Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PreBoards > MODULE 1 > Flashcards

MODULE 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following scientists created the framework that became the modern periodic table?

A. Antoine Laurent Lavoisier
B. Dmitri Mendeleev®
C. Gilbert Lewis
D. J.J. Thomson

A

Dmitri Mendeleev

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following scientists is the father of chemistry

a. Dmitri Mendeleev
b. John Dalton
c. Antoine Laurent Lavoiser
d. Ernest Rutherford

A

Antoine Laurent Lavoiser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which law states that when two elements combine with each other to form more than one compound,the weights of one element that combine with a fixed weight of the other are in ratio of small whole numbers?

a. Law of Multiple Proportions
b. Periodic Law
c. Law of Definite Proportions
d. Avogadro’s Law

A

Law of multiple proportions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following scientists discovered protons?

a. James Chadwick
b. Ernest Rutherford
c. Linus Pauling
d. Joseph Proust

A

Ernest Rutherford

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which law states samples of a compound will always contain the same proportion of elements by mass

a. Law of Multiple Proportions
b. Periodic Law
c. Law of Definite Proportions
d. Avogadro’s La

A

Law of Definite Proportions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The chemical formula of perchlorate ion

a. ClO-
b. C1O3-
c. CIO4-
d. ClO2-

A

ClO4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is the biggest element?

a. Calcium
b. Bromine
c. Potassium
d. Arsenic

A

Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?

a. Chlorine
b. lodine
c. Fluorine
d. Astatine

A

Fluorine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is a Ketone?

a. RCOOR
b. ROR
c. RCOR
d. ROH

A

RCOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is an Arrhenius base?

a. CO2-2
b. HCI
c. CH3C00-
d. Mg(OH2)

A

Mg (OH2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which theories states that any species that can donate a proton, H+ is an acid?

a. Bronsted-Lowry Theory
b. Lewis Theory
c. Arrhenius Theory
d. Electron Donor Theory

A

Bronsted-Lowry Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Copper leads to which of the following toxicity?

a. Osteomalacia
b. Parakeratosis
c. Argyria
d. Wilson’s Disease

A

Wilson’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cadmium leads to which of the following toxicity?

a. Baritosis
b. Itai-itai Poisoning
c. Wilson’s Disease
d. Parakeratosis

A

Itai-itai Poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is the antidote for copper poisoning?

a. Saline solution
b. Penicillamine
c. BAL
d. Magnesium sulfate

A

Penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is the antidote for Iron toxicity?

a. Penicillamine
b. Copper sulfate
c. Deferoxamine
d. Saline solution

A

Deferoxamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the chemical name for Epsom Salt?

a. Sodium chloride
b. Potassium fluoride
c. Calcium carbonate
d. Magnesium sulfate

A

Magnesium sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is the most abundant extracellular anion?

a. Chloride Ion
b. Potassium Ion
c. Sodium Io
d. Magnesium Ion

A

Chloride Ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is the second most abundant intracellular cation?

a. Calcium ion
b. Magnesium ion
c. Sodium ion
d. Potassium ion

A

Magnesium ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the chemical name of Green Vitriol?

a. Ferrous Sulfate Heptahydrate
b. Zinc Sulfate Heptahydrate
c. Magnesium Sulfate Heptahydrate
d. Copper Sulfate Pentahydrate

A

Ferrous Sulfate Heptahydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the Chemical formula of White Vitriol

a. CuSO4.5H2O
b. MgSO4.7H2O
c. ZnSO4.7H2O
d. FeSO4.7H2O

A

ZnSO4.7H2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the color of Helium tank/containers?

a. Green
b. Brown
c. Red
d. Yellow

A

Brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What metal is present in Insulin?

a. Magnesium
b. Manganese
c. Zinc
d. Nickel

A

Zinc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the chemical name of White lotion?

a. Hydrogen sulfide
b. Magnesium stearate
c. Cadmium sulfide
d. Zinc Sulfide

A

Zinc Sulfide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the metal present in cofactor of enzymes flavin dependent enzymes?

a. Iodine
b. Fluorine
c. Molybdenum
d. Zinc

A

Molybdenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What can cause lobster appearance?
a. Boric Acid
b. Cadmium Sulfide
c. Hydrated Zinc Silicate
d. Potassium nitrate

A

Boric Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the common name of calcium sulfate?

a. Epsom salt
b. Lover’s ink
c. Plaster of Paris
d. Green vitriol

A

Plaster of Paris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the percentage of hydrogen peroxide as antiseptic?

a. 12%
b. 3%
c. 6%
d. 9%

A

3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is a urinary acidifier?

a. Sodium carbonate
c. Ammonium Chloride
b. Sodium acetate
d. Potassium bicarbonate

A

Ammonium Chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the concentration of iodine in Povidone Iodine?

a. 10%
b. 5%
c. 3%
d. 2%

A

3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is used as a suspending agent in calamine lotion?

a. Kaolin
b. Bentonite
c. Pumice
d. Zinc Sulfate

A

Bentonite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following elements produces a Crimson red flame during a flame test?

a. Calcium
b. Lithium
c. Barium
d. Strontium

A

Strontium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following elements produces a green flame during a flame test?

a. Barium
b. Calcium
c. Sodium
d. Arsenic

A

Barium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following group of cations does not have a common precipitating agent?

a. Chloride Insoluble group
b. Base insoluble group
c. Soluble group
d. Acid insoluble group

A

Soluble group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following elements is used for its depressant action?

a. Calcium
b. Lithium
c. Potassium
d. Sodium

A

Lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which antiviral drug was formerly used to treat Parkinsonism?

a. Acyclovir
b. Zidovudine
c. Amantadine
d. Abacavir

A

Amantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the lightest of all elements?

a. Oxygen
b. Hydrogen
c. Lithium
d. Aluminum

A

Hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the antidote for Iodine toxicity?

a. Epsom salt
b. Starch
c. Saline solution
d. BAL

A

Starch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following block protease enzyme to stop viral replication?

a. Saquinavir
b. Amantadine
c. Acyclovir
d. Zanamivir

A

Saquinavir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

a. G1 Phase
b. G2 Phase
c. M Phase
d. S Phase

A

S Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Ifosfamide?

a. Alkylation of DNA
b. Intercalation
c. Inhibit Topoisomerase I
d. Inhibit microtubule assembly

A

Alkylation of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which phase of the cell cycle is inhibited by antitumor antibiotics?

a. G1 Phase
b. G2 Phase
c. M Phase
d. S Phase

36
Q

Which of the following drugs causes cardiotoxicity?

a. Bleomycin
b. Doxorubicin
c. Methotrexate
d. Ifosfamide

A

Doxorubicin

37
Q

What is the mechanism of action of 5-fluorouracil?

a. Inhibit dihydrofolate reductase
b. Inhibit Topoisomerase I enzyme
c. Inhibit thymidylate synthase
d. Prevent microtubule assembly

A

Inhibit thymidylate synthase

38
Q

Which phase of the cell cycle is inhibited by ifosfamide?

a. G1 Phase
b. G2 Phase
c. M Phase
d. S Phase

39
Q

Which of the following is a folic acid analog?

a. Ifosfamide
b. Methotrexate
c. Carmustine
d. Paclitaxel

A

Methotrexate

39
Q

Which of the following anticancer drugs causes Hand-Foot Syndrome?

a. Methotrexate
b. 5-Fluorouracil
c. Cisplatin
d. Busulfan

A

5-Fluorouracil

40
Q

Which of the following is true regarding chloral hydrate?

a. Chloral hydrate stimulates the CNS
b. Chloral hydrate blocks the depressant effect of ethanol
c. Chloral hydrate is synergistic with ethanol
d. Chloral promotes excretion of ethanol

A

Chloral hydrate is synergistic with ethanol

40
Q

Which of the following causes extrapyramidal symptoms?

a. Olanzapine
b. Aripiprazole
c. Ziprasidone
d. Haloperidol

A

Haloperidol

41
Q

Which of the following drugs share similar structure with phenobarbital?

a. Mephensin
b. Chloral hydrate
c. Chlorpromazine
d. Glutethimide

A

Glutethimide

42
Q

Which of the following benzodiazepines has a duration of action of 3-8 hrs?

a. Temazepam
b. Diazepam
c. Alprazolam
d. Oxazepam

43
Q

Which drug is used as a nerve poisons and have been used in warfare and bioterrorism and as agricultural insecticides

a. Ipratropium
b. Organophosphates
c. Bethanecol
d. Benztropine

A

Organophosphates

44
Q

Which of the following is an Indirect irreversible cholinergic agonist

a. Bethanecol
b. Ecothiopate
c. Atropine
d. Neostigmine

A

Ecothiopate

45
Q

Which of the following is an Indirect reversible cholinergic agonist

a. Bethanecol
b. Ecothiopate
c. Atropine
d. Neostigmine

A

Neostigmine

46
Q

Which of the following blocks muscarinic receptors

a. Succinylcholine
b. Pancuronium
c. Pilocarpine
d. Atropine

47
Q

Which of the following is the first beta blocker

a. Propranolol
b. Dichloroisoproterenol
c. Metoprolol
d. Atenolol

A

Dichloroisoproterenol

47
Q

Which of the ff. is a selective beta blocker

a. Solatol
b. Penbutolol
c. Timolol
d. Atenolol

48
Q

Naphthoxylactic acid is a major metabolite of which of the ff. Drugs

a. Prazosin
b. Propranolol
c. Dobutamine
d. Terbutaline

A

Propranolol

49
Q

What is the mechanism of action of amantadine

a. Prevent uncoating
b. Inhibit DNA Polymerase
c. Reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. Protease inhibitor

A

Prevent uncoating

50
Q

What is the MOA of Acyclovir

a. Prevent uncoating
b. Inhibit DNA Polymerase
c. Reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d. Protease inhibitor

A

Inhibit DNA Polymerase

51
Q

Identify the type of bond exist between the pointed area

a. Van Der Waals forces of attraction
b. Ionic bonding
c. Dipole-dipole attraction
d. Dipole-induced dipole attraction
(Absolute negative and positive)

A

Ionic bonding

52
Q

EVALUATE the adrenergic drug

a. Drug A can be degraded by COMT
b. Drug A cannot be degraded by COMT
c. Drug A can be degraded by MAO
d. Drug has more affinity to alpha receptors

A

Drug A can be degraded by COMT

53
Q

Identify the type of bond exist between the pointed area

a. Van Der Waals forces of attraction
b. Ionic bonding
c. Dipole-dipole attraction
d. Dipole-induced dipole attraction
(3 wavy lines)

A

Van Der Waals forces of attraction

54
Q

Which of the ff. is the least stable against MAO

55
Q

Which of the following benzodiazepines has the shortest duration of action?

A

with OH group

56
Q

Which of the following type of alcohol has the highest CNS depressant activity

A

tertiary alcohol

57
Q

Which of the following phenothiazines has more anticholinergic activity

58
Q

Which of the following is a secondary alcohol?

59
Q

How many neutrons in a barium atom?

A. 137
B. 56
C. 193
D. 81

59
Q

What is the mass number of the following element?

A. 13
B. 27
C. 14
D. 40

60
Q

How many protons are in sodium atom?

A. 23
B. 11
C. 12
D. 34

61
Q

THE ARE KNOWN AS FAST ACETYLATORS

A. ASIANS & ESKIMOS
B. ASIANS & CAUCASIANS
C. ESKIMOS & CAUCASIANS
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE

A

ASIANS & ESKIMOS

62
Q

A PROCESS THAT CAN CHEMICALLY/PHYSICALLY DESTROY MOST VEGETATIVE MICROBES OR VIRUSES BUT CANNOT KILL SPORES

A. SANITAZATION
B. DECONTAMINATION
C. ANTISEPSIS
D. DISINFECTION
E. STERILIZATION

A

DISINFECTION

63
Q

UTILIZED IN STERILIZATION OF HEAT SENSITIVE MEDICAL EQUIPMENT AND PHARMACEUTICALS

A. ETHYLENE OXIDE
B. GLUTARALDEHYDE
C. HEXACHLOROPHENE
D. BOTH A AND B
E. BOTH B AND C

A

BOTH A AND B

64
Q

SHOULD BE GIVEN WITH CAUTION TO PATIENT WITH GOUT

A. AMINOSALICYLIC ACID
B. RIFAMPIN
C. ISONIAZID
D. ETHAMBUTOL
E. PYRAZINAMIDE

A

PYRAZINAMIDE

65
Q

THEORY WHICH POSTULATES THAT A RECEPTOR WILL ALWAYS BE IN A STATE OF EQUILIBRIUM BETWEEN ACTIVE AND INACTIVE STATES

A. MACROMOLECULAR PERTURBATION THEORY
B. ACTIVATION-AGGREGATION THEORY
C. RATE THEORY
D. OCCUPANCY THEORY
E. INDUCED-FIT THEORY

A

ACTIVATION-AGGREGATION THEORY

66
Q

PROVIDES 2ND PASS METABOLISM FOR DRUGS LEAVING THE LIVER

A. LIVER
B. GI MUCOSA
C. LUNGS
D. NASAL PASSAGES

67
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ANTI-TB AND ANTI-LEPROSY DRUG/S CANNOT PENETRATE THE CEREBROSPINAL FLUID

A. CLOFAZIMINE
B. STREPTOMYCIN
C. DAPSONE
D. BOTH A AND B
E. BOTH B AND C

A

BOTH A AND B

68
Q

WHAT HAPPENS WHEN ALCOHOL CHAIN LENGTH INCREASES?

A. ANTIMICROBIAL ACTIVITY INCREASES
B. ALCOHOL CAN EASILY GO THROUGH THE MICROBIAL
MEMBRANE
C. INCRAESE VAN DER WAALS INTERACTION
D. ALL OF THE GIVEN CHOICES

A

ALL OF THE GIVEN CHOICES

69
Q

RATE AND RATIO DETERMINES THE RECEPTOR’S BIOLOGICAL RESPONSE.

A. ACTIVATION - AGGREGATION THEORY
B. MACROMOLECULAR PERTURBATION
C. INDUCED-FIT THEORY
D. OCCUPANCY THEORY
E. RATE THEORY

A

MACROMOLECULAR PERTURBATION

69
Q

CHLORAMPHENICOL IS THE DRUG OF CHOICE FOR TYPHOID FEVER.
MUPIRUCIN IS STRICTLY FOR EXTERNAL APPLICATION ONLY

A. STATEMENT 1 IS CORRECT. STATEMENT 2 IS INCORRECT
B. STATEMENT 1 IS INCORRECT. STATEMENT 2 IS CORRECT
C. BOTH STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT
D. BOTH STATEMENT ARE INCORRECT

A

BOTH STATEMENT ARE CORRECT

70
Q

RESPONSE CEASES WHEN THE DRUG DISSOCIATES FROM THE RECEPTOR

A. ACTIVATION - AGGREGATION THEORY
B. MACROMOLECULAR PERTURBATION
C. INDUCED-FIT THEORY
D. OCCUPANCY THEORY
E. RATE THEORY

A

OCCUPANCY THEORY

70
Q

MDR TB IS RESISTANT TO WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DRUGS?

A. ETHAMBUTOL & ETHIONAMIDE
B. ISONIAZID & RIFAMPIN
C. RIFAMPICIN & PYRAZINAMIDE
D. STREPTOMYCIN & AMINOSALICYLIC ACID
E. PYRAZINAMIDE & ISONIAZID

A

ISONIAZID & RIFAMPIN

71
Q

ANTAGONIST INDUCED A NON SPECIFIC CONFORMATIONAL
CHANGE THAT FAIL TO PRODUCE A RESPONSE

A. ACTIVATION - AGGREGATION THEORY
B. MACROMOLECULAR PERTURBATION
C. INDUCED-FIT THEORY
D. OCCUPANCY THEORY
E. RATE THEORY

A

INDUCED-FIT THEORY

72
Q

ACTIVATION IS PROPORTIONAL TO THE TOTAL NUMBER OF
ENCOUNTERS OF A DRUG WITH ITS RECEPTORS

A. ACTIVATION - AGGREGATION THEORY
B. MACROMOLECULAR PERTURBATION
C. INDUCED-FIT THEORY
D. OCCUPANCY THEORY
E. RATE THEORY

A

RATE THEORY

73
Q

ACCOUNTS FOR THE ACTIVITY OF INVERSE AGONIST

A. ACTIVATION - AGGREGATION THEORY
B. MACROMOLECULAR PERTURBATION
C. INDUCED-FIT THEORY
D. OCCUPANCY THEORY
E. RATE THEORY

A

ACTIVATION - AGGREGATION THEORY

74
Q

THE FOLLOWING ARE ENZYMES THAT CATALYZE PHASE 1 REACTIONS, EXCEPT

A. AMIDASE
B. ESTERASE
C. ACETYLASE
D. DEAMINASE
E. ALCOHOL DEHYDROGENASE

75
Q

AN ANTI INFECTIVE THAT ACT BOTH AS KERATOLYTIC AND KERATOGENIC

A. BENZOYL PEROXIDE
B. THYMOL
C. CRESOL
D. CHLORHEXIDINE GLUCONATE

A

BENZOYL PEROXIDE

76
Q

GREY BABY SYNDROME IS A WELL KNOWN SIDE EFFECT OF THIS DRUG

A. MUPIROCIN
B. CLINDAMYCIN HCL
C. BACITRACIN
D. CHLORAMPHENICOL
E. VANCOMYCIN HCL

A

CHLORAMPHENICOL

76
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING HAS A GOOD RESISTANCE

A. PIPERACILLIN
B. BENZYLPENICILLIN
C. METHICILLIN
D. AMOXICILLIN
E. TICARCILLIN

A

AMOXICILLIN

77
Q

PRODUCT OF THE SUBMERGED FERMENTATION OF PSEUDOMONAS FLUORESCENS

A. MUPIROCIN
B. CLINDAMYCIN HCL
C. BACITRACIN
D. CHLORAMPHENICOL
E. VANCOMYCIN HCL

78
Q

THESE ARE COMMON PROBLEMS ENCOUNTERED WHEN TAKING POLYPEPTIDES, EXCEPT

A. RENAL TOXICITY
B. LACK OF SYSTEMIC ACTIVITY AFTER IV ADMINISTRATION
C. HEPATOTOXICITY
D. BOTH A & B
E. BOTH B & C

A

BOTH B & C

79
Q

LORACARBEF

A. 1ST GENERATION
B. 2ND GENERATION
C. 3RD GENERATION
D. 4TH GENERATION
E. 5TH GENERATION

80
Q

CEFAZOLIN

A. 1ST GENERATION
B. 2ND GENERATION
C. 3RD GENERATION
D. 4TH GENERATION
E. 5TH GENERATION

A

1ST GENERATION

81
Q

HAS LESSER SIDE EFFECTS COMPARED TO STREPTOMYCIN

A. NEOMYCIN SULFATE
B. KANAMYCIN SULFATE
C. TOBRAMYCIN
D. AMIKACIN

A

NEOMYCIN SULFATE

81
Q

LESS OTOTOXIC THEN GENTAMICIN

A. KANAMYCIN
B. AMIKACIN
C. TOBRAMYCIN
D. STREPTOMYCIN

82
Q

CEFUROXIME

A. 1ST GENERATION
B. 2ND GENERATION
C. 3RD GENERATION
D. 4TH GENERATION
E. 5TH GENERATION

A

2ND GENERATION

82
Q

CEFTIBUTEN

A. 1ST GENERATION
B. 2ND GENERATION
C. 3RD GENERATION
D. 4TH GENERATION
E. 5TH GENERATION

A

3RD GENERATION

83
Q

CEFTRIAXONE

A. 1ST GENERATION
B. 2ND GENERATION
C. 3RD GENERATION
D. 4TH GENERATION
E. 5TH GENERATION

A

3RD GENERATION

84
Q

SOLUTION OF CLINDAMYCIN THAT CAN LAST UNTIL 32 DAYS WHEN REFRIGERATED
A. CLINDAMYCIN PHOSPHATE
B. CLINDAMYCIN PALMITATE HCL
C. CLINDAMYCIN HCL
D. BOTH A & B
E. BOTH B & C

A

CLINDAMYCIN PHOSPHATE

85
Q

SALT FORM OF THIS DRUG PROLONGS TS DURATION OF ACTION
A. PHENOXYMETHYLPENICILLIN
B. MEZLOCILLIN SODIUM
C. BENZYPENICILLIN
D. CARBENICILLIN UNDANYL SODIUM

A

BENZYPENICILLIN

PreBoards (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions