MODULE 3 Flashcards
Which phase of the medication use process
involves reviewing a patient’s medical history,
current medications, and laboratory values to
make an appropriate drug therapy plan?
A. Prescribing
B. Administration
C. Dispensing
D. Monitoring
Prescribing
Refers to an error that occurred resulting to
prolonged hospitalization
A. CAT F
B. CAT E
C. CAT G
D. CAT H
CAT F
A patient with a known allergy to penicillin should
avoid which of the following antibiotic classes?
A. Fluoroquinolones
B. Macrolides
C. Cephalosporins
D. Aminoglycosides
Cephalosporins
Which of the following drug classes is commonly used to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
C. Statins
D. Benzodiazepines
Statins
Which of the following antiplatelet medications is
often prescribed to reduce the risk of thrombotic
events in patients with acute coronary syndromes?
A. Warfarin
B. Aspirin
C. Furosemide
D. Metoprolol
Aspirin
Which drug class is commonly used to treat
angina by relaxing coronary arteries and improving
blood flow to the heart?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Angiotensin receptor blockers
Calcium channel blockers
Which class of medications is commonly used as
a rescue inhaler for acute bronchospasm in patients
with asthma or COPD?
A. Antihistamines
B. Corticosteroids
C. Long-acting beta-agonists (LABAs)
D. Short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs)
Short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs)
A patient with tuberculosis (TB) is prescribed a
multidrug regimen. Which medication is a first-line
agent typically used in the treatment of TB?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Ethambutol
C. Rifampin
D. Linezolid
Rifampin
Which class of oral antidiabetic medications
stimulates the pancreas to release more insulin and
is associated with an increased risk of
hypoglycemia?
A. Biguanides
B. Thiazolidinediones (TZDs)
C. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4)
inhibitors
D. Sulfonylureas
Sulfonylureas
A patient with diabetes is prescribed a
medication that decreases glucose absorption from
the intestines and lowers postprandial blood glucose
levels. Which medication class does this describe?
A. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
B. Sodium-glucose cotransporter-2
(SGLT2) inhibitors
C. Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)
agonists
D. Meglitinides
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
Black, tarry stool may indicate lower
gastrointestinal bleeding. Fat malabsorption
(steatorrhea) usually leads to dark brown stool.
A. Both are correct.
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct.
C. Both are wrong.
D. Only the 1st statement is correct.
Both are wrong
Gout is caused by deposition of monosodium
urate crystals in joints and soft tissues. Chronic
hyperuricemia may lead to gout.
A. Both are correct.
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct.
C. Only the 1st statement is correct.
D. Both are wrong.
Both are correct.
In this condition the entire thyroid gland might be
overactive and produce too much hormone. This
problem is also called diffuse toxic goiter (enlarged
thyroid gland).
A. Grave’s disease
B. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
C. Iatrogenic goiter
D. Thyrotoxicosis
Grave’s disease
Asthma Symptoms more than twice a week, but
no more than once in a single day
A. Mild intermittent
B. Moderate persistent
C. Severe persistent
D. Mild persistent
Mild persistent
Classic symptoms of meningitis usually include
A. Dry skin, dehydration, cold sores
B. Fever, headache, stiff neck
C. Backache, hallucinations, indigestion
D. Rash, inner ear pain, itching
Fever, headache, stiff neck
The first symptom of Parkinson’s disease is/are?
A. Postural instability
B. Tremors
C. Bradykinesia
D. All are correct
E. Rigidity
Tremors
the measurement of specific drugs and/or their
breakdown products (metabolites) at timed intervals
to maintain a relatively constant concentration of the
medication in the blood.
A. Volume of Distribution
B. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
C. NOTE
D. Clinical Pharmacokinetics
Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
Involves identifying and measuring cost of
different treatment options and comparing it with their benefits
A. Cost-Benefit Analysis
B. Cost-Utility Analysis
C. Cost-Minimization Analysis
D. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
Cost-Minimization Analysis
All Physical examination techniques follow the
IAPP pattern except for abdomen. In percussion, we
use our hands to feel for tenderness or presence of
masses.
A. Both are correct.
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct.
C. Both are wrong.
D. Only the 1st statement is correct.
Both are wrong
Outcomes of Pharmaceutical care, except
A. Preventing of disease or symptoms
B. Cure of a disease
C. Elimination or reduction of symptoms
D. Arrest or slowing of a disease process
E. Research on disease
Research on disease
What is the primary goal of integrative medicine
A. Minimizing disease progression
B. Prevention and Wellness
C. Minimizing illness
D. Maximizing capacity for healing
Maximizing capacity for healing
What is the most obvious involvement of
Pharmacists in Complementary and Alternative
Medicine?
A. Offer sound, impartial advice about CAM
B. Sale of CAM
C. Ensure that stocks of CAM products are
obtained from a reputable source
D. Manufacture of CAM products
Sale of CAM
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the declaration of the policy of the Republic Act No. 8423?
A. TAMA of 1997 is to improve the quality and delivery of health care services to the Filipino people.
B. TAMA of 1997 is to integrate traditional and alternative health care into the national health care delivery system.
C. TAMA of 1997 is to promote the use of traditional, alternative, preventive, and curative health care modalities
D. TAMA of 1997 is to seek legally workable basis by which indigenous societies would own their knowledge of traditional medicine
TAMA of 1997 is to promote the use of traditional, alternative, preventive, and curative health care modalities
The comprehensive body of knowledge, skills,
and healthcare practices, which may not always
align with modern scientific principles but are
acknowledged by communities.
A. Alternative Health Care Modalities
B. Integrative Medicine
C. Traditional Medicine
D. Traditional and Alternative Health Care
Traditional Medicine
Which of the following does not belong to Alternative Medical Systems domain of Complementary and Alternative Medicine?
A. Acupuncture, Massage, Use of herbs
B. Ayurveda, TCM, Oriental Medicine
C. Naturopathy, Homeopathy
D. None of the above
None of the above
The legal basis for the declaration of November as Traditional and Health and Alternative Health Care Month.
A. GCG Memorandum Circular 2012-10
B. GCG Memorandum Circular 2012-12
C. Proclamation No. 698, Series of 2004
D. Proclamation No. 968, Series of 2004
Proclamation No. 698, Series of 2004
In Ayurveda, which of the following energy force is responsible for the control of digestion and metabolism?
A. Pitta dosha
B. Kappa dosha
C. Vata dosha
D. Both A and C
Pitta dosha
The most common form of energy medicine
which assists the recipient in tapping into their own
healing process.
A. Healing Touch
B. Magnetic Therapy
C. Therapeutic Touch
D. Energy Therapy
Therapeutic Touch
Which of the following medicinal plants approved by the DOH is used in CAM to eliminate intestinal parasites?
A. Senna alata
B. Quisqualis indica
C. Ehretia microphylla
D. Peperomia pellucida
Quisqualis indica
An alternative health care modality developed
by Dr. Aaron Beck belongs to which domains of
Complementary and Alternative Medicine?
A. Alternative Medical Systems
B. Mind-Body Interventions
C. Manipulative and Body-based Methods
D. Energy Therapy
Mind-Body Interventions
The fraction 26/208 is equal to;
a. 12.5%
b. 0.125
c. 1/8
d. AOTA
e. NOTA
AOTA
The quantity 0.25 g is equal to except;
a. 250000 mcg
b. 25cg
c. 2,500 mg
d. 2.5 dg
e. NOTA
2,500 mg
The signa “tab iss p.c. tid x 1 wk.” is translated
as…
a. take 1 ½ tablet three times a day before
meals for 1 week
b. take 1 ½ tablet three times a day before
meals once a week
c. take 1 tablet three times a day after meals
for 1 week
d. take 1 ½ tablet three times a day after
meals for 1 week
e. take 1 ½ tablet three times a day after
meals once a week
take 1 ½ tablet three times a day after
meals for 1 week
What will be the concentration in %w/w of 20%
w/v NaCl solution if the sp.gr. of the solution is
1.3
a. 3%
b. 25.79%
c. 25.97%
d. 15.39%
e. 1.54%
15.39%
The concentration 1:4000 is equivalent to the
following, except;
a. 0.025%
b. 0.25mg/ml
c. 250 ppm
d. 25 mg%
e. NOTA
NOTA
How many tumblers can be obtained from 1
gallon?
a. 63 tumblers
b. 31 tumblers
c. 32 tumblers
d. 16 tumblers
e. 15 tumblers
15 tumblers
Calculate the dose for a patient that measures
6’3” and weighs 70 lb if the dose is 15 mg/m²;
a. 21.9 mg
b. 1.95 mg
c. 19.42 mg
d. 25.2 mg
e. 18.15 mg
19.42 mg
Potency of measles virus vaccine is expressed in
a. PFU
b. TCID50
c. FFU
d. EL.U
e. NOTA
TCID50
A biologic contains 100 LF units of diphtheria
toxoid in each 5 ml of product. If a pediatric
patient is to receive 5 Lf units, how many ml of
product would be administered.
a. 0.25 ml
b. 0.05 ml
c. 0.5 ml
d. 0.0n5 ml
e. NOTA
0.25 ml
If a 2 ml vial contains 80 units of
onabotulinumtoxinA (BOTOX) and 0.1 ml is
injected into 10 sites during a procedure, how
many units of drug was administered?
a. 20 units
b. 40 units
c. 60 units
d. 80 units
e. NOTA
40 units
Calculate the equivalent tonic effect to NaCl
represented by the ingredients in a 5%
dextrose solution and determine whether the
solution is;
a. isotonic
b. hypotonic
c. hypertonic
isotonic
Using Young’s Rule, compute for the child
dose of acetaminophen in a day:
Adult dose: 500 mg q4h
Child’s weight: 45 lb
Child’s age: 8 years old
a. 200 mg
b. 900 mg
c. 1,125 mg
d. 1, 200 mg
e. NOTA
1, 200 mg
How many ml of water will be added to a 20%
NaCl solution to prepare 1 pint of NSS?
a. 45.17 ml
b. 451.71ml
c. 21.29ml
d. 212.9ml
e. NOTA
451.71ml
In what proportion should a 10%, 7% Sulfur
ointments and yellow ointment be mixed to
prepare a 5% Sulfur ointment;
a. 10:7:1
b. 7:3:3
c. 5:5:7
d. 4:4:11
e. NOTA
5:5:7
The total amount in a given formulation of
Dexamethasone ophthalmic ointment is 35 g.
What factor are you going to use to solve for
the quantity needed to prepare 50 dozens of a
3.5 gram- tube of the ophthalmic ointment.
a. 20
b. 35
c. 60
d. 70
e. 3.5
60
If there is an order for a particular Dangerous
Drug (DD) with a preparation of 10 mg/2 mL
ampule, how many mL would be needed if the
dose is 0.05 mg/Kg/dose? The patient is 110
lbs.
a. 1 mL
b. 0.05 mL
c. 0.25 mL
d. 0.5 mL
0.5 mL
The temperature 4.44°C is equal to
a. 40° F
b. 5°C
c. 279 K
d. a and c
e. NOTA
40° F
What is the %v/v of a solution of 800g liquid (spec. gravity = 0.8) in water to make 4000mL?
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 25%
d. 80%
25%
Which of the following is incorrect pairing?
a. 0.009% NSS: hypotonic solution
b. 9.0% NSS: isotonic solution
c. 0.9% NSS: isotonic solution
d. 0.09% NSS: hypotonic solution
9.0% NSS: isotonic solution
Arrange the ff administration instructions from
MOST to LEAST frequent:
a. q4h, hs, bid
b. bid, hs, q4h
c. q8h, bid, hs
d. hs, q4h, bid
q8h, bid, hs
If a drug inhaler contains 20 mg of the active
drug, how many inhalation doses can be
delivered, if each inhalation dose contains 90
micrograms?
a. 1,800 doses
b. 22 doses
c. 180 doses
d. 222 doses
222 doses
How many grams of 1% hydrocortisone cream
must be mixed with 0.5% hydrocortisone
cream if one wishes to prepare 80 g of a 0.6%
w/w preparation?
a. 12 g
b. 16 g
c. 20 g
d. 24 g
e. 36 g
16 g
Which of the following is/are NOT the technical
aspects of pharmaceutical services?
A. Counseling
B. Medicine Supply Management
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Counseling
These are drugs that are NOT safe for use and
are habit-forming drugs that require the
supervision of a licensed practitioner.
A. Legend Drugs
B. Prescription Drugs
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Both A and B
Which of the following is/are NOT the outcome/s of
pharmaceutical care?
A. Cure of Patient’s Disease
B. Elimination of patient’s symptomatology
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
None of the above
The following are the responsibilities of a
Registered Pharmacist, EXCEPT:
A. Must maintain a high level of practice
competence
B. Planning and conducting a patient’s
course of treatment
C. Provide pharmaceutical care
D. Practice the value of confidentiality
Planning and conducting a patient’s
course of treatment
This is a special prescription issued by the
Dangerous Drug Board for practitioners to prescribe
both regulated & prohibited drugs.
A. Yellow prescription
B. DDB Form 1-72
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Both A and B
These are drugs that are not habit-forming and can
be bought off-the-shelf in stores.
A. OTC
B. Legend Drugs
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
OTC
Only Physicians having an S3 license can
prescribe both prohibited and regulated drugs.
Retail Pharmacies that do not require a license from
the Dangerous Drugs Board to sell dangerous drugs
in any form. (Invalid question supposed to be S2
license)
A. 1st Statement is true. 2nd Statement is
false.
B. 1st Statement is false. 2nd Statement is
true.
C. Both statements are true
D. Neither statements are true.
1st Statement is true. 2nd Statement is
false.
Main requirements for Medication Review:
A. Data and access to information, resources, and logistics, collaborative efforts
B. Data access and Collaborative efforts
C. Resources and Collaborative efforts
D. Collaborative efforts and Access to information
Data and access to information, resources, and logistics, collaborative efforts
Impact of medication review, EXCEPT:
A. Clinical Outcomes
B. Humanistic Outcomes
C. Social Outcomes
D. Economic Outcomes
Social Outcomes
It is a px-centered systematic approach wherein
the Clinical Pharmacist will design a written format to
ensure a proper drug use, achieve a definite
outcome, and improve px care through assuring
safety, effectiveness, and cost-effectiveness.
A. Pharmaceutical Care Plan
B. Medication Review
C. Medication Adherence
D. None of the above
Pharmaceutical Care Plan
The following are true in the role of being a Clinical Pharmacist, EXCEPT:
I. The Clinical Pharmacist should serve as a resource regarding all aspects of medical procedures and be accessible as a point of contact.
II. Clinical pharmacists should assist the
therapeutic decision-making and advice on patient safety issues
III. They should be involved in all patient care areas especially in therapeutic decision making.
IV. They should assure continuity care.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II only
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
I only
It is a role of the pharmacist as an effective
source of factual medication information despite
having contradicting and confusing information
encountered in their line of duty.
A. Life-long learner
B. Entrepreneur
C. Communicator
D. Decision-maker
E. Care-giver
Decision-maker
This branch of pharmacy assures the integrity of
the medicine supply chain and ensures proper
storage of medicines.
A. Industrial Pharmacist
B. Dispensing Pharmacist
C. Clinical Pharmacist
D. Nuclear Pharmacist
E. None of the above
Dispensing Pharmacist
This role of being a pharmacist is to promote and innovate its field of profession by improving certain aspects of standard operating procedures or undergoing studies to help improve quality healthcare services
A. Decision-maker
B. Communicator
C. Researcher
D. Care-giver
E. Life-long learner
Researcher
The following components of the mission/philosophy of pharmaceutical practice except:
I. Health promotion
II. Preventing harm in operating or surgical errors
III. Identifying and managing health-related problems
IV. Delegating responsible use of unlimited health-care resources
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
E. None of the above
2 and 4 only
It is a quality of being a pharmacist to not only be
knowledgeable about the pharmaceutical aspect but
also convey that information in a way patients and
customers can understand
A. Decision-maker
B. Researcher
C. Care-giver
D. Life-long learner
E. Communicator
Communicator
The following are roles of a dispensing
pharmacist except:
I. Assisting patients to help them understand
the correct timing of doses, foods, or other
medicines to avoid when taking a dose
II. Monitor and verifying adverse medicine
events
III. Assures reliability and safety of the medicine
supply
IV. Can be consulted for health-related
problems
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
All of the above
A quality of a pharmacist is to pursue knowledge
and expose oneself to new and updated information
within the profession to promote better patient
healthcare service
A. Researcher
B. Life-long learner
C. Agents for positive change
D. Teacher
E. Leader
Life-long learner
The mission of pharmacy practice is to ___ to
health ____ and to help patients with _____
problems to make the best use of their medicines
A. Adhere, improvement, health
B. Contribution, innovations, health
C. Adhere, improvement, emotional
D. Contribute, improvement, health
E. Promote, advancements, medical
Contribute, improvement, health
Marketing of Drugs and medical devices by
private and Public organization:
A. Pharmaceutical Management
B. Pharmaceutical Marketing
C. Pharmaceutical Administration
D. Pharmaceutical Economics
Pharmaceutical Marketing
FOUR P’s oF MARKETING:
A. PRODUCT, PLACE, PRICE AND PEOPLE
B. PRODUCT, PLACE, PRICE AND PROMOTION
C. PRODUCT, PLACE, PRICE, AND PERFORMANCE
D. PEOPLE, PRODUCT, PLACE AND PRICE
PRODUCT, PLACE, PRICE AND
PROMOTION
The cycle of management:
A. Planning, Organizing, Motivation, Control.
B. Planning, Organizing, Motivation, Challenge.
C. Planning, Organizing, Mechanism, Control.
D. Control, Motivation, Organization, Planning
Planning, Organizing, Motivation,
Control.
Competitive Advantage are attributed to a
variety of factors except:
A. Cost Structure
B. Quality of Product offering
C. Customer Service
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
NOTA
Set of characteristics and benefits the
company choses to stimulate the desired
target market except:
A. Marketing plan
B. Marketing Mix
C. Market value
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
Market value
Good marketing plan includes the following
except:
A. Financial Goal
B. Positioning Strategy
C. Brand Strategy
D. NOTA
E. AOTA
NOTA
Acronym of Smart:
A. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant and Time bound
B. Specific, Measurable, Acceptable, Relevant, and Time-bound
C. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Reliable, and Time-bound
D. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Reliable, and Time-Table
Specific, Measurable, Attainable,
Relevant and Time bound
THREE KEY AREAS TO EXECUTE THE
RIGHT ACTIVITIES
A. Managing a company business
B. Establishing strategies
C. Assessment of company strength
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
AOTA
Acronym for SWOT:
A. Strength, Work ethics, Opportunities,
Threats
B. Strength, Weakness, Opposite, Threats
C. Strength, Work ethics, Opportunities,
Threaten
D. Strength, Weakness, Opportunities,
Threats
Strength, Weakness, Opportunities,
Threats
ONE OF THE THREE PHASES OF
VALUE CREATION:
A. 1st Phase - Sales Force
B. 2nd Phase - Determine specific
Product Feature
C. 3rd Phase - Choosing the value
segment, target and positioning
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
2nd Phase - Determine specific
Product Feature
Substances in this schedule have no
currently accepted medical use, a lack
of accepted safety for use under
medical supervision, and a high
potential for abuse.
A. Schedule 1
B. Schedule 2
C. Schedule 3
D. Schedule 4
E. Schedule 5
Schedule 1
Aims to understand how and why drugs/ medicines are used as they are; and to improve drug use to the best possible health outcomes.
A. Drug Usage Evaluation
B. Drug Information Service
C. Medication Administration
D. Drug Utilization Review
Drug Utilization Review
The Patient Medical Chart documents
the health information of all patients. It
also serves as a mechanism for
communication among health care
professionals and is a hospital
non-legal document of the patient’s
health care information
A. Only 1st statement is false
B. 1st statement is true. 2nd
statement is false
C. Neither of the statements are
false
D. Neither of the statements are
true
Neither of the statements are
true
Complete Floor Stock System wherein
omission of rarely used for particularly
expensive drugs from the floor stock but
dispensed when prescribed. Individual
Prescription Order system is usually
used by the small/private hospitals
A. 1st statement is wrong. 2nd
statement is correct.
B. 1st statement is correct. 2nd
statement is wrong
C. Neither of the statements are
wrong.
D. Neither of the statements are
correct.
Neither of the statements are
wrong
An FDA approved drug which is recommended as being essential for good patient care with a well-established usage. Once it is accepted it may be prescribed by all members of the attending and house staffs.
A. Investigational Drug
B. Specialized Formulary Drug
C. Formulary Drug
D. None of the above
Formulary Drug
What is not TRUE about compounding?
A. Used for patient who cannot be treated with an FDA-approved medication, such as a patient who has an allergy to a certain dye and needs a medication to be made without
B. Most compounded drugs are not FDA approved.
C. Compounded drugs are used to cater the needs of a specific medication used by a patient.
D. Compounded drugs have the same safety, quality, and effectiveness assurances as approved drugs.
Compounded drugs have the same safety, quality, and effectiveness assurances as approved drugs.
A prescription was given by an out-patient to the hospital pharmacist on duty. The prescription was indecipherable and illegible. As a pharmacist, what would be the BEST solution?
A. Guess the medication/s being prescribed and dispense.
B. Tell the patient the medication/s prescribed is/are out of stock/s.
C. Call the prescribing physician to confirm and request for a new legible prescription before dispensing
D. Call the prescribing physician for the patient’s diagnosis to prescribe the medication and dispense.
Call the prescribing physician to confirm and request for a new legible prescription before dispensing
A 60 year-old male patient submits a
24-hour urine for creatinine clearance
analysis. The volume of the sample
submitted is 1580 mL. The urine
creatinine is 140 mg/dL, and the plasma
creatinine is 0.9 mg/dL.
A. 104.22
B. 157.43
C. 170.68
D. 138.90
170.68
Interpret the result of the 60 year old
patient (refer to question number 8)
A. High creatinine level
B. Normal creatinine level
C. Low creatinine level
D. NOTA
High creatinine level
NORMAL RANGE:
Adult female: 85-125mL/min
Adult male: 97-137mL/min
Compute for the infusion rate:
D5Lr: 1 Liter to be infused for 12 hrs
with a drop factor of 15
A. 20.83 gtt/min
B. 23.01 gtt/min
C. 20.03 gtt/min
D. 20.01 gtt/min
20.83 gtt/min
What is the role of pharmacists in medical
informatics?
A. Analyzing patient demographics
B. Ensuring medication safety and
efficacy through information
systems
C. Conducting surgical procedures
D. Managing hospital finances
Ensuring medication safety and
efficacy through information
systems
How does CDSS contribute to evidence-based practice in pharmacy?
A. By relying solely on healthcare provider experience
B. By automatically administering medications
C. By providing clinical guidelines and recommendations
D. By restricting access to patient data.
By providing clinical guidelines
and recommendations
Example of a tertiary source
A. Conference proceedings
B. Review of articles
C. Hospital Formulary
D. Artifacts
Hospital Formulary
Which of the following is NOT considered a
source of evidence in evidence-based
medicine?
A. Randomized controlled trials
B. Expert opinions
C. Case reports
D. Meta-analyses
Expert opinions
A researcher wants to investigate the
effectiveness of a new medication for
hypertension compared to standard therapy.
Which component of the PICO framework does
this represent?
A. Patient
B. Intervention
C. Comparison
D. Outcome
Intervention
Which is/are true for the 2nd step of the modified systematic approach
I. This is historically the most difficult step because you must act as a detective.
II. It’s best to inquire how the requestor would like the information delivered at this step.
A. Only the 1st statement is correct
B. Both are wrong
C. Both are correct
D. Only the 2nd statement is correct
Only the 1st statement is correct
A clinician wants to know if the use of
acupuncture is more effective than traditional
pain medications for treating lower back pain in
elderly patients. What component of the PICO
framework would represent the traditional pain
medications?
A. Patient
B. Intervention
C. Comparison
D. Outcome
Comparison
A concise statement describing the symptom,
problem, condition, diagnosis, or another factor
that is the reason for the encounter
A. MHx
B. HPI
C. FHx
D. CC
CC
A 20 year old woman has a family history of breast cancer with both her mother dying of the disease at 29 and her sister being diagnosed with the disease at 31. What is the implication of this for this patient?
A. There is a significantly increased
risk of this person developing breast cancer
B. There is no significance of such a history
C. There is no benefit in enrolling such a patient into a screening program
D. There is no significance of such a history
E. There is no benefit in offering genetic counseling & screening
There is a significantly increased risk of this person developing breast cancer
It is the most common method of documentation
used by providers to input notes into patients’
medical records
A. SOAP
B. CORE
C. FARM
D. PRIM
SOAP
