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MODULE 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which phase of the medication use process
involves reviewing a patient’s medical history,
current medications, and laboratory values to
make an appropriate drug therapy plan?
A. Prescribing
B. Administration
C. Dispensing
D. Monitoring

A

Prescribing

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2
Q

Refers to an error that occurred resulting to
prolonged hospitalization
A. CAT F
B. CAT E
C. CAT G
D. CAT H

A

CAT F

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3
Q

A patient with a known allergy to penicillin should
avoid which of the following antibiotic classes?
A. Fluoroquinolones
B. Macrolides
C. Cephalosporins
D. Aminoglycosides

A

Cephalosporins

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4
Q

Which of the following drug classes is commonly used to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease?

A. Beta-blockers
B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
C. Statins
D. Benzodiazepines

A

Statins

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5
Q

Which of the following antiplatelet medications is
often prescribed to reduce the risk of thrombotic
events in patients with acute coronary syndromes?
A. Warfarin
B. Aspirin
C. Furosemide
D. Metoprolol

A

Aspirin

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6
Q

Which drug class is commonly used to treat
angina by relaxing coronary arteries and improving
blood flow to the heart?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Angiotensin receptor blockers

A

Calcium channel blockers

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6
Q

Which class of medications is commonly used as
a rescue inhaler for acute bronchospasm in patients
with asthma or COPD?
A. Antihistamines
B. Corticosteroids
C. Long-acting beta-agonists (LABAs)
D. Short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs)

A

Short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs)

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7
Q

A patient with tuberculosis (TB) is prescribed a
multidrug regimen. Which medication is a first-line
agent typically used in the treatment of TB?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Ethambutol
C. Rifampin
D. Linezolid

A

Rifampin

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8
Q

Which class of oral antidiabetic medications
stimulates the pancreas to release more insulin and
is associated with an increased risk of
hypoglycemia?
A. Biguanides
B. Thiazolidinediones (TZDs)
C. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4)
inhibitors
D. Sulfonylureas

A

Sulfonylureas

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9
Q

A patient with diabetes is prescribed a
medication that decreases glucose absorption from
the intestines and lowers postprandial blood glucose
levels. Which medication class does this describe?
A. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
B. Sodium-glucose cotransporter-2
(SGLT2) inhibitors
C. Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)
agonists
D. Meglitinides

A

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

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10
Q

Black, tarry stool may indicate lower
gastrointestinal bleeding. Fat malabsorption
(steatorrhea) usually leads to dark brown stool.
A. Both are correct.
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct.
C. Both are wrong.
D. Only the 1st statement is correct.

A

Both are wrong

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11
Q

Gout is caused by deposition of monosodium
urate crystals in joints and soft tissues. Chronic
hyperuricemia may lead to gout.
A. Both are correct.
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct.
C. Only the 1st statement is correct.
D. Both are wrong.

A

Both are correct.

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12
Q

In this condition the entire thyroid gland might be
overactive and produce too much hormone. This
problem is also called diffuse toxic goiter (enlarged
thyroid gland).
A. Grave’s disease
B. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
C. Iatrogenic goiter
D. Thyrotoxicosis

A

Grave’s disease

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13
Q

Asthma Symptoms more than twice a week, but
no more than once in a single day
A. Mild intermittent
B. Moderate persistent
C. Severe persistent
D. Mild persistent

A

Mild persistent

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14
Q

Classic symptoms of meningitis usually include
A. Dry skin, dehydration, cold sores
B. Fever, headache, stiff neck
C. Backache, hallucinations, indigestion
D. Rash, inner ear pain, itching

A

Fever, headache, stiff neck

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15
Q

The first symptom of Parkinson’s disease is/are?
A. Postural instability
B. Tremors
C. Bradykinesia
D. All are correct
E. Rigidity

A

Tremors

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16
Q

the measurement of specific drugs and/or their
breakdown products (metabolites) at timed intervals
to maintain a relatively constant concentration of the
medication in the blood.
A. Volume of Distribution
B. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
C. NOTE
D. Clinical Pharmacokinetics

A

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

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17
Q

Involves identifying and measuring cost of
different treatment options and comparing it with their benefits

A. Cost-Benefit Analysis
B. Cost-Utility Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis

A

Cost-Minimization Analysis

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18
Q

All Physical examination techniques follow the
IAPP pattern except for abdomen. In percussion, we
use our hands to feel for tenderness or presence of
masses.
A. Both are correct.
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct.
C. Both are wrong.
D. Only the 1st statement is correct.

A

Both are wrong

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19
Q

Outcomes of Pharmaceutical care, except
A. Preventing of disease or symptoms
B. Cure of a disease
C. Elimination or reduction of symptoms
D. Arrest or slowing of a disease process
E. Research on disease

A

Research on disease

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20
Q

What is the primary goal of integrative medicine
A. Minimizing disease progression
B. Prevention and Wellness
C. Minimizing illness
D. Maximizing capacity for healing

A

Maximizing capacity for healing

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21
Q

What is the most obvious involvement of
Pharmacists in Complementary and Alternative
Medicine?
A. Offer sound, impartial advice about CAM
B. Sale of CAM
C. Ensure that stocks of CAM products are
obtained from a reputable source
D. Manufacture of CAM products

A

Sale of CAM

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22
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the declaration of the policy of the Republic Act No. 8423?

A. TAMA of 1997 is to improve the quality and delivery of health care services to the Filipino people.
B. TAMA of 1997 is to integrate traditional and alternative health care into the national health care delivery system.
C. TAMA of 1997 is to promote the use of traditional, alternative, preventive, and curative health care modalities
D. TAMA of 1997 is to seek legally workable basis by which indigenous societies would own their knowledge of traditional medicine

A

TAMA of 1997 is to promote the use of traditional, alternative, preventive, and curative health care modalities

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23
Q

The comprehensive body of knowledge, skills,
and healthcare practices, which may not always
align with modern scientific principles but are
acknowledged by communities.
A. Alternative Health Care Modalities
B. Integrative Medicine
C. Traditional Medicine
D. Traditional and Alternative Health Care

A

Traditional Medicine

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24
Q

Which of the following does not belong to Alternative Medical Systems domain of Complementary and Alternative Medicine?

A. Acupuncture, Massage, Use of herbs
B. Ayurveda, TCM, Oriental Medicine
C. Naturopathy, Homeopathy
D. None of the above

A

None of the above

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25
Q

The legal basis for the declaration of November as Traditional and Health and Alternative Health Care Month.

A. GCG Memorandum Circular 2012-10
B. GCG Memorandum Circular 2012-12
C. Proclamation No. 698, Series of 2004
D. Proclamation No. 968, Series of 2004

A

Proclamation No. 698, Series of 2004

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26
Q

In Ayurveda, which of the following energy force is responsible for the control of digestion and metabolism?

A. Pitta dosha
B. Kappa dosha
C. Vata dosha
D. Both A and C

A

Pitta dosha

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27
Q

The most common form of energy medicine
which assists the recipient in tapping into their own
healing process.
A. Healing Touch
B. Magnetic Therapy
C. Therapeutic Touch
D. Energy Therapy

A

Therapeutic Touch

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28
Q

Which of the following medicinal plants approved by the DOH is used in CAM to eliminate intestinal parasites?

A. Senna alata
B. Quisqualis indica
C. Ehretia microphylla
D. Peperomia pellucida

A

Quisqualis indica

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29
Q

An alternative health care modality developed
by Dr. Aaron Beck belongs to which domains of
Complementary and Alternative Medicine?
A. Alternative Medical Systems
B. Mind-Body Interventions
C. Manipulative and Body-based Methods
D. Energy Therapy

A

Mind-Body Interventions

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30
Q

The fraction 26/208 is equal to;
a. 12.5%
b. 0.125
c. 1/8
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

AOTA

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31
Q

The quantity 0.25 g is equal to except;
a. 250000 mcg
b. 25cg
c. 2,500 mg
d. 2.5 dg
e. NOTA

A

2,500 mg

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32
Q

The signa “tab iss p.c. tid x 1 wk.” is translated
as…
a. take 1 ½ tablet three times a day before
meals for 1 week
b. take 1 ½ tablet three times a day before
meals once a week
c. take 1 tablet three times a day after meals
for 1 week
d. take 1 ½ tablet three times a day after
meals for 1 week
e. take 1 ½ tablet three times a day after
meals once a week

A

take 1 ½ tablet three times a day after
meals for 1 week

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33
Q

What will be the concentration in %w/w of 20%
w/v NaCl solution if the sp.gr. of the solution is
1.3
a. 3%
b. 25.79%
c. 25.97%
d. 15.39%
e. 1.54%

A

15.39%

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34
Q

The concentration 1:4000 is equivalent to the
following, except;
a. 0.025%
b. 0.25mg/ml
c. 250 ppm
d. 25 mg%
e. NOTA

A

NOTA

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34
Q

How many tumblers can be obtained from 1
gallon?
a. 63 tumblers
b. 31 tumblers
c. 32 tumblers
d. 16 tumblers
e. 15 tumblers

A

15 tumblers

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34
Q

Calculate the dose for a patient that measures
6’3” and weighs 70 lb if the dose is 15 mg/m²;
a. 21.9 mg
b. 1.95 mg
c. 19.42 mg
d. 25.2 mg
e. 18.15 mg

A

19.42 mg

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35
Q

Potency of measles virus vaccine is expressed in
a. PFU
b. TCID50
c. FFU
d. EL.U
e. NOTA

A

TCID50

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36
Q

A biologic contains 100 LF units of diphtheria
toxoid in each 5 ml of product. If a pediatric
patient is to receive 5 Lf units, how many ml of
product would be administered.
a. 0.25 ml
b. 0.05 ml
c. 0.5 ml
d. 0.0n5 ml
e. NOTA

A

0.25 ml

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37
Q

If a 2 ml vial contains 80 units of
onabotulinumtoxinA (BOTOX) and 0.1 ml is
injected into 10 sites during a procedure, how
many units of drug was administered?
a. 20 units
b. 40 units
c. 60 units
d. 80 units
e. NOTA

A

40 units

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38
Q

Calculate the equivalent tonic effect to NaCl
represented by the ingredients in a 5%
dextrose solution and determine whether the
solution is;
a. isotonic
b. hypotonic
c. hypertonic

A

isotonic

39
Q

Using Young’s Rule, compute for the child
dose of acetaminophen in a day:
Adult dose: 500 mg q4h
Child’s weight: 45 lb
Child’s age: 8 years old
a. 200 mg
b. 900 mg
c. 1,125 mg
d. 1, 200 mg
e. NOTA

A

1, 200 mg

40
Q

How many ml of water will be added to a 20%
NaCl solution to prepare 1 pint of NSS?
a. 45.17 ml
b. 451.71ml
c. 21.29ml
d. 212.9ml
e. NOTA

A

451.71ml

41
Q

In what proportion should a 10%, 7% Sulfur
ointments and yellow ointment be mixed to
prepare a 5% Sulfur ointment;
a. 10:7:1
b. 7:3:3
c. 5:5:7
d. 4:4:11
e. NOTA

A

5:5:7

42
Q

The total amount in a given formulation of
Dexamethasone ophthalmic ointment is 35 g.
What factor are you going to use to solve for
the quantity needed to prepare 50 dozens of a
3.5 gram- tube of the ophthalmic ointment.
a. 20
b. 35
c. 60
d. 70
e. 3.5

A

60

43
Q

If there is an order for a particular Dangerous
Drug (DD) with a preparation of 10 mg/2 mL
ampule, how many mL would be needed if the
dose is 0.05 mg/Kg/dose? The patient is 110
lbs.
a. 1 mL
b. 0.05 mL
c. 0.25 mL
d. 0.5 mL

A

0.5 mL

44
Q

The temperature 4.44°C is equal to
a. 40° F
b. 5°C
c. 279 K
d. a and c
e. NOTA

A

40° F

45
Q

What is the %v/v of a solution of 800g liquid (spec. gravity = 0.8) in water to make 4000mL?

a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 25%
d. 80%

A

25%

46
Q

Which of the following is incorrect pairing?
a. 0.009% NSS: hypotonic solution
b. 9.0% NSS: isotonic solution
c. 0.9% NSS: isotonic solution
d. 0.09% NSS: hypotonic solution

A

9.0% NSS: isotonic solution

47
Q

Arrange the ff administration instructions from
MOST to LEAST frequent:
a. q4h, hs, bid
b. bid, hs, q4h
c. q8h, bid, hs
d. hs, q4h, bid

A

q8h, bid, hs

48
Q

If a drug inhaler contains 20 mg of the active
drug, how many inhalation doses can be
delivered, if each inhalation dose contains 90
micrograms?
a. 1,800 doses
b. 22 doses
c. 180 doses
d. 222 doses

A

222 doses

49
Q

How many grams of 1% hydrocortisone cream
must be mixed with 0.5% hydrocortisone
cream if one wishes to prepare 80 g of a 0.6%
w/w preparation?
a. 12 g
b. 16 g
c. 20 g
d. 24 g
e. 36 g

A

16 g

49
Q

Which of the following is/are NOT the technical
aspects of pharmaceutical services?
A. Counseling
B. Medicine Supply Management
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

A

Counseling

50
Q

These are drugs that are NOT safe for use and
are habit-forming drugs that require the
supervision of a licensed practitioner.
A. Legend Drugs
B. Prescription Drugs
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

A

Both A and B

51
Q

Which of the following is/are NOT the outcome/s of
pharmaceutical care?
A. Cure of Patient’s Disease
B. Elimination of patient’s symptomatology
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

A

None of the above

52
Q

The following are the responsibilities of a
Registered Pharmacist, EXCEPT:
A. Must maintain a high level of practice
competence
B. Planning and conducting a patient’s
course of treatment
C. Provide pharmaceutical care
D. Practice the value of confidentiality

A

Planning and conducting a patient’s
course of treatment

53
Q

This is a special prescription issued by the
Dangerous Drug Board for practitioners to prescribe
both regulated & prohibited drugs.
A. Yellow prescription
B. DDB Form 1-72
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

A

Both A and B

54
Q

These are drugs that are not habit-forming and can
be bought off-the-shelf in stores.
A. OTC
B. Legend Drugs
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

A

OTC

55
Q

Only Physicians having an S3 license can
prescribe both prohibited and regulated drugs.
Retail Pharmacies that do not require a license from
the Dangerous Drugs Board to sell dangerous drugs
in any form. (Invalid question supposed to be S2
license)
A. 1st Statement is true. 2nd Statement is
false.
B. 1st Statement is false. 2nd Statement is
true.
C. Both statements are true
D. Neither statements are true.

A

1st Statement is true. 2nd Statement is
false.

56
Q

Main requirements for Medication Review:
A. Data and access to information, resources, and logistics, collaborative efforts
B. Data access and Collaborative efforts
C. Resources and Collaborative efforts
D. Collaborative efforts and Access to information

A

Data and access to information, resources, and logistics, collaborative efforts

57
Q

Impact of medication review, EXCEPT:
A. Clinical Outcomes
B. Humanistic Outcomes
C. Social Outcomes
D. Economic Outcomes

A

Social Outcomes

58
Q

It is a px-centered systematic approach wherein
the Clinical Pharmacist will design a written format to
ensure a proper drug use, achieve a definite
outcome, and improve px care through assuring
safety, effectiveness, and cost-effectiveness.
A. Pharmaceutical Care Plan
B. Medication Review
C. Medication Adherence
D. None of the above

A

Pharmaceutical Care Plan

59
Q

The following are true in the role of being a Clinical Pharmacist, EXCEPT:

I. The Clinical Pharmacist should serve as a resource regarding all aspects of medical procedures and be accessible as a point of contact.
II. Clinical pharmacists should assist the
therapeutic decision-making and advice on patient safety issues
III. They should be involved in all patient care areas especially in therapeutic decision making.
IV. They should assure continuity care.

A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II only
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

A

I only

60
Q

It is a role of the pharmacist as an effective
source of factual medication information despite
having contradicting and confusing information
encountered in their line of duty.
A. Life-long learner
B. Entrepreneur
C. Communicator
D. Decision-maker
E. Care-giver

A

Decision-maker

61
Q

This branch of pharmacy assures the integrity of
the medicine supply chain and ensures proper
storage of medicines.
A. Industrial Pharmacist
B. Dispensing Pharmacist
C. Clinical Pharmacist
D. Nuclear Pharmacist
E. None of the above

A

Dispensing Pharmacist

62
Q

This role of being a pharmacist is to promote and innovate its field of profession by improving certain aspects of standard operating procedures or undergoing studies to help improve quality healthcare services

A. Decision-maker
B. Communicator
C. Researcher
D. Care-giver
E. Life-long learner

A

Researcher

63
Q

The following components of the mission/philosophy of pharmaceutical practice except:

I. Health promotion
II. Preventing harm in operating or surgical errors
III. Identifying and managing health-related problems
IV. Delegating responsible use of unlimited health-care resources

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
E. None of the above

A

2 and 4 only

64
Q

It is a quality of being a pharmacist to not only be
knowledgeable about the pharmaceutical aspect but
also convey that information in a way patients and
customers can understand
A. Decision-maker
B. Researcher
C. Care-giver
D. Life-long learner
E. Communicator

A

Communicator

65
Q

The following are roles of a dispensing
pharmacist except:
I. Assisting patients to help them understand
the correct timing of doses, foods, or other
medicines to avoid when taking a dose
II. Monitor and verifying adverse medicine
events
III. Assures reliability and safety of the medicine
supply
IV. Can be consulted for health-related
problems
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

A

All of the above

66
Q

A quality of a pharmacist is to pursue knowledge
and expose oneself to new and updated information
within the profession to promote better patient
healthcare service
A. Researcher
B. Life-long learner
C. Agents for positive change
D. Teacher
E. Leader

A

Life-long learner

67
Q

The mission of pharmacy practice is to ___ to
health ____ and to help patients with _____
problems to make the best use of their medicines
A. Adhere, improvement, health
B. Contribution, innovations, health
C. Adhere, improvement, emotional
D. Contribute, improvement, health
E. Promote, advancements, medical

A

Contribute, improvement, health

68
Q

Marketing of Drugs and medical devices by
private and Public organization:
A. Pharmaceutical Management
B. Pharmaceutical Marketing
C. Pharmaceutical Administration
D. Pharmaceutical Economics

A

Pharmaceutical Marketing

69
Q

FOUR P’s oF MARKETING:

A. PRODUCT, PLACE, PRICE AND PEOPLE
B. PRODUCT, PLACE, PRICE AND PROMOTION
C. PRODUCT, PLACE, PRICE, AND PERFORMANCE
D. PEOPLE, PRODUCT, PLACE AND PRICE

A

PRODUCT, PLACE, PRICE AND
PROMOTION

70
Q

The cycle of management:

A. Planning, Organizing, Motivation, Control.
B. Planning, Organizing, Motivation, Challenge.
C. Planning, Organizing, Mechanism, Control.
D. Control, Motivation, Organization, Planning

A

Planning, Organizing, Motivation,
Control.

71
Q

Competitive Advantage are attributed to a
variety of factors except:
A. Cost Structure
B. Quality of Product offering
C. Customer Service
D. AOTA
E. NOTA

A

NOTA

72
Q

Set of characteristics and benefits the
company choses to stimulate the desired
target market except:
A. Marketing plan
B. Marketing Mix
C. Market value
D. AOTA
E. NOTA

A

Market value

73
Q

Good marketing plan includes the following
except:
A. Financial Goal
B. Positioning Strategy
C. Brand Strategy
D. NOTA
E. AOTA

A

NOTA

74
Q

Acronym of Smart:
A. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant and Time bound
B. Specific, Measurable, Acceptable, Relevant, and Time-bound
C. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Reliable, and Time-bound
D. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Reliable, and Time-Table

A

Specific, Measurable, Attainable,
Relevant and Time bound

75
Q

THREE KEY AREAS TO EXECUTE THE
RIGHT ACTIVITIES
A. Managing a company business
B. Establishing strategies
C. Assessment of company strength
D. AOTA
E. NOTA

A

AOTA

76
Q

Acronym for SWOT:
A. Strength, Work ethics, Opportunities,
Threats
B. Strength, Weakness, Opposite, Threats
C. Strength, Work ethics, Opportunities,
Threaten
D. Strength, Weakness, Opportunities,
Threats

A

Strength, Weakness, Opportunities,
Threats

77
Q

ONE OF THE THREE PHASES OF
VALUE CREATION:
A. 1st Phase - Sales Force
B. 2nd Phase - Determine specific
Product Feature
C. 3rd Phase - Choosing the value
segment, target and positioning
D. AOTA
E. NOTA

A

2nd Phase - Determine specific
Product Feature

77
Q

Substances in this schedule have no
currently accepted medical use, a lack
of accepted safety for use under
medical supervision, and a high
potential for abuse.
A. Schedule 1
B. Schedule 2
C. Schedule 3
D. Schedule 4
E. Schedule 5

A

Schedule 1

78
Q

Aims to understand how and why drugs/ medicines are used as they are; and to improve drug use to the best possible health outcomes.

A. Drug Usage Evaluation
B. Drug Information Service
C. Medication Administration
D. Drug Utilization Review

A

Drug Utilization Review

79
Q

The Patient Medical Chart documents
the health information of all patients. It
also serves as a mechanism for
communication among health care
professionals and is a hospital
non-legal document of the patient’s
health care information
A. Only 1st statement is false
B. 1st statement is true. 2nd
statement is false
C. Neither of the statements are
false
D. Neither of the statements are
true

A

Neither of the statements are
true

79
Q

Complete Floor Stock System wherein
omission of rarely used for particularly
expensive drugs from the floor stock but
dispensed when prescribed. Individual
Prescription Order system is usually
used by the small/private hospitals
A. 1st statement is wrong. 2nd
statement is correct.
B. 1st statement is correct. 2nd
statement is wrong
C. Neither of the statements are
wrong.
D. Neither of the statements are
correct.

A

Neither of the statements are
wrong

80
Q

An FDA approved drug which is recommended as being essential for good patient care with a well-established usage. Once it is accepted it may be prescribed by all members of the attending and house staffs.

A. Investigational Drug
B. Specialized Formulary Drug
C. Formulary Drug
D. None of the above

A

Formulary Drug

81
Q

What is not TRUE about compounding?

A. Used for patient who cannot be treated with an FDA-approved medication, such as a patient who has an allergy to a certain dye and needs a medication to be made without
B. Most compounded drugs are not FDA approved.
C. Compounded drugs are used to cater the needs of a specific medication used by a patient.
D. Compounded drugs have the same safety, quality, and effectiveness assurances as approved drugs.

A

Compounded drugs have the same safety, quality, and effectiveness assurances as approved drugs.

82
Q

A prescription was given by an out-patient to the hospital pharmacist on duty. The prescription was indecipherable and illegible. As a pharmacist, what would be the BEST solution?

A. Guess the medication/s being prescribed and dispense.
B. Tell the patient the medication/s prescribed is/are out of stock/s.
C. Call the prescribing physician to confirm and request for a new legible prescription before dispensing
D. Call the prescribing physician for the patient’s diagnosis to prescribe the medication and dispense.

A

Call the prescribing physician to confirm and request for a new legible prescription before dispensing

83
Q

A 60 year-old male patient submits a
24-hour urine for creatinine clearance
analysis. The volume of the sample
submitted is 1580 mL. The urine
creatinine is 140 mg/dL, and the plasma
creatinine is 0.9 mg/dL.
A. 104.22
B. 157.43
C. 170.68
D. 138.90

A

170.68

84
Q

Interpret the result of the 60 year old
patient (refer to question number 8)
A. High creatinine level
B. Normal creatinine level
C. Low creatinine level
D. NOTA

A

High creatinine level
NORMAL RANGE:
Adult female: 85-125mL/min
Adult male: 97-137mL/min

84
Q

Compute for the infusion rate:
D5Lr: 1 Liter to be infused for 12 hrs
with a drop factor of 15
A. 20.83 gtt/min
B. 23.01 gtt/min
C. 20.03 gtt/min
D. 20.01 gtt/min

A

20.83 gtt/min

85
Q

What is the role of pharmacists in medical
informatics?
A. Analyzing patient demographics
B. Ensuring medication safety and
efficacy through information
systems
C. Conducting surgical procedures
D. Managing hospital finances

A

Ensuring medication safety and
efficacy through information
systems

86
Q

How does CDSS contribute to evidence-based practice in pharmacy?

A. By relying solely on healthcare provider experience
B. By automatically administering medications
C. By providing clinical guidelines and recommendations
D. By restricting access to patient data.

A

By providing clinical guidelines
and recommendations

87
Q

Example of a tertiary source
A. Conference proceedings
B. Review of articles
C. Hospital Formulary
D. Artifacts

A

Hospital Formulary

88
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a
source of evidence in evidence-based
medicine?
A. Randomized controlled trials
B. Expert opinions
C. Case reports
D. Meta-analyses

A

Expert opinions

89
Q

A researcher wants to investigate the
effectiveness of a new medication for
hypertension compared to standard therapy.
Which component of the PICO framework does
this represent?
A. Patient
B. Intervention
C. Comparison
D. Outcome

A

Intervention

90
Q

Which is/are true for the 2nd step of the modified systematic approach

I. This is historically the most difficult step because you must act as a detective.
II. It’s best to inquire how the requestor would like the information delivered at this step.

A. Only the 1st statement is correct
B. Both are wrong
C. Both are correct
D. Only the 2nd statement is correct

A

Only the 1st statement is correct

91
Q

A clinician wants to know if the use of
acupuncture is more effective than traditional
pain medications for treating lower back pain in
elderly patients. What component of the PICO
framework would represent the traditional pain
medications?
A. Patient
B. Intervention
C. Comparison
D. Outcome

A

Comparison

92
Q

A concise statement describing the symptom,
problem, condition, diagnosis, or another factor
that is the reason for the encounter
A. MHx
B. HPI
C. FHx
D. CC

A

CC

93
Q

A 20 year old woman has a family history of breast cancer with both her mother dying of the disease at 29 and her sister being diagnosed with the disease at 31. What is the implication of this for this patient?

A. There is a significantly increased
risk of this person developing breast cancer
B. There is no significance of such a history
C. There is no benefit in enrolling such a patient into a screening program
D. There is no significance of such a history
E. There is no benefit in offering genetic counseling & screening

A

There is a significantly increased risk of this person developing breast cancer

94
Q

It is the most common method of documentation
used by providers to input notes into patients’
medical records
A. SOAP
B. CORE
C. FARM
D. PRIM

A

SOAP

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