Module 3 Flashcards
One of the ff is not equivalent to 1 g;
o 10 dag
o 10 x6 ug
o 100 cg
o 10 x -3 kg
10 x -3 kg
These are multiples, EXCEPT;
o Dekameter
o Megameter
o Nanometer
o Kilometer
Kilometer
One oz is equal to the ff, EXCEPT;
o 28.35 g
o 480 gr
o 437.5 gr
o A and B
28.35 g
Manufacturer’s directions call for the addition of 90 ml of water to constitute a 150 ml container of cefaclor to yield a strength of 250mg / 5 mL. If 60 mL were mistakenly added, calculate the resultant mg of cefaclor /5 mL.
o 275 mg
o 325 mg
o 350 mg
o 312.5 mg
312.5 mg
Fifteen mL Methyl Salicylate are needed to prepare 100 grams of sports rub cream. If the sp gr of methyl salicylate is 1.18, how many grams would be needed to prepare a dozen of 30 g tubes of the cream.
o 5.31 g
o 53.1 g
o 63.72 g
o 6.372 g
63.72 g
If the amount of an ingredient in the inscription is 100 mg, and the subscription is“ Ft cap # 1. DTD # 10.” The amount of the ingredient per capsule is;
o mg
o 10 mg
o 100 mg
o NOTA
10 mg
How many mL of a 2% w/v solution of lidocaine HCl should be used in preparing 500 mL of a solution containing 4 mg of lidocaineHCl/ mL of solution?
o mL
o mL
o 10 mL
o 100 mL
o NOTA
10 mL
A Potassium tablet supplement contains 2.5g of potassium bicarbonate (KHCO3, - m.w. 100). How many mEq of K+are supplied by the tablet?
o 250000 mEq
o 97500 mEq
o 2.5 mEq
o 64.1 mEq
o 975 mEq
2.5 mEq
How many teaspoonful- dose can be
obtained from a 2.5 fluidounces (Apothecary) of a liquid medication?
o 15 Doses
o 14 Doses
o 14.8 Doses
o 16 Doses
o 13 Doses
14.8 Dose
Ammonium chloride injection contains 267.5 mg/mL. How many mEq oh ammonium chloride are present in a 20-mL vial?
o 100 mEq
o 10 mEq
o 5 mEq
o 50 mEq
o 14.31 mEq
100 mEq
How many mL of a 1:400 w/v stock solution should be used in preparing 5 gallons of a 1:2000 w/v solution.
o 3785 mL
o 378.5 mL
o 757 mL
o 75.7 mL
o 7.57 mL
3785 mL
Refer to the file
Isotonic solution of sodium chloride solution contains 0.9% w/v sodium chloride. If the E- value of boric acid is 0.52, calculate the %w/v strength of an isotonic solution of boric acid.
o 0.52%
o 5.2%
o 17.3%
o 1.73%
o NOTA
1.73%
Interpret this signa: Gtt.ii. o.d. q. 4h. p.r.n. pain
o Put two drops in both ears every four hours as needed for pain.
o Instill two drops in right eye every four hours as needed for pain.
o Instill two drops in left eye every four hours as needed for pain.
o Instill two drops in both eyes every four hours as needed for pain.
o Put two drops in right ear every four hours as needed for p
Instill two drops in right eye every four hours as needed for pain
How many grams of anhydrous dextrose (E-value = 0.18) should be used in preparing I liter of a ½% isotonic Ephedrine Sulfate (E- value = 0.20) Nasal spray?
o 43.61 g
o 44.44 g
o 436.1 g
o 444.4
o 4.44 g
4.44 g
For a 22-lb pediatric patient, the dose of cefdinir was determined to be 7 mg/kg. What quantity of a suspension containing 125 mg of cefdinir in 5 mL, should be administered?
o 2.8 mL
o 5.6 mL
o 8.9 mL
o 13.6 mL
o 6.16 m
2.8 mL
If the pharmacist received a prescription good for a month’s (30 days) medication with the following signa,” 2 tablets QID for the 1st
week; 1 tablet QID for the 2nd week, then ½ tablet QID for the remaining number of days. How many tablets will the pharmacist dispense
o 120 tablets
o 116 tablets
o 112 tablets
o 110 tablets
o 148 tablet
116 tablets
Symbicort 80/45 is an oral inhalation product containing 80 ug budesonide and 4.5 ug for moterolfumarate per inhalation. The dose is “two inhalations twice daily”. How much of each drug would be administered daily?
o 160 ug budesonide & 9 ug formoterol fumarate
o 0.32 mg budesonide & 0.18 mg formoterol fumarate
o 320 ug budesonide & 0.18 ug formoterol fumarate
o 0.32 mg budesonide & 0.018 mg formoterol fumarate
o 160 ug budesonide & 18 ug formoterol fumarate
320 ug budesonide & 0.18 ug formoterol fumarate
Rx Acyclovir 5% cream Lidocaine 4% cream aa 15 g Determine the % of acyclovir and the quantity of lidocaine in the filled prescription.
o 3.75% acyclovir & 0.3 g lidocaine
o 5% acyclovir &1.2 g lidocaine
o 2.5% acyclovir & 0.6 g lidocaine
o 2.5% acyclovir & 1.2 g lidocaine
o 5% acyclovir & 0.6 g lidocaine
2.5% acyclovir & 0.6 g lidocaine
Act by validly-registered pharmacist of filling a prescription or doctor’s order on the patient’s chart
o Dispensing
o Compounding
o Patient Counseling
o NOTA
Dispensing
The purpose of this organization is to encourage the voluntary attainment uniformly high standards of institutional medical care and establish standards for the operation of hospitals and other health-related facilities and services.
o ASHP
o PSHP
o JCAH
o DOH
o AOTA
AOTA
A pharmacist adds 10 mL of a 20%w/v solution of a drug to a 500 mL of D5W for parenteral infusion. What is the percentage strength of the drug ion the infusion solution.
o 2 %v/v
o 1.96 %w/v
o 2 % w/v
o 0.39 %w/v
o 0.5 % w/v
0.5 % w/v
Type of Hospital that provides education and training for physicians and research in addition to patient care.
o General Hospital
o Specialty Hospital
o Teaching Hospital
o Critical Access Hospital
o AOTA
Teaching Hospital
Is the overall in-charge of the hospital pharmacy and is a member of the therapeutics committee which decides what drugs are to be included in the hospital formulary.
o Board of director
o Pharmacy Clerk
o Chief Pharmacist
o Pharmacy and therapeutics committee head
o Prescribing physician
Board of director
Refers to medical services performed on an outpatient basis, without admission to a hospital or other facility.
o In-patient services
o Ambulatory services
o Emergency services
o AOTA
Emergency services
What is the bed capacity of a Level 2 hospital
o 25-75 bed capacity
o 100-200 bed capacity
o 200-300 bed capacity
o NOTA
100-200 bed capacity
Consists of former staff members, retired or emeritus, and of other practitioners whom the medical staff chooses to honor
o Associate Medical Staff
o Active medical staff
o Courtesy medical staff
o Consulting Medical staff
o Honorary medical staff
Honorary medical staff
The pharmacy department should be properly organized, meeting all the requirements set by the following government agencies, EXCEPT?
o Bureau of Fire
o Food and Drug Administration
o Department of Health
o Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
o NOTA
Bureau of Fire
Occurs when one drug increases the action of another drug:
o Addition
o Synergism
o Potentiation
o Antagonism
o NOTA
Potentiation
Phenobarbital-antihistamine drug combinations will result to:
o Phenobarbital metabolism is accelerated by antihistamine
o Antihistamine metabolism is accelerated by Phenobarbital
o Phenobarbital peak levels increases
o Decreased Phenobarbital overall elimination rate
o NOTA
Decreased Phenobarbital overall elimination rate
The following are possible administrative work within a hospital pharmacy, EXCEPT?
o Handling of cash receipts
o Requisitioning of floor stocks
o Receiving of narcotics
o Pricing policy
Pricing policy
Functions of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics committee, EXCEPT?
o Formulates annual list of drug requirements.
o Formulates broad professional policies regarding the evaluation, selection, purchasing, use, safe practices and
other matters pertinent to medicines in the hospital.
o Serves as an advisory group to the
medical staff, pharmacy and hospital administration in all matters pertaining to the use of drugs including those under investigation.
o Evaluates, approves, rejects and
monitors new medicines or drug product dosage forms, proposed by members of the medical staff for inclusion or deletion of such medicines in the hospital formulary.
o NOTA
NOTA
Responsibilities of the therapeutics
committee, EXCEPT?
o Preparation of hospital formulary
o Publishing of a pharmacy educational bulletin
o Establishment of automatic stop orders for dangerous drugs
o Assist in the prescription of emergency carts
o NOTA
Establishment of automatic stop orders for dangerous drugs
The following are not physiologic effect of food on drug action, EXCEPT:
o Reduces gastric emptying rate
o Vegetables potentiates anticoagulants
o Milk reduces absorption of tetracyclines
o Tea increases absorption of paracetamol
o NOTA
Vegetables potentiates anticoagulants
A continually revised compilation of the drug products selected by the P & TC, plus important ancillary information about the use of those drugs and relevant pharmacy policies and procedures
o Formulary Manual
o Formulary List
o Hospital Formulary
o Standard Treatment Guidelines
o NOTA
Hospital Formulary
What is the automatic stop order requirement for Narcotic drugs?
o 48 hrs
o 12 hrs
o 24 hrs
o 36 hrs
o NOTA
24 hrs
Substances in this schedule have a low potential for abuse relative to substances listed in Schedule IV and consist primarily of preparations containing limited quantities of
certain narcotics.
o Schedule I
o Schedule II
o Schedule III
o Schedule IV
o Schedule V
Schedule V
Jenny a 32-yrs. old pregnant women deliver to the hospital for her labor. The blood pressure of jenny is 140/110 which is considered as eclampsia. What is the available drug in the emergency cart that will be administered to jenny?
o Magnesium sulfate- PO
o Magnesium sulfate-IV
o Calcium gluconate-PO
o Calcium gluconate-IV
Calcium gluconate-IV
A drug which has been approved by the FDA for general use but which the committee will evaluate for a 6-12 mos. period before final consideration.
o Formulary drug
o Drugs approved on a conditional trial period
o Specialized formulary drug
o Investigational drugs
o NOTA
Drugs approved on a conditional trial period
Ralph a 50 yrs. old biker is taking Coumadin 5mg, Lipitor 40mg, Norvasc 10mg and Glucophage 500mg started January 2017- Present but in November 2017, the physician change the Coumadin from 5mg to Coumadin 10 mg tab PO. Last February 2018, Ralph had a motorcycle accident and needs for surgery because of his open wounds and fractures. But as the operation goes, ralph died because of severe bleeding. The physician conclude that it is because of his taken medication. What is the available drug in the emergency cart that is treatment choice for Supraventricular arrhythmia?
o Isoproterenol
o Digoxin
o Heparin
o Neostigmine
o AOTA
Digoxin
Ralph a 50 yrs. old biker is taking Coumadin 5mg, Lipitor 40mg, Norvasc 10mg and Glucophage 500mg started January 2017- Present but in November 2017, the physician change the Coumadin from 5mg to Coumadin 10 mg tab PO. Last February 2018, Ralph had a motorcycle accident and needs for surgery because of his open wounds and fractures. But as the operation goes, ralph died because of severe bleeding. The physician conclude that it is because of his taken medication. What drug is responsible for the ADR?
o Coumadin
o Norvasc
o Lipitor
o Glucophage
o NOTA
Coumadin
Ralph a 50 yrs. old biker is taking Coumadin 5mg, Lipitor 40mg, Norvasc 10mg and Glucophage 500mg started January 2017- Present but in November 2017, the physician change the Coumadin from 5mg to Coumadin 10 mg tab PO. Last February 2018, Ralph had a motorcycle accident and needs for surgery because of his open wounds and fractures. But as the operation goes, ralph died because of severe bleeding. The physician conclude that it is because of his taken medication. What type of adverse drug reaction happened to Ralph?
o Bizzare
o Continuous
o Augmented
o Delayed
o End of Use
Augmented
If the generic name is the one in parenthesis
o Violative Prescription
o Erroneous Prescriptions
o Impossible Prescription
o A and C
o NOTA
Erroneous Prescriptions
Act by validly-registered pharmacist of filling a prescription or doctor’s order on the patient’s chart.
o Dispensing
o Compounding
o Patient Counseling
o NOTA
o AOTA
Dispensing
The pharmacist shall advise the prescriber of the problem and/or instruct the customer to get the proper prescription.
o Violative Prescription
o Erroneous Prescription
o Ethical prescription
o A and C
o NOTA
A and C
It ensures equal distribution of the drug throughout the resulting compound
o Trituration
o Block and Divide
o Geometric Dilution
o NOTA
o A and
Block and Divide
Use this formula in newborns up to 2 years old only.
o Young’s Rule
o Clark’s Rule
o Cowling’s Rule
o Fried’s Rule
o NOT
Fried’s Rule
Uses the information on weight when using this formula
o Young’s Rule
o Clark’s rule
o Cowling’s rule
o Fried’s Rule
o NOTA
Clark’s rule
What is the average BSA of adults?
o 1.72 m2
o 1.73 m2
o 1.67 m2
o 150 m2
o NOTA
1.73 m2
In partial filling of the prescription, the following shall be written on the prescription, EXCEPT:
o Name and address of the pharmacy
o The quantity served and balance unserved
o The date of partial filling
o NOTA
o AOTA
NOTA
Which of the following auxiliary labels requires before dispensing Noxafil (Posaconazole)?
o Take on an empty stomach.
o May cause drowsiness.
o For ear use only.
o Shake well before use.
o Refrigerate
Shake well before use
Drugs with indicated use together with a “a.c” note should be taken when?
o After meal
o Before meal
o Before sleeping
o After waking up
o NOTA
Before meal
If a drug product is not registered with the FDA.
o Violative Prescription
o Erroneous Prescription
o Impossible Prescription
o NOTA
o AOTA
Impossible Prescription
True for Pharmaceutical Alternatives, EXCEPT:
o Same active pharmaceutical moiety
o Same route of administration
o Different strength
o Same dosage form
o NOTA
Different strength
Is the proprietary name given by the
manufacturer to distinguish its product from those of competitors?
o Trade Name
o Generic name
o Non-proprietary name
o NOTA
o AOTA
Trade Name
Generic name is not written:
o Violative Prescription
o Erroneous Prescription
o Impossible Prescription
o NOTA
o AOTA
Violative Prescription
Which of the following may not be included in dispensing and labeling products not in their original containers?
o Manufacturer
o Name of patient
o Name of pharmacist
o Date of purchase
o NOTA
Manufacturer
“Prescription” means:
I. An order given individually for the person for whom prescribed, directly from the practitioner, or the practitioner’s agent, to a pharmacist.
II. A chart order written for an inpatient specifying drugs
which he or she is to take home upon discharge.
III. A chart order written for an inpatient for use while he or she is an inpatient.
o I Only
o I and II Only
o II and III Only
o AOTA
o NOTA
AOTA
If the prescription is fully filled, retain prescription and file for how long?
o 2 years
o 6 months
o 1 year
o 3 years
o NOTA
2 years
These incompatibility are usually visible and can be easily corrected by applying the pharmaceutical skill obtain an acceptable product.
o Chemical
o Physical
o Therapeutic
o NOTA
o AOTA
Therapeutic
Act by which a different brand or an unbranded drug product is dispensed instead of a drug brand that was prescribed by the physician
o Generic Law
o Generic Substitution
o Dispensing
o NOTA
o AOTA
Generic Substitution
Camphor + Salol, which of the following can be used to remedy the combination problem?
o Magnesium carbonate
o Light magnesium oxide
o Kaolin starch
o AOTA
o NOT
AOTA
KMnO4 should only be prepared using:
o Porcelain Mortar
o Glass Mortar
o Beaker
o Evaporating Dish
o NOTA
Glass Mortar
Monet is a known hypertensive for 18 years. She is religiously taking her maintenance for HPN. She recently had fever and nasal congestion. She took several OTC medications which elevated her blood pressure. Which of the following do you think caused her BP to elevate?
o Warfarin
o Neozep
o Diphenhydramine
o Alaxan
Diphenhydramine
Harry was taken to the emergency room because of low blood pressure and he is nearing shock. The following may have caused the sudden drop of blood pressure, EXCEPT:
o A severe allergic reaction
o Loss of blood from bleeding
o Hypertension
o Arrythmias
Hypertension
Which of the following is/are normal?
o BUN 46
o Sr. Cr. 1.8
o Bicarbonate 26
o JVP 9 c
Bicarbonate 26
Which of the following is correct for Right Sided CHF?
o Faintness
o Difficulty lying down
o Nocturnal dyspnea
o Urinating more frequently at night
Nocturnal dyspnea
JV was blacked out after drinking 2 bottles of beer. He took several medications prior to the drinking session. Which drug would have interacted with the beer, maximizing its side effects?
o Pseudoephedrine
o Cetirizine
o Prednisolone
o Aspirin
Cetirizine
Which of the following is not a SIGN that may support Dx of CHF?
o Pitting Edema
o BP 120/80
o Bilateral Rales
o S3 heart sounds
BP 120/80
Which of the following products is NOT indicated for the management of peptic ulceration?
o Zantac
o Gaviscon
o Nexium
o Pariet
o Buscopan
Buscopan
Severity classification for asthma patients having symptoms more than 2 nights per month but less than 1 night per week.
o Mild intermittent
o Mild persistent
o Moderate persistent
o Severe persistent
Mild intermittent
Tetracycline + Milk
o Poor antibiotic pharmacologic response
o Antiobiotic absorption is enhanced
o Decrease Metabolism of antibiotic
o Enhance Metabolism of antibiotic
o NOTA
Poor antibiotic pharmacologic response
A patient receives a new prescription for Augmentin 500/125 mg. The prescription reads 1 tab po bid x 10 days. A nurses processes prescription using 250/125 mg of Augmentin instead, since the hospital pharmacy is out of stock of 500 mg Augmentin tablets. The clinical pharmacist should suggest:
o Fill the prescription as it is.
o Call the physician and get approval regarding this switch.
o Not fill the prescription.
o Fill the prescription but counsel and inform the patient about this switch
Fill the prescription but counsel and inform the patient about this switch
“ First, do no harm”
o Beneficence
o Nonmaleficence
o Veracity
o Fidelity
o NOTA
Nonmaleficence
Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy in patients under TB therapy, which of the following counters this effect?
o Vit K
o Phytomenadione
o Phosphorous
o Potassium
o NOTA
Phytomenadione
Which is true about the pharmacokinetic effects of metoclopramide?
I. Basic drugs will be absorbed better
II. Gastric emptying will be faster
III. Weak acidic drugs won’t be absorbed
o I and II
o I and III
o II and III
o I, II and III
o I only
II and III
PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy. Standard INR for a normal person is 2-3.
o Both statements are correct.
o Neither statement is correct.
o The 1st statement is incorrect
o The 2nd statement is incorrect
Both statements are correct
Which of the following is/are true for
fecalysis
I. Black, tarry stool indicates upper GI bleeding
II. Hematochezia indicates lower GI
bleeding
III. No bile acid produces grayish stool
IV. Microscopic blood in stool may mean cancer of colon
o I, II and IV
o I, II and III
o I and II
o II and IV
o I, II, III and IV
I, II, III and IV
TDM is not required for drugs whose serum concentrations do not correlate with therapeutic or toxic effects. Drugs with narrow therapeutic range need not be monitored.
o Both statements are correct.
o Neither statement is correct.
o The 1st statement is incorrect
o The 2nd statement is incorrect
The 2nd statement is incorrect
The New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification system categorizes heart failureon a scale of I to IV, as follows:
I. Class I: Slight limitation of physical activity
II. Class II: Marked limitation of physical activity
o Only I is correct
o Both I and II are correct
o Only II is correct
o Both I and II are incorrect
Both I and II are incorrect
Meta Analysis is the statistical practice of combining the results of a number of studies. Randomized controlled trial is a specific type of scientific experiment, and the gold standard for a clinical trial.
o Both statements are correct.
o Neither statement is correct.
o The 1st statement is incorrect
o The 2nd statement is incorrect
Both statements are correct
Diagnostic criteria for Diabetes by the American Diabetes Association (ADA) include the following:
I. A fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level of 126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) or higher
II. A 2-hour plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) or higher
III. Random plasma glucose of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) or higher
o II and III
o I and II
o I and III
o I, II and III
o I only
I and III
Co-trimoxazole is a combination of 2 drugs having this type of interaction:
o Addition
o Synergism
o Antagonism
o Potentiation
o NOTA
Potentiation
Isordil® is an example of:
o Sugar-coated tablet
o Buccal tablet
o Sublingual Tablet
o Chewable tablet
o Vaginal tablet
Sublingual Tablet
Teratogenicity is Type E ADR. Any drug reaction which does not necessarily have a causal relationship with the treatment is called ADR.
o Both statements are true.
o Both statements are false.
o Only the 1st statement is true.
o Only the 2nd statement is true
Only the 2nd statement is true
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Augment reaction
o Response qualitatively normal but quantitatively abnormal
o Include side effect
o Corrected by dose adjustment
o Common, less serious
o Not always predictable or preventable
Not always predictable or preventable
Antidiabetic drug used before as antibiotics
o Tolbutamide
o Voglibose
o Pioglitazone
o Metformin
o NOTA
Metformin
The method that involves the determination of the least costly alternatives when comparing two or more treatment alternatives.
o Cost-of-illness evaluation
o Cost-of-effectiveness analysis
o Cost-minimization analysis
o Cost-utility analysis
o Cost-benefit analysis
Cost-of-effectiveness analysis
Taking Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors together with tyramine rich foods
o Myocardial Infarction
o Diarrhea
o Hypertensive Crisis
o Depression
o Constipation
Hypertensive Crisis
An 80-year old woman with a history of congestive heart failure develops angina pectoris, her medications are adjusted to include Furosemide, Digoxin, Nitroglycerin, Propranolol and Potassium supplements. Shortly thereafter, she develops intermittent frontal throbbing headaches. Which drug may have caused the headaches?
o Digoxin
o Nitroglycerin
o Propranolol
o Potassium supplements
o NOTA
Digoxin
Medications that cause constipation include the following except:
o Morphine
o Ferrous sulphate
o Calcium carbonate
o Milk of Magnesia
o NOTA
Milk of Magnesia
Alex, a smoker for 30 years, has been noted to have smoke 2 packs per day. Compute for the pack years?
o 1
o 5
o 15
o 30
o 60
60
True for Cardiac Troponin:
I. Prolonged elevation
II. More specific for the heart
III. Increases during rhabdomyolysis
IV. Increases during MI
o I, II and III
o I, III and IV
o I, II and IV
o I and II only
o I and IV
I, II and IV
Sinemet is a combination of 2 drugs having this type of interaction:
o Addition
o Synergism
o Antagonism
o Potentiation
o Neutralization
Potentiation
Refers to the enlargement or overgrowth of an organ
o Hypertrophy
o Stenosis
o Phlebitis
o Atrophy
o NOTA
Hypertrophy
What does it mean when a drug has a high Therapeutic index?
o More safe
o Less safe
o More potent
o Less potent
Less safe
What are the most common asthma symptoms?
o Tightness of chest or shortness of breath, usually after exercise
o Wheezing sound while breathing, severe coughing without sputum
o Chest pain following strenuous workouts
o Both a and b
o All of the above
Tightness of chest or shortness of
breath, usually after exercise
Asthma drug most likely to cause oral candidiasis:
o Theophylline
o beclomethasone
o Albuterol
o Zafirlukast
o Cromolyn
Beclomethasone
Phenobarbital and rifampicin increases the metabolism of oral anticoagulants, which effects will be seen
o Embolism
o Hemorrhage
o Bleeding
o Fatigue
o Both b and c
Embolism
Stage 1 HPN according to JNC 7
o Diastolic BP 90-99
o Systolic BP 140-159
o Systolic BP<120
o Diastolic BP>100
o B and C
Systolic BP 140-159
