shock is given, and then again incubated on ice.

137
Q

Heat shock is given to bacterial cells at which temperature to make them competent to take up DNA?

A

42 degree C

138
Q

In ________ (method), recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell.

A

micro-injection

139
Q

In plants, cells are bombarded with ______ (high/low) velocity microparticles of ____ and ____ coated with DNA in a method known as _____ or _____.

A

High, gold and tungsten, biolistics or gene gun

140
Q

______________ vectors, which, when allowed to infect the cell, transfer the recombinant DNA into the host.

A

Disarmed pathogen

141
Q

Process of Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps:

A

I. Isolation of DNA
II. Fragmentation of DNA by restriction endonucleases
III. Isolation of a desired DNA fragment
IV. Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector
V. Transferring the recombinant DNA into the host
VI. Culturing the host cells in a medium at large scale
V. Extraction of the desired product.

142
Q

Genetic material of all organisms is:-

A

nucleic acid

143
Q

In the majority of organisms, the nucleic acid is ___________ or DNA.

A

deoxyribonucleic acid

144
Q

In order to cut the DNA with restriction enzymes, it needs to be in pure form, free from other ___________.

A

macro-molecules

145
Q

Since the DNA is enclosed within the ____________, we have to break the cell open to release DNA.

A

membranes

146
Q

DNA is released along with other macromolecules such as RNA, proteins, ____________, and also ___________.

A

polysaccharides, lipids

147
Q

To isolate DNA from bacteria, enzyme used to break the cell open is:-

A

Lysozyme

148
Q

Isolation of DNA from plant cells is done by disintegrating the cell wall using enzyme:-

A

Cellulase

149
Q

To isolate DNA from fungus, enzyme used to break the cell open is:-

A

Chitinase

150
Q

Genes are located on long molecules of DNA interwined with proteins such as _____________.

A

histones

151
Q

During isolation of DNA, DNA is made free from RNA by using enzyme:-

A

Ribonuclease (RNase)

152
Q

During isolation of DNA, DNA is made free from proteins by using enzyme:-

A

Proteases

153
Q

Purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after the addition of _________

A

Chilled Ethanol

154
Q

DNA ultimately precipitates out and can be seen as a collection of _________ in the suspension.

A

fine threads

155
Q

DNA that separates out can be removed by ____________

A

Spooling

156
Q

Restriction enzyme digestions are performed by incubating ____________ DNA molecules with the restriction enzyme at the optimal conditions for that __________ enzyme.

A

purified, specific

157
Q

After restriction digestion, the technique which is employed to check whether the DNA has been digested is:-

A

Agarose gel electrophoresis

158
Q

_________ is employed to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion.

A

Agarose gel electrophoresis

159
Q

DNA is a negatively charged molecule; hence it moves toward the ________ electrode

A

positive

160
Q

The ________ of DNA involves several processes.

A

joining

161
Q

Joining of source DNA and vector DNA is done with the help of enzyme:-

A

DNA ligase

162
Q

The cut out ‘___________’ from the source DNA, and the cut vector with space are mixed, and ligase is added. This results in the preparation of ___________.

A

Gene of interest, recombinant DNA

163
Q

PCR stands for:-

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction

164
Q

The 3 steps of PCR are -

A

Denaturation, annealing and extension

165
Q

Multiple copies of the gene of interest are synthesized in vitro using two sets of primers in:-

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction

166
Q

In PCR, the small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of DNA are called:-

A

Primers

167
Q

DNA polymerase extends the _________ using nucleotides provided during PCR.

A

primers

168
Q

DNA polymerase uses __________ as a template in PCR.

A

genomic DNA

169
Q

If a PCR cycle runs 30 times, it will produce _____ times the initial amount of desired DNA sequence put into the system.

A

2^(30)

170
Q

If the process of replication of DNA is repeated many times, the segment of DNA can be amplified to approximately ________ times.

A

billion

171
Q

______ no. of copies of desired genes will be produced after the end of the first five cycles of PCR

A

6
(you may think that answer should be 2⁵=32,
but on close observation, you will notice that desired DNA sequence does not start to form till the 3rd step)

172
Q

Thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR is isolated from a bacterium:-

A

Thermus aquaticus

173
Q

Thermostable DNA polymerase remains active during the high temperature induced __________ of double-stranded DNA.

A

denaturation

174
Q

The amplified fragment if desired can now be used to ligate with a vector for further __________.

A

cloning

175
Q

_________ cells, after making them ‘competent’ to receive, take up DNA present in its surrounding.

A

Recipient

176
Q

Ampicillin resistance gene when used to select transformed cell is called:-

A

Selectable marker

177
Q

When you insert a piece of alien DNA into a cloning vector and transfer it into a bacterial, plant, or animal cell, the alien DNA gets ___________.

A

multiplied

178
Q

In almost all recombinant technologies, the ultimate aim is to produce a desirable __________.

A

protein

179
Q

There is a need for the recombinant DNA to be ___________.

A

expressed

180
Q

The _________ gene gets expressed under appropriate conditions.

A

foreign

181
Q

Expression of the target protein can be induced after cloning the ___________ and having optimized the conditions.

A

gene of interest

182
Q

To induce the expression of the target protein, one has to consider producing it on a ____________.

A

large scale

183
Q

When a protein-encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, it is called:-

A

Recombinant protein

184
Q

The cells harboring cloned genes of interest may be grown on a ___________ in the laboratory.

A

small scale

185
Q

The cultures may be used for _________ the desired protein.

A

extracting

186
Q

The cultures can be purified by using different ___________ techniques.

A

separation

187
Q

For production of recombinant protein, the type of culture system which produces a large biomass is:-

A

Continuous culture system

188
Q

In a continuous culture system wherein the ________ medium is drained out from one side while __________ medium is added from the other medium.

A

used, fresh

189
Q

The purpose of adding a fresh medium in a continuous culture system is to maintain the cells in their physiologically most active _____________ phase.

A

log/exponential phase

190
Q

____________ cultures cannot yield appreciable quantities of products.

A

Small volume

191
Q

The vessels in which large volumes of raw materials are biologically converted into specific products, individual enzymes, etc., using microbial plant, animal, or human cells, are called:-

A

Bioreactors

192
Q

What is the range of volume of culture that can be processed in a bioreactor?

A

100-1000 litres

193
Q

A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the ______.

A

desired product

194
Q

The optimum growth conditions in a bioreactor include optimum temperature, ___, substrate, _____, _______, and oxygen.

A

pH, salts, vitamins

195
Q

The most commonly used bioreactors are of ______ type.

A

Stirring type

196
Q

A stirred-tank reactor is usually ___________ or with a __________ base to facilitate the mixing of the reactor contents.

A

cylindrical, curved

197
Q

Stirrer in a stirred-tank reactor facilitates even mixing and ______ availability.

A

Oxygen

198
Q

The purpose of steam in a simple stirred-tank bioreactor is ___________

A

sterilization

199
Q

Alternatively, air can be __________ through the reactor.

A

bubbled

200
Q

____________ dramatically increase the oxygen transfer area.

A

Bubbles

201
Q

Surface area is increased in a bioreactor for _________ transfer.

A

oxygen

202
Q

The bioreactors have many systems attached to them.
Name them all.

A

Systems in bioreactors
I. Agitator system
II. Oxygen delivery system
III. Foam control system
IV. Temperature control system
V. pH control system
VI. Sampling ports

203
Q

A bioreactor has sampling ports so that small volumes of the culture can be ___________ periodically.

A

withdrawn

204
Q

The process of Downstream processing involves ______ and ______.

A

Separation; purification

205
Q

After completion of the ___________ stage, the product has to be subjected to a series of processes before it is ready for marketing as a ____________.

A

Biosynthetic, finished product

206
Q

______ and ______ are collectively referred to as
downstream processing

A

Separation and purification

207
Q

The product has to be formulated with suitable ______________.

A

preservatives

208
Q

Formulation has to undergo thorough clinical trials as in the case of _________.

A

drugs

209
Q

Strict ____________ testing for each product is also required.

A

quality control

210
Q

The ____________ and ____________ testing vary from product to product.

A

Downstream processing, quality control

NCERT Kro, NEET Podho (38 decks)

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