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MODULE 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Fever is an example of which line of defense?

a. First line of defense
b. Second line of defense
c. Third line of defense
d. Adaptive immunity

A

Second line of defense

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2
Q

Inflammation is a characteristic of which line of
defense?

a. First line of defense
b. Second line of defense
c. Third line of defense
d. Adaptive immunity

A

Second line of defense

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3
Q

Which line of defense involves specific immune
responses tailored to specific pathogen?

a. First line of defense
b. Second line of defense
c. Third line of defense
d. Innate immunity

A

Third line of defense

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3
Q

Antibodies are produced by which line of defense?

a. First line of defense
b. Second line of defense
c. Third line of defense
d. Innate immunity

A

Third line of defense

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4
Q

An outbreak of a disease occurring over a wide geographic area and affecting a large proportion of the population is called a:

a. Pandemic
b. Epidemic
c. Endemic
d. Outbreak

A

Pandemic

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4
Q

The proportion of individuals with a particular disease in a given population at a specific point in time is known as:

a. Prevalence
b. Incidence
c. Mortality rate
d. Epidemic

A

Prevalence

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5
Q

The number of new cases of a disease in a population
during a specific time period is referred to as:

a. Prevalence
b. Incidence
c. Mortality rate
d. Epidemic

A

Incidence

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6
Q

Immunity acquired by transplacental or mother to
fetus during pregnancy

a. Naturally active acquired immunity
b. Naturally passive acquired immunity
c. Artificially active acquired immunity
d. Artificially passive acquired immunity

A

Naturally passive acquired immunity

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7
Q

Immunity acquired given by tetanus toxoid

a. Naturally active acquired immunity
b. Naturally passive acquired immunity
c. Artificially active acquired immunity
d. Artificially passive acquired immunity

A

Artificially active acquired immunity

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8
Q

Immunity acquired given by human rabies
immunoglobulin

a. Naturally active acquired immunity
b. Naturally passive acquired immunity
c. Artificially active acquired immunity
d. Artificially passive acquired immunity

A

Artificially passive acquired immunity

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9
Q

Which microorganism is responsible for causing
typhoid fever, characterized by high fever, abdominal
pain, and diarrhea?

a. Salmonella typhi
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Escherichia coli (E.coli)
d. Rotavirus

A

Salmonella typhi

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10
Q

Which microorganism is responsible for causing
syphilis, a bacterial infection that progress through
stages if left untreated?

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Treponema pallidum

A

Treponema pallidum

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11
Q

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) primarily affects the immune system but can also lead to various complications, including:

a. Chlamydia
b. Genital herpes
c. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
d. Pneumocystis pneumonia

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia

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11
Q

The disease “Chagas disease” is caused by a
protozoan parasite called:

a. Trypanosoma cruzi
b. Leishmania donovani
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

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12
Q

The protozoan parasite responsible for causing
malaria

a. Leishmania donovani
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Acanthamoeba spp.
d. Plasmodium falciparum

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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13
Q

Who is known as the father of microbiology?

a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Robert Koch
d. Edward Jenner

A

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

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13
Q

Which scientist is credited with the invention of the
microscope and the first observation of microorganisms?

a. Robert Hooke
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Alexander Flemming
d. Edward Jenner

A

Robert Hooke

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14
Q

Who developed the germ theory of disease
demonstrating that microorganisms are responsible
for many infectious diseases?

a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Robert Koch
d. Edward Jenner

A

Robert Koch

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15
Q

Which microbiologist is known for developing the first
vaccine against smallpox?

a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Robert Koch
d. Edward Jenner

A

Edward Jenner

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16
Q

Who is famous for the discovery of penicillin, the first
antibiotic?

a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Robert Koch
d. Alexander Flemming

A

Alexander Flemming

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17
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the
formation of immune complexes and deposition in
tissues?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Туре III
d. Type IV

A

Туре III

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18
Q

Hemolytic anemia caused by mismatched blood
transfusion is an example of which type of
hypersensitivity?

a. Type l
b. Type lI
c. Туре III
d. Type IV

A

Type lI

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19
Q

Delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) reactions are
associated with which type of hypersensitivity?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

A

Type IV

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20
Q

Which of the following is considered the first line of
defense in the immune system?

a. Antibodies
b. T cells
c. Skin and mucous membranes
d. B cells

A

Skin and mucous membranes

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21
Q

The Philippine Health Insurance Corporation
(PhilHealth).

a. R.A. 11223
b. R.A. 9165
c. R.A. 10351
d. R.A. 10354
e. R.A. 7875

A

R.A. 7875

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22
Q

Schedule of IPV/OPV vaccine Is Dose.

a. At birth to 2 weeks 1st dose
b. 6th to 8th weeks
c. 14th weeks to 6 months
d. 12 months to 18 years of age catch up
immunization.

A

6th to 8th weeks

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23
Q

Schedule of Rotavirus vaccine.

a. At birth to 2 weeks 1st dose
b. 4th to 8th weeks 2nd dose
c. 6 weeks to 12 months
d. 12 months to 18 years of age catch up
immunization.

A

6 weeks to 12 months

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24
Q

Schedule of influenza vaccine

a. Yearly
b. 4th to 8th weeks 2nd dose
c. 6 weeks to 6 months
d. 12 months to 18 years of age catch up
immunization

A

12 months to 18 years of age catch up
immunization

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25
Q

Schedule of Measles vaccine.

a. 9 months to 12 months
b. 4th to 8th weeks 2nd dose
c. 6 weeks to 6 months
d. 12 months to 18 years of age catch up
immunization.

A

9 months to 12 months

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25
Q

What is the mode of injections of BCG?

a. Intramuscular
b. Intravenous
c. Intradermal
d. Subcutaneous

A

Intradermal

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25
Q

What is Republic Act no. 11223?

a. Universal health care law
b. Sin tax reform act of 2012
c. The Responsible Parenthood and
Reproductive health act of 2012
d. National Health insurance act
e. Graphic health warnings act

A

Universal health care law

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26
Q

What is Republic Act no. 10351?

a. Universal health care law
b. Sin tax reform act of 2012
c. The Responsible Parenthood and
Reproductive health act of 2012
d. National Health insurance act
e. Graphic health warnings act

A

Sin tax reform act of 2012

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27
Q

What is Republic Act 10354?

a. Universal Health Care Law
b. Sin Tax Reform Act of 2012
c. The Responsible Parenthood and
Reproductive Health Act 2012
d. National Health Insurance Act
e. Graphic Health Warnings Act

A

The Responsible Parenthood and
Reproductive Health Act 2012

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28
Q

What is Republic Act 7875?

a. Universal Health Care Law
b. Sin Tax Reform Act of 2012
c. The Responsible Parenthood and
Reproductive Health Act 2012
d. National Health Insurance Act
e. Graphic Health Warnings Act

A

National Health Insurance Act

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29
Q

What is Republic Act No. 10152?

a. Mandatory Infants and Children Health
Immunization Act of 2011.
b. Sin Tax Reform Act of 2012
c. The Responsible Parenthood and
Reproductive Health Act 2012
d. National Health Insurance Act
e. Graphic Health Warnings Act

A

Mandatory Infants and Children Health
Immunization Act of 2011

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30
Q

What is the tests (glycated hemoglobin) to assess
long-term blood glucose control?

a. Healthy Eating
b. Weight Management
c. Medication Adherence
d. Regular Blood Glucose Monitoring
e. HbAlc Monitoring

A

HbAlc Monitoring

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31
Q

Case 1. The Community Province A, out 100,000
population, 1000 are immunocompromised and arerisk of Kaposi Sarcoma due to the fact that they are HIV patients in the year 2024 due to failure in the
Reproductive Health Program. Thus, 800 were
positive of Kaposi Sarcoma. Among HIV-positive
individuals, it appears that men who have sex with
other men are more likely to get Kaposi sarcoma at
80%, whereas, men who have protected sex
(unexposed) with men at 20%. The new cases of 250
after 2024, whereas, 750 cases within the
5-year program from 2019-2024. And finally, 300
deaths due to Kaposi sarcoma.

What is the Morbidity Rate?
a. 0.25%
b. 4
c. 0.8%
d. 0.3%
e. 0.75%

A

0.8%

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32
Q

Case 1. The Community Province A, out 100,000
population, 1000 are immunocompromised and arerisk of Kaposi Sarcoma due to the fact that they are HIV patients in the year 2024 due to failure in the
Reproductive Health Program. Thus, 800 were
positive of Kaposi Sarcoma. Among HIV-positive
individuals, it appears that men who have sex with
other men are more likely to get Kaposi sarcoma at
80%, whereas, men who have protected sex
(unexposed) with men at 20%. The new cases of 250
after 2024, whereas, 750 cases within the
5-year program from 2019-2024. And finally, 300
deaths due to Kaposi sarcoma.

What is the Mortality Rate?
a. 0.25%
b. 4
c. 0.8%
d. 0.3%
e. 0.75%

A

0.3%

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33
Q

Case 1. The Community Province A, out 100,000
population, 1000 are immunocompromised and arerisk of Kaposi Sarcoma due to the fact that they are HIV patients in the year 2024 due to failure in the
Reproductive Health Program. Thus, 800 were
positive of Kaposi Sarcoma. Among HIV-positive
individuals, it appears that men who have sex with
other men are more likely to get Kaposi sarcoma at
80%, whereas, men who have protected sex
(unexposed) with men at 20%. The new cases of 250
after 2024, whereas, 750 cases within the
5-year program from 2019-2024. And finally, 300
deaths due to Kaposi sarcoma.

What is the Cumulative Incidence?
a. 0.25%
b. 4
c. 0.8%
d. 0.3%
e. 0.75%

A

0.25%

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34
Q

Case 1. The Community Province A, out 100,000
population, 1000 are immunocompromised and arerisk of Kaposi Sarcoma due to the fact that they are HIV patients in the year 2024 due to failure in the
Reproductive Health Program. Thus, 800 were
positive of Kaposi Sarcoma. Among HIV-positive
individuals, it appears that men who have sex with
other men are more likely to get Kaposi sarcoma at
80%, whereas, men who have protected sex
(unexposed) with men at 20%. The new cases of 250
after 2024, whereas, 750 cases within the
5-year program from 2019-2024. And finally, 300
deaths due to Kaposi sarcoma.

What is the Point of Prevalence?
a. 0.25%
a. 4
b. 0.8%
c. 0.3%
d. 0.75%

A

0.75%

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35
Q

What issues contributes to a better understanding of
people’s work except:

a. Illness
b. Health Care
c. Health
d. Disease

A

Disease

36
Q

These are the Glossary of Basic Sociological Concept
except:

a. Agency
b. Self-Efficiency
c. Socialization
d. Norm

A

Self-Efficiency

37
Q

He was the theorist who studied ‘Social Fact?

a. Karl Marx
b. Max Weber
c. Emile Durkheim
d. Nota

A

Emile Durkheim

37
Q

The 5 stages of change except:

a. Socialization
a. Contemplation
b. Action
c. Maintenance

A

Socialization

38
Q

Who is the current DOH secretary?

a. Maria Rosario Yerseire.
b. Francisco Duque MI
c. Teodoro Herbosa
d. Hscinsilde Valle

A

Teodoro Herbosa

39
Q

Operation Strategy on Kalusugang Pankalahatan is otherwise known as:

a. A.O. 2010-0034
b. A.0. 2010-0036
c. A.O. 2014-0046
d. A.O. 2014-0036

A

A.O. 2010-0036

40
Q

Key characteristics of a good delivery except:

a. Quality
b. Accountability
c. Coverage
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

41
Q

It is the immediate output of the inputs into the health system?

a. Health Workforce
b. Health Information System
c. Health Service Delivery
d. Medicine and Technology

A

Health Service Delivery

42
Q

Accountability involves except:

a. Receipt of relevant information
b. Enforcement
c. Governance
d. Delegation

A

Governance

43
Q

Which conference was responsible in formulating
National Policies and Regulation in 1978?

a. ALMA ATA conference
b. ALMA ALA conference
c. ALMA Mäter conference
d. ALTA ATA conference

A

ALMA ATA conference

44
Q

Which of the following is/ are true when the product of the concentrations of any pair of ions is ‹ or = to the SP value?

I. Precipitation will take place
II. No precipitation will take place
III. Solution is supersaturated
IV. Solution is saturated
V. Solution is unsaturated

a. I & II only
b. I, IV & V only
c. I, III & IV only
d. II, IV & V only
e. II & V only

A

II, IV & V only

45
Q

The end point of the titration using this type of
indicator is when the color of the silver halide ppt
changes abruptly because of the adsorbed indicator
ions

a. Eosin Y TS
b. Ferric Alum
c. Potassium Chromate
d. EDTA
e. NOTA

A

Eosin Y TS

46
Q

It is used in direct and residual titrations employing
standard NHSCN solution.

a. Ferric alum
b. Ferric thiocyanate
c. Tetrabromophenolphthalein
d. Silver nitrate
e. Eosin Y TS

A

Ferric alum

47
Q

When ferric alum reacts with the SCN-containing
titrant, what is formed?

a. Both D & E
b. Ammonium thiocyanate
c. Faint pink color
d. White complex
e. Ferric thiocyanate

A

Ferric thiocyanate

48
Q

In the Assay of Sodium Lauryl Sulfate for Sodium
Chloride content, what is the purpose of adding nitric
acid?

a. Prevent Ferric alum hydrolysis
b. Indicator
c. Excess acid
d. For neutralization
e. NOTA

A

Prevent Ferric alum hydrolysis

49
Q

In the Assay of Sodium Chloride, what is the use of
adding AgNO3 to the analyte?

a. To facilitate precipitation
b. To prevent hydrolysis of analyte
c. Indicator
d. Both B & C
e. AOTA

A

To facilitate precipitation

49
Q

Residual Acidimetric Titration is where the sample
which is a _—is treated with an amount of standard
_—- known to be in excess of a chemically equivalent
amount, and that excess is titrated with a standard

a. Acid; Acid; Base
b. Acid; Base; Acid
c. Base; Acid; Base
d. Base; Base; Acid
e. Base; Acid; Acid

A

Base; Acid; Base

50
Q

What type of titration is involved in the Assay of
Sodium Bicarbonate?

a. Direct Acidimetric Titration
b. Direct Alkalimetric Titration
c. Residual Acidimetric Titration
d. Residual Alkalimetric Titration
e. NOTA

A

Direct Acidimetric Titration

50
Q

According to the_, the reaction rate is proportional to
the product of the reactants’ molecular
concentrations.

A. Law of Mass Conservation
B. Law of Mass Action
C. Dissociation constant
D. Common lon Effect
E. NOTA

A

Law of Mass Action

51
Q

According to the Solubility Product Principle, when the equilibrium is established, the supernatant liquid is a/an__ solution.

A. Unsaturated
B. Desaturated
C. Supersaturate
D. Saturated
E. Precipitated

A

Saturated

52
Q

Solubility product us expressed in terms of:

a. Equivalents/Liter
b. Milliequivalent/Milliliter
c. Moles
d. Milliequivalent weight
e. NOTA

A

NOTA

53
Q

The following indicators give Yellow color in acid,
except:

a. Malachite Green
b. Phenol Red
c. Cresol Red
d. Methyl Orange

A

Methyl Orange

54
Q

The number of mg of KOH necessary to neutralize thefree acids in 1 g of sample oil (oil, fat, wax, resin,
balsam, or similar organic substance) of complex
composition

a. Acid value
b. Saponification value
c. Iodine value
d. Ester value
e. Hydroxyl value

A

Acid value

55
Q

Number of mg of KOH needed to saponify the free
esters and neutralize the free acids in 1 g of sample

a. Acetyl value of fatty acids
b. Saponification value
c. Iodine value
d. Ester value
e. Hydroxyl value

A

Saponification value

56
Q

Number of g iodine absorbed under specified
conditions by 100 g of sample

a. Acetyl value of fatty acids
b. Saponification value
c. Iodine value
d. Ester value
e. Hydroxyl value

A

Iodine value

57
Q

Number of milligrams of KOH equivalent to the
hydroxyl content of 1 g of substance

a. Acetyl value of fatty acids
b. Saponification value
c. Iodine value
d. Ester value
e. Hydroxyl value

A

Hydroxyl value

58
Q

CaCO3 + HNO3 ⇆ Ca(NO3)2 + H2C03
1 equivalent of HNO3 = ___ mol of Ca(NO3)2 = ___
_mol of CaCO3

a. 1;1
b. 1; 0.5
c. 0.5; 1
d. 0.5; 0.5
e. NOTA

A

0.5; 0.5

59
Q

CaCO3 + HNO3 ⇆ Ca(NO3)2 + H2C03
___ mol of CaCO3 = ____equivalent/s of HNO3

a. 0.5;1
b. 1; 0.5
c. 2;1
d. 1;1
e. 1;2

A

1;2

60
Q

Act of measuring the volume of the titrant used.

a. Standardization
b. Titration
c. Normality
d. Molarity

A

Titration

61
Q

The theoretical point at which equivalent amounts of
analyte and titrant have reacted

a. Stoichiometric point
b. Endpoint
c. Equivalence point
d. B & C
e. A & C

A

A & C

62
Q

Weight of a substance chemical equivalent to 1 ml of
a standard solution

a. Normality
b. Molarity
c. Titer
d. Molality
e. Equivalent

A

Titer

63
Q

It is a chemical process in which a proton donor
reacts with a proton acceptor

a. Neutralization
b. Acid-Base titration
c. Precipitation
d. A & B
e. None of the above

A

A & B

63
Q

How much of potassium dichromate was used in the
assay if 30 ml of 0.098N sodium thiosulfate was
consumed in the assay?

a. 0.14 g
b. 0.15 g
c. 0.16 g
d. 1.1 g
e. NOTA

A

0.14 g

64
Q

A crude drug was found to have a 2.5% AIA. The
weight of the residue after treatment of HCl was
0.4560 g. What was the weight of the crude drug
used?

a. 12.44 g
b. 14.28 g
c. 18.24 g
d. 21.05 g
e. NOTA

A

18.24 g

65
Q

What document contains a compiled step-by-step
instructions to help workers carry out routine
operations?

a. SOP
b. MSDS
c. COA
d. Monograph
e. A & C

A

SOP

66
Q

What document outlines a chemical’s properties,
including physical and chemical characteristics, as
well as health, safety, fire, and environmental
hazards?

a. SOP
b. MSDS
c. COA
d. Monograph
e. A & C

A

MSDS

66
Q

Temperature maintained for Dissolution Testing of
tablets

a. 37 ± 2
b. 37 ± 0.2 °C
c. 37 ± 5 °C
d. 37 ± 0.5 °C
e. 35 ± 5 °C

A

37 ± 0.5 °C

67
Q

USP Apparatus 1 is also known as ___________

a. Rotating Basket
b. Rotating Paddle
c. Reciprocating Cylinder
d. Flow-through Cell
e. Reciprocating Disk

A

Rotating Basket

68
Q

It works on the principle of creating a negative
pressure in a closed chamber which inflates the
dosage form due to pressure

a. Pellicle formation
b. Preservative content
c. Viscosity Test
d. Leakage Test
e. Redispersibility Test

A

Leakage Test

69
Q

Which among the following can be used to test
dosage forms such ointments, creams, and
transdermal products?

a. Paddle over disk
b. Flow-through cell
c. Diffusion cell
d. Rotating bottle
e. NOTA

A

Diffusion cell

70
Q

It is the measure by how much the speed of light is
reduced as it travels through a specific solvent

a. Specific gravity
b. Refractive index
c. Optical activity
d. Angle of repose
e. Chirality

A

Refractive index

71
Q

Acceptable limit for Primary Moisture Content of
Granules and Powders

a. 0.5% - 1%
b. NMT 0.8%
c. NMT 1%
d. 25 grams
e. 31-35%

A

31-35%

71
Q

It is the ratio of the mass of an untapped powder
sample and its volume, including the contribution of
the interparticulate void volume

a. Tapped density
b. Bulk density
c. Tapped volume
d. Bulk volume
e. Angle of repose

A

Bulk density

72
Q

Tablet Friability Acceptable Criteria for new
formulations of tablets

a. NMT 1% weight loss
b. NMT 0.8% weight loss
c. NMT 0.1% weight loss
d. NMT 8% weight loss
e. NOTA

A

NMT 0.8% weight loss

73
Q

The higher the value of the Compressibility Index, the
better is the sample’s compressibility characteristic.
The lower the Hausner Ratio is, the poorer is the
sample’s compressibility characteristic.

a. Only statement 1 is correct
b. Only statement 2 is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Both statements are incorrect

A

Both statements are incorrect

74
Q

Digitalis: Pigeon :: Oxytocin injection:__________

a. Cat
b. Chicken
c. Albino Rabbit
d. Rabbit
e. Albino Rat

A

Chicken

75
Q

Process of identifying the ideal solvent system that
can efficiently separate the components of an analyte

a. Solvent polarity
b. Retention Factor
c. Capillary Action
d. Solvent Optimization
e. NOTA

A

Solvent Optimization

75
Q

In figure 1, what is the Rf value of constituent A?

a. 0.5
b. 2
c. 0.4
d. 0.3
e. NOTA

A

0.4

76
Q

If the SP is more polar, what constituent is less polar?

a. Constituent A
b. Constituent B

A

Constituent B

77
Q

Which is not a weak adsorbent?

a. Sucrose
b. Starch
c. Talc
d. Sodium carbonate
e. Magnesium carbonate

A

Magnesium carbonate

78
Q

It is the ratio of retention time of the analyte in the
column to the retention time of a non-retained
compound

a. Void time
b. Retention factor
c. Hold-up time
d. Both A & C
e. NOTA

A

Retention factor

78
Q

Wavelength in the Far IR region

a. 200 - 380 nm
b. 380 - 780 nm
c. 15 - 300 nm
d. 3 - 15 nm
e. NOTA

A

NOTA

78
Q

“The energy of radiation absorbed or emitted is
directly proportional to the frequency of the radiation.”

a. Bragg’s Law
b. Beer’s Law
c. Beer-Lambert’s Law
d. Lambert’s Law
e. Plank’s Theory

A

Plank’s Theory

79
Q

The peak having the highest relative abundance

a. Parent ion peak
b. Molecular ion peak
c. Base peak
d. Both A & B
e. Both A & C

A

Base peak

80
Q

A portion of the UV-Vis spectrophotometer that is
composed of an entrance slit, a dispersion device and
an exit slit

a. Light source
b. Optics
c. Monochromator
d. Detector
e. Nebulizer

A

Monochromator

81
Q

Also known as the blue shift

a. Bathochromic shift
b. Hypsochromic shift
c. Hyperchromic effect
d. Hypochromic effect
e. NOTA

A

Hypsochromic shift

82
Q

Absorption of radiant energy in the IR Region is
associated with ________ of atoms within molecules

a. Proton spinning
b. Electron energy transitions
c. Vibrational transitions
d. Mass-to-charge ratio
e. NOTA

A

Vibrational transitions

83
Q

Which has the highest value of wavenumber range?

a. Far IR
b. Middle IR
c. Near IR
d. Both B & C
e. Both A &

A

Near IR

84
Q

It measures scattered light

a. Turbidimetry
b. Nephelometry
c. Turbidity
d. Clarity
e. NOTA

A

Nephelometry

85
Q
A

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