Module 4

Question 1

Which of the following parameters is
used to indicate the ability of a drug to produce the desired therapeutic effect relative to a toxic effect?

o Potency
o Intrinsic activity
o Therapeutic index
o Efficacy
o Bioavailability

Answer 1

Therapeutic index

Question 2

The hormone Cortisol secreted by the adrenals is capable of targeting
intranuclear receptors secondary to its ability to:

o Recruit intracellular kinases
o Undergo autophosphorylation
o Diffuse through lipid membranes
o Interact with G-proteins
o Interact with adenylyl cyclise

Answer 2

Interact with G-proteins

Question 3

A 43-year-old man who was recently
fired from a well-paying job decides to commit suicide and ingests 20 tablets 2gr phenobarbital. He was discovered at home deeply sedated with diminished breathing, low body temperature, and skin reddening. He was appropriately diagnosed with barbiturate overdose. The patient is given bicarbonate to alkalinize his urine. How does alkalinization of urine with bicarbonate help to overcome the toxic effects of
Phenobarbital in this situation?

o It increases glomerular filtration
o It decreases proximal tubular
secretion
o It decreases distal tubular
reabsorption
o It enhances drug metabolism
o It decreases untoward side
effects

Answer 3

It decreases untoward side
effects

Question 3

Cimetidine and Ketoconazole are
considered as _______. This
pharmacologic property predisposes
patient taking other drugs concomitantly with any agents to toxicity.

o tubular secretion inhibitors
o enzyme inhibitors
o enzyme inducers
o chemical antagonists

Answer 3

chemical antagonists

Question 4

How does ephedrine differ from
epinephrine?

o Ephedrine can be given orally
and has a shorter duration of
action than epinephrine.
o Ephedrine can be given orally
and has the same duration of
action as that of epinephrine.
o Ephedrine can be given orally
and has longer duration of action
than epinephrine.
o Ephedrine can not be given orally
and has longer duration of action
than epinephrine.
o Ephedrine cannot be given orally
and has a shorter duration of
action than epinephrine

Answer 4

Ephedrine can be given orally
and has longer duration of action than epinephrine.

Question 5

A 60 year old male hypotensive male
patient who is having difficulty on his
diuretic and clonidine program. How
should clonidine be discontinued?

o Clonidine should be discontinued
abruptly once the blood pressure
is normal.
o Clonidine should be discontinued
slowly to avoid possible rebound
hypertension. o Clonidine should be discontinued after his diuretic therapy.
o Clonidine should be discontinued
before giving a diuretic.
o Clonidine should be discontinued before giving nifedipine.

Answer 5

Clonidine should be discontinued slowly to avoid possible rebound hypertension.

Question 6

A molecule that binds to a receptor is called :

o ligand
o chelate
o antagonist
o reverse agonist
o mixed agonist-antagonist

Answer 6

ligand

Question 7

A drug when suddenly stopped
causes the symptoms to come back in exaggerated fashion. This is known as:

o withdrawal
o dependence
o rebound
o tolerance
o idiosyncratic reaction

Answer 7

rebound

Question 8

Neuroleptic drugs are also called:

o minor tranquilizers
o anti-schizophrenic drugs
o antipsychotic drugs
o all of the above
o only B and C are correct

Answer 8

all of the above

Question 8

Most of the neurotransmitters are
hydrophyllic, thus they need ____ for
cell penetration and produce their
necessary actions.

o micelles
o chelates
o receptors
o protein carriers
o binding proteins

Answer 8

receptors

Question 9

Which is TRUE about physical
dependence on drugs?
1. patient feels distressed after stopping the drug
2. reduced effect with repeated doses of the drug
3. need for higher doses to get the desired effect

o 1 only
o 2 only
o 1 and 3
o 1 and 2

Answer 9

1 and 3

Question 10

A drug is administered in the form of
an inactive pro-drug. The pro-drug
increases the expression of a
cytochrome P-450 that converts the pro- drug to its active form. With chronic, long-term administration of the pro-drug, which of the following will be observed?

o The potency will decrease
o The potency will increase
o The efficacy will decrease
o The efficacy will increase
o no change in both potency and
efficacy

Answer 10

The potency will decrease

Question 11

Which of the following is an action of
a non-competitive antagonist?

o Alters the mechanism of action of
an agonist
o Alters the potency of an agonist
o Shifts the dose–response curve
of an agonist to the right
o Decreases the maximum
response to an agonist
o Binds to the same site on the
receptor as the agonist

Answer 11

Alters the mechanism of action of an agonist

Question 12

Which of the following is considered
an IV anesthetic?

o fentanyl
o naloxone
o mepiridine
o naltrexone
o succinylcholine

Answer 12

succinylcholine

Question 13

Which of the following BEST
describes a general anesthetic agent?

o An agent that depresses the
central nervous system
irreversibly to produce a loss of
consciousness, analgesia) and
muscle relaxation.
o An agent that stimulates the
central nervous system, thus
making it possible for a physician
to perform various types of
surgeries.
o An agent used to produce
regional analgesia in a patient.
o An agent that depresses the
central nervous system reversibly
to produce a loss of consciousness, analgesia, and muscle relaxation

Answer 13

An agent that depresses the
central nervous system reversibly
to produce a loss of
consciousness, analgesia, and
muscle relaxation

Question 13

TRUE about Ultra short acting
BARBITURATES:
1. administered intravenously in order to induce anesthesia
2. used to counteract the
convulsions associated with some
chemical substances (for example,
tetanus toxin)
3. high degree of lipid
solubility

o 1 only
o 2 only
o 1, 2 and 3
o 1 and 3
o 1 and 2

Answer 13

1, 2 and 3

Question 14

Sedative-hypnotics can be used to
provide analgesia to patients. Which of the following statements BEST
describes the analgesia produced by
sedative-hypnotics?

o Patients who have been given
extremely large doses of
barbiturates are unresponsive to
pain.
o Patients who are administered
intravenous doses of sedative- hypnotics are unable to feel any
painful stimuli.
o Patients who are given sedative- hypnotics seem to be more
tolerant of pain than those
patients who are not given these
drugs.
o Patients who are given any
amount of sedative-hypnotics are
unable to feel pain, but they are
also unable to maintain
consciousness for long periods

Answer 14

Patients who are given any
amount of sedative-hypnotics are unable to feel pain, but they are also unable to maintain consciousness for long period

Question 14

TRUE about Nitrous oxide:

o gas supplied in blue metal
cylinders
o relatively weak in terms of
producing anesthesia and muscle
relaxation
o allergic reactions are common
with its use, thus antihistamines
are given concomitantly with it
o A and B
o B and C

Answer 14

A and B

Question 15

Diazepam can be used in the
treatment of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

o alcohol withdrawal syndrome
o skeletal muscle relaxation
o pre-anesthetic medication to
reduce anxiety
o antiseizure agent in patients with
tetanus
o no exception

Answer 15

no exception

Question 15

Which statement BEST describes
the mechanism of action of sedative- hypnotics?

o They inhibit the flow of potassium
and sodium ions across the semi
permeable membranes of the
nerves.
o They inhibit the depolarization of
the nerve fibers and thus produce
calm or sleep
o They depress the reticular
activating system (RAS).
o They inhibit the transmission of
electrical impulses from the brain
by interfering with the passage of
certain ions through the nerve
fibers
o A and C are correct

Answer 15

They inhibit the transmission of electrical impulses from the brain by interfering with the passage of certain ions through the nerve fibers

Question 16

Anticonvulsants/antiseizure drugs act by _________________.

o Depressing the cerebral cortex of
the brain, thereby lowering the
threshold of the CNS to
convulsive stimuli.
o Stimulating the cerebral cortex of
the brain, thereby raising the
threshold of the CNS to
convulsive stimuli.
o Depressing the cerebral cortex of
the brain, thereby raising the
threshold of the CNS to
convulsive stimuli.
o Depressing the cerebral cortex of
the brain, thereby deadening the
part of the brain that is
responsible for the seizures
o Stimulating the cerebellum to
promote respiration and depress
the level of the patient’s
consciousness

Answer 16

Depressing the cerebral cortex of
the brain, thereby raising the
threshold of the CNS to
convulsive stimuli.

Question 17

Which adverse effect(s) is/are
associated with the use of phenytoin?

o Nystagmus.
o Ataxia.
o Slurred speech.
o All the above
o Only A and B

Answer 17

All the above

Question 18

Atypical antipsychotic drugs:

o reduce the likelihood of
extrapyramidal side effects
o used for treatment resistance in older agents (antipsychotics)
o Risperidone is an example of a drug in this class
o all of the above
o only A and B are correct

Answer 18

all of the above

Question 19

Lithium carbonate should not be administered to patients who are taking diuretics , because diuretics tend to:

o Increase excretion of lithium therapeutic failure
o Cause accumulation of lithium toxicity
o Diarrhea and hypokalemia
o A and B are correct
o B and C are correct

Answer 19

Cause accumulation of lithium toxicity

Question 20

Select from the following choices the
correct definition of the term antianxiety agent.

o A drug used to improve the
depressed mood of a patient.
o A drug used to calm a patient
o A drug which will reduce certain
symptoms such as hallucinations
and delusions.
o A drug which will remove a
patient’s fear
o B and D are correct

Answer 20

B and D are correct

Question 21

From the statements below, select
the statement which best describes the advantage(s) of antianxiety agents over drugs which were previously used to calm orsedate patients.

o Antianxiety agents do not cause
excessive loss of alertness.
o Antianxiety agents can be safely
taken while driving or operating
machinery.
o Overdosage of antianxiety agents
rarely results in death to the
patient.
o Both A and C.
o Both B and C

Answer 21

Both A and C

Question 22

Which of the following statement/s
best describe/s the use(s) of
antidepressant agents.

o The treatment of depression that results because of chemical
imbalances in the body.
o The treatment of depression that
is not a result of chemical
imbalances in the body.
o The treatment of patients who are experiencing periods of overwhelming stress.
o The treatment of acute and
chronic psychoses.
o B and D are correct

Answer 22

The treatment of depression that results because of chemical imbalances in the body

Question 23

When taking Aminophylline orally,
the patient should be caution __________.
o Not to take the medication with alcohol.
o Take the medication with food.
o Discontinue the medication immediately if any slight nervousness is detected.
o Not to drive while taking the medication
o Both B and C are correct

Answer 23

Not to drive while taking the medication

Question 24

The main clinical use of the drug Dextroamphetamine sulfate is:

o To suppress a patient’s appetite.
o To increase a patient’s ability to
concentrate.
o To treat narcolepsy.
o To stimulate respiration
o To suppress cry, irritating cough

Answer 24

To treat narcolepsy

Question 25

Narcotic agents produce an effect on a patient’s respiratory system. From the list of descriptions below, select the best description of the specific effect produced by the narcotic agents.

o Narcotic agents stimulate a
patient’s respiratory system.
o Narcotic agents depress a
patient’s respiratory system.
o Narcotic agents decrease the levels of carbon dioxide in the blood.
o Narcotic agents depress the respiratory rate only in small doses
o Both B and C are correct

Answer 25

Both B and C are correct

Question 26

Tolerance develops easily with the
use of Narcotic Analgesics. Which of the following BEST describes Tolerance?

o The ability of the body to adapt to
the presence of foreign
substances that result in the requirement for progressively
larger doses of the drug to obtain
the same effect.
o The ability of the body to adapt to
the presence of foreign
substances that result in the
requirement for progressively smaller doses of the drug to obtain the same effect.
o The ability of the body to adapt to the presence of foreign
substances that result in the
requirement for changing the route of administration of the drug.
o The ability of the body to adapt to
the presence of foreign
substances that result in the
requirement for changing the dosage form of the drug
o A and C are correct

Answer 26

A and C are correct

Question 27

The primary indication/s for the use of Methadone is/are:

o moderate to severe pain
o treat withdrawal symptoms of
narcotics in tapering fashion
o neurolept analgesia
o A and B are correct
o B and C are correct

Answer 27

B and C are correct

Question 28

Fentanyl , a narcotic analgesic 80 times more potent than morphine can be used in general anesthesia. Its main disadvantage is/are:
1. hepatotoxicity
2. respiratory depression
3. metabolic acidosis

o 1 only
o 2 only
o 1, 2 and 3
o 1 and 3
o 1 and 2

Answer 28

2 only

Question 29

Aside from being the drug of choice for pain associated with myocardial infarction, Morphine can also be given for the treatment of:

o hard to treat glaucoma
o acute pulmonary edema
o status asthmaticus
o all of the above
o only B and C are correct

Answer 29

all of the above

Question 30

A38-year-old farmer is brought to the ER by his wife with symptoms of sudden difficulty breathing, sweatiness, and anxiety.
He was spraying insecticide
when this happened. It has been 25 minutes since the symptoms started. The patient is emergently intubated and given atropine and another medication that acts to reactivate
acetylcholinesterase. What medication is it?

o Physostigmine
o Propranolol
o Pralidoxime
o Phenylephrine
o Pancuronium

Answer 30

Pralidoxime

Question 31

A 66-year-old woman with a long
history of heavy smoking presents to her doctor with complaints of shortness of breath and chronic coughing that has been present for about 2 years and has been worsening in frequency. The doctor decides to prescribe a bronchodilator agent that has minimal cardiac side effects, since the patient also has an extensive cardiac history. Which medication did the doctor likely prescribe?

o Albuterol
o Prazosin
o Atenolol
o Ipratropium
o Pseudoephedrine

Answer 31

Ipratropium

Question 32

Phenylephrine is used to treat
patients with nasal mucosa stuffiness because it causes vaso-constriction by:

o Blocking nicotinic cholinoceptors
o Blocking b-adrenoceptors
o Stimulating a -adrenoceptors
o Stimulating muscarinic
cholinoceptors
o C and D are correct

Answer 32

Stimulating a -adrenoceptors

Question 33

Emergency treatment of acute heart failure is best managed with which of the following agents? This agent can increase cardiac output and decrease peripheral resistance

o Metaproterenol
o Phenylephrine
o Dobutamine
o Norepinephrine
o Isoproterenol

Answer 33

Dobutamine

Question 34

Which of the following drugs is used
to diagnose myasthenia gravis, an
autoimmune disease characterized by muscle weakness caused by circulating antibodies that block acetylcholine receptors at the postsynaptic neuromuscular junction?

o Atropine
o Neostigmine
o Bethanechol
o Edrophonium
o Pralidoxim

Answer 34

Neostigmine

Question 35

A 60-year-old man develops
congestive heart failure (CHF) after
suffering his second myocardial
infarction. The doctor decided to place him on diuretic therapy . On follow-up, the patient is found to have hypokalemia, which is most likely due to furosemide
use. Which of the following agents can help resolve hypokalemia while at the same time treat CHF?

o Allopurinol
o Hydrochlorothiazide
o Spironolactone
o Acetazolamide
o Ethacrynic acid

Answer 35

Spironolactone

Question 35

Dantrolene is the drug of choice to
treat malignant hyperthermia caused by succinylcholine because dantrolene:

o Blocks Ca2 release from
sarcoplasmic reticulum
o Induces contraction of skeletal
muscle
o Increases the rate of
succinylcholine metabolism
o Inhibits succinylcholine binding to
nicotinic receptors
o Acts centrally to reduce fever

Answer 35

Induces contraction of skeletal muscle

Question 36

A 57-year-old man with a history of
heavy alcohol use is being admitted for a first episode of congestive heart failure (CHF), which likely resulted from untreated alcoholic cardiomyopathy. The cardiologist decides to start the patient on diuretic therapy. Which class of
diuretics is preferred in this scenario?

o Loop diuretics, because they
exert their action at the distal
convoluted tubule
o Loop diuretics, because the thick
ascending limb is an area of high
capacity for NaCl reabsorption
o Thiazide diuretics, because they
exert their action at the thick
ascending limb of the loop of
Henle
o Thiazide diuretics, because they
increase cardiac output
o Thiazide diuretics, because they
increase peripheral vascular
resistance

Answer 36

Loop diuretics, because the thick
ascending limb is an area of high
capacity for NaCl reabsorption

Question 37

A 65-year-old retiree develops
progressive vision loss with heaviness behind his eyes. He was diagnose with glaucoma. To prevent further progression of the disease and to alleviate current symptoms, the physician starts the patient on
acetazolamide therapy. What is the
mechanism of action of this medication?

o Potentiates carbonic anhydrase
in all parts of the body
o Reduces reabsorption of
bicarbonate
o Increases excretion of hydrogen
o Increases rate of formation of bicarbonate in the aqueous humor
o Increases uptake of sodium in the proximal tubule

Answer 37

Reduces reabsorption of
bicarbonate

Question 38

The most abundant metabolite of
Norepinephrine and Epinephrine is
Vanillylmandelic acid. This can be
recovered in the patient’s:

o serum
o plasma
o urine
o A and B are correct
o B and C are correct

Answer 38

urine

Question 38

A patient is admitted into the
emergency room and manifests
ventricular tachycardia with complains of palpitations and shortness of breath following severe acute myocardial infarction (MI).This arrhythmia is life threatening and must be controlled immediately. Which of the following drugs would be best to quickly control the condition?

o Dobutamine
o Digitalis
o Quinidine
o Lidocaine
o Atropine

Answer 38

Lidocaine

Question 39

A 50-year-old factory worker with a
history of medication-controlled hypertension complains of a painful, swollen big toe on the left foot. You
suspect gout and check his uric acid
levels, which are elevated. Upon
reviewing his medications , you realize that one of them may be the cause of his current symptoms. Which medication might that be?

o Acetazolamide
o Furosemide
o Spironolactone
o Hydrochlorothiazide
o Mannitol

Answer 39

Furosemide

Question 40

A 76-year-old man has suffered from
atrial fibrillation for many years. This
condition has been under good control with amiodarone and diltiazem until recently, when he started experiencing palpitations. Her cardiologist decided to
start the patient on digoxin therapy. Digoxin works by which of the following mechanism?

o It decreases intracellular sodium
and increases intracellular
potassium
o It lowers intracellular calcium
o It decreases stroke volume and
cardiac output
o It diminishes elimination of
sodium and water
o It increases vagal activity and
decreases sympathetic tone

Answer 40

It increases vagal activity and
decreases sympathetic tone

Question 40

A woman who is undergoing a
endocrine work-up to diagnose the
cause of a large multi-nodular goiter
develops atrial fibrillation. T3 and T4
were both elevated and TSH was
markedly low . Which of the following would be best to treat this arrhythmia

o Verapamil
o Propranolol
o Digitalis
o Bretylium
o Tocainide

Answer 40

Digitalis

Question 41

A 54-year-old woman is diagnosed
with congestive heart failure (CHF). She was prescribed with captopril. This agent is considered effective in
decreasing mortality rates in this group of patients. Which of the following effects is caused by this drug?

o It has a high affinity for
angiotensin II receptors
o It promotes increased peripheral
vascular resistance
o It decreases cardiac output and
increases afterload
o It causes vasodilation and
induces natriuresis
o It increases preload

Answer 41

It has a high affinity for
angiotensin II receptor

Question 42

The action of neuromuscular
junction-blocking drugs is enhanced
when given with this pair of drugs. Thus, they should NOT be given with these agent (neuromuscular junction-blocking drugs).

o tetracyclines and lidocaine
o aminoglycosides and isoflurane
o chloramphenicol and amiodarone
o amoxicillin and cimetidine
o verapamil and enalapril

Answer 42

verapamil and enalapril

Question 43

TRUE about DOPAMINE, except:

o activates peripheral b1 - adrenoceptors increase heart rate and contractility
o it inhibits norepinephrine release
o reduces arterial resistance in the splanchnic vessels
o lowers renal blood flow lowering of the blood pressure
o no exception

Answer 43

it inhibits norepinephrine release

Question 44

The following drug/s is/are
considered sympatholytics-> lower BP> essential drugs for the treatment of hypertension.

o hydralazine
o methyldopa
o clonidine
o A and B are correct
o B and C are correct

Answer 44

B and C are correct

Question 45

In Pheochromocytoma, increased
amounts of catecholamines are
produced due to presence of tumors in the adrenals. Blood pressure increases as a result. This condition can be managed by surgical incision of the tumor. However, BP can be lowered with this/these drug/s before the actual surgical procedure.

o labetalol
o phentolamine
o nitroprusside
o minoxidil
o B and C are correct

Answer 45

B and C are correct

Question 46

Ester anesthetics are notorious in
causing allergic reactions due to the
formation of this substance:

o penicilloic acid
o GABA
o para aminobenzoic acid
o butyrylcholine
o gamma butyrolactone

Answer 46

para aminobenzoic acid

Question 47

Following a prolonged first labor, an
alert nurse notices persistent bleeding in the post-partum patient with no vaginal or cervical laceration, and her uterine fundus feels very soft. The patient’s heart rate is mildly elevated, and her blood pressure is 105/55 mm Hg. Which of the following would be the best choice to increase the uterine tone and stop the bleeding?

o Acetaminophen
o Buspirone
o Methylergonovine
o Methysergide
o Vasopressin

Answer 47

Methylergonovine

Question 48

The patient complains to his doctor
mild to moderate epigastric pain of 1
week duration. He explains that he has been taking aspirin for many years and 3 glasses of coffee in a day to keep him awake while at work and to relieve pain related to his low back injury. The doctor suspects gastritis and prescribes a trial of medication that might be helpful to
this patient. What medication did the
physician most likely prescribe?

o Doxylamine
o Desloratadine
o Cetrizine
o Famotidine
o Buspiron

Answer 48

Famotidine

Question 49

A 4th year Pharmacy student has
been taking over-the-counter (OTC)
diphenhydramine for her allergy rhinitis most of her life. Lately, however, she has had more frequent symptoms, so she increased the dose of the medication. She now asks her friend, who is a medical student, to explain to her how
exactly this agent makes her more
sleepy lately. What is the most likely
answer regarding diphenhydramine?

o It blocks H1 -receptors in the
brain
o It modulates the release of
dopamine and serotonin
triggering drowsiness
o It acts peripherally, since it does
not cross the blood–brain barrier
o It exerts its effects via
muscarinic–cholinergic agonist
activity
o It contains tryptophan, which
produces sedation

Answer 49

It blocks H1 -receptors in the
brain

Question 50

An overdose of benzodiazepines
can be reversed with this drug:

o naloxone
o methadone
o buproprion
o flumazenil
o hyoscine

Answer 50

flumazenil

Question 51

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the mechanism of action of HEPARIN?

o Heparin increases activity of
antithrombin
o Serine proteases of the clotting
cascade are deactivated
o Heparin catalyzes clotting in vitro
o Heparin aids sequestration of lipoproteins
o Clotting factor is activated

Answer 51

Heparin increases activity of
antithrombin

Question 52

Further studies on a patient
complaining of severe abdominal
revealed elevated levels of gastrin and evidence of ulcers involving the jejunum, suggest a diagnosis of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which of the following agents would be most useful in the management of this patient?

o Famotidine
o Lansoprazole
o Misoprostol
o Propantheline
o Pepto Bismol

Answer 52

Lansoprazole

Question 52

A 70 year old diabetic patient
developed end stage renal disease and requires once or twice a month red blood cell transfusion for his anemia. His attending physician decided to start him on Erythropoietin injections. As a
pharmacist, how would you explain to him the action of the drug?

o It increases proliferation of
erythroid precursor cells in the
bone marrow
o It decreases the release of
reticulocytes from the bone
marrow
o It decreases hemoglobin
synthesis
o It is independent of the amount of
iron stored in the body
o It participates in the mitochondrial
reaction that produces succinyl- CoA

Answer 52

It increases proliferation of
erythroid precursor cells in the bone marrow

Question 53

A patient who has a history of atrial
fibrillation was prescribed with warfarin. The pharmacy receives a call from the ER informing that the patient was admitted for warfarin toxicity. Which of the following H2 -blockers has the patient likely been taking?

o Cimetidine
o Ranitidine
o Scopolamine
o Famotidine
o Nizatidine

Answer 53

Cimetidine

Question 54

Zileuton is useful in the treatment of
asthma because it :

o Inhibits prostaglandin
biosynthesis
o Inhibits leukotriene synthesis
o Inhibits leukotriene receptors
o Inhibits 12-lipoxygenase

Answer 54

Inhibits leukotriene synthesis

Question 55

A 50-year-old female patient has
fasting glucose levels of 175 mg/dL, and with a glucose tolerance test, you have confirmed the diagnosis of type II diabetes. You begin therapy with metformin, but her fasting glucose levels remain above 100 mg/dL. You decide to change her therapy to glyburide. This
drug acts to:

o Increase insulin secretion
o Decrease glucocorticoid levels
o Decrease tissue sensitivity to
insulin
o Decrease insulin half-life
o Increase tissue sensitivity to
insulin

Answer 55

Increase insulin secretion

Question 56

A 40 year old woman complains of
hot flashes, feelings of weakness, and increased appetite. You observe that she is tachycardic and has a prominent pulse pressure. Results of a test for anti- TSH antibodies are positive. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

o Propylthiouracil
o Liotrix
o Thyrotropin a
o Ketoconazole
o Levothyroxine

Answer 56

Propylthiouracil

Question 57

The antibiotic/s of choice for
Pneumocystis carini infection in a patient with HIV is/are:

o cefixime
o cefipime
o co-trimoxazole
o A and C are correct
o B and C are correct

Answer 57

co-trimoxazole

Question 58

The selective toxicity with the use of
Aminoglycosides can be due to this
reason:

o humans do not have 30 s
subunits
o humans do not have 50 s
subunits
o the inability of the drugs to reach
the CNS
o they are only active against
Gram-negative aerobes
o A and C are correct

Answer 58

humans do not have 30 s
subunits

Question 59

Mycoplasmas are NOT sensitive to
Penicillin and other Cell wall synthesis inhibitors. This is an example of:

o resistance acquired by mutation
o resistance acquired from R
factors
o natural resistance
o resistance due to altered targets
o multidrug efflux pumps actively
pumping β-lactams out of the cell

Answer 59

multidrug efflux pumps actively pumping β-lactams out of the cell

Question 60

Cilastin is formulated with Imepenem in the treatment against most microorganisms. This is done to:

o inhibition of dehydropeptidases
less formation of inactive
products
o lessen nephrotoxicity
o reduce and retard the
development of resistance
o A and B are correct
o B and C are correct

Answer 60

lessen nephrotoxicity

Question 61

TRUE about Fluconazole as an
antifungal agent, EXCEPT:

o can be given orally or
intravenously
o lacks the endocrinological side
effects seen with ketoconazole
o drug of choice for systemic (disseminated) fungal infections
o better CSF penetration than
ketoconazole
o no exception

Answer 61

no exception

Question 62

What is the initial management at
home to be done (insert picture)

o Decontaminate the patient
o Give milk
o Let the patient vomit
o All of the above

Answer 62

Decontaminate the patient

Question 63

Petroleum distillate like kerosene
has the following characteristics that can increase the risk for aspiration. What are these properties?

o High surface tension, high
viscosity, low volatility
o Low viscosity, high volatility, low
surface tension
o High viscosity, low volatility, high
surface tension
o Low viscosity, low volatility, high
surface tension

Answer 63

Low viscosity, high volatility, low surface tension

Question 64

What are the 3 main organ systems
affected by Petroleum Distillates?

o CVS, CNS, Gastrointestinal
o Pulmonary, CNS, CVS
o Gastrointestinal, CVS, Pulmonary
o CNS, Hepatic, Pulmonary

Answer 64

Gastrointestinal, CVS, Pulmonary

Question 65

What is the goal of antidotal therapy
in opiate poisoning?

o Reinstitution of adequate
spontaneous ventilation. o Reversal of consciousness. o both
o none of the above

Answer 65

both

Question 65

The following are the mechanism of
action of INH poisoning

o Enhanced excitatory amino acid neurotransmission
o Inhibition of GABAergic tone
o Adenosine antagonism
o Glycine inhibition

Answer 65

Inhibition of GABAergic tone

Question 66

What is the antidote for
benzodiazepine toxicity?

o Naloxone
o Flumazenil
o Atropine
o Thiamin

Answer 66

Flumazenil

Question 67

What toxin is responsible for PSP poisoning?

o Saxitoxin
o Tetrodotoxin
o Ciguatoxin
o Scrombotoxin

Answer 67

Saxitoxin

Question 68

What specific symptom is
characteristic for Ciguatera poisoning?

o Gastrointestinal signs and
symptoms
o Hot-Cold Reversal
o Paresthesia
o Locked in syndrome

Answer 68

Paresthesia

Question 69

It is the study of how the
physicochemical properties of drugs, dosage forms & routes of administration affect the rate and extent of drug absorption:

o LADMER system
o Pharmaceutics
o Biopharmaceutics
o Pharmacokinetic

Answer 69

Biopharmaceutics

Question 69

What type of mushroom poisoning
can cause both gastrointestinal and
hepatorenal symptoms?

o Gyromitrin
o Muscimol
o Cyclopeptides
o Coprine

Answer 69

Cyclopeptides

Question 70

Antidote used in the treatment of
isonicotinic acid intoxication

o Flumazenil
o Pyridoxine
o Naloxone
o Thiamin

Answer 70

Naloxone

Question 71

The first step which determines the
onset of action, rate of absorption &
availability is.

o Liberation
o distribution
o Excretion
o absorption

Answer 71

Liberation

Question 72

The integral of drug level over time
from zero to infinity is.

o Biologic half life
o AUC
o Bioavailability
o Biopharmaceutics

Answer 72

AUC

Question 73

When a substance is half-ionized at
a certain pH, its pKa is:

o Greater than pH
o less than pH
o equal to pH
o negligible as compared to pH

Answer 73

equal to pH

Question 74

The Noyes-Whitney equation
determines:

o Particle size measurement
o Actual drug solubility
o Dissolution constant
o Dissolution rate

Answer 74

Dissolution rate

Question 75

Drug entering the body does not
instantly distribute between the blood & those other body fluids or tissues which it eventually reaches:

o open one-compartment
o open two-compartment
o multi-million compartment model
o central compartment

Answer 75

open one-compartment

Question 76

Rate constants in pharmacokinetics
are usually:

o zero order
o first order
o second order
o third order

Answer 76

first order

Question 77

This refers to the time in hours
necessary to reduce the drug
concentration in the blood, plasma, or serum to one- half after equilibrium is reached:

o Half-life
o clearance
o elimination
o GET
o hepatic clearance

Answer 77

Half-life

Question 77

Which of the following is / are the
equation/s of a first- order react (insert photo)

o I only
o II only
o III only
o II to IV
o I to IV

Answer 77

III only

Question 77

In IV infusion, it is essential to
administer this dose in order to
immediately reach steady state:

o loading dose
o maintenance dose
o tittered dose
o priming dose
o A and D

Answer 77

A and D

Question 78

It refers to the net transfer of a drug
from the circulating fluids of the body to various tissues & organs:

o absorption
o distribution
o metabolism
o excretion

Answer 78

distribution

Question 79

The term used to describe the
achievement of sustained drug concentration by simply increasing the dose size or by accidental fast release of drug from a sustained release dosage form:

o Dose curve
o accumulation
o dose dumping
o dose dependency

Answer 79

dose dumping

Question 80

The larger amount of total body fluid
& the very small amount of fat tissue in infants make it likely that the volume of distribution of hydrophilic compounds is _____ and that lipophilic ones is ____.

o Increased/decreased
o decreased/increased
o increased/increased
o decreased/decrease

Answer 80

decreased/increased

Question 81

Drug binding to protein can be
considered as a:

o reversible process
o irreversible process
o Linear
o Non Linear
o saturated

Answer 81

reversible process

Question 82

Free drug concentration is ____ of
plasma binding, but is _____ on tissue
binding:

o independent, dependent
o dependent, independent
o dependent, dissociative
o dissociative, independent

Answer 82

independent, dependent

Question 83

A PK parameter that gives the speed
at which a drug enters a compartment, distributes between a central & peripheral compartment and is eliminated from the systemic circulation

o half-life
o Volume of distribution
o rate constant
o AUC
o Cma

Answer 83

Volume of distribution

Question 84

It is a hypothetical structure which
can be used to characterize with
reproducibility the behavior & the fate of
a drug in biological systems. * Option 1

Question 85

This refers to the anatomical location
of the receptors for a drug:

o enzymes
o protoenzymes
o biophase
o microsomes

Answer 85

enzymes

Question 86

This is the increase in enzyme
content or rate of enzymatic processes resulting in faster metabolism of a compound:

o enzyme restriction
o enzyme inhibition
o enzyme imbibitions
o enzyme induction

Answer 86

enzyme induction

Question 87

The major plasma protein involved
in the distribution of weak acids is:

o albumin
o glycine
o glycoprotein
o erythrocyte

Answer 87

albumin